Patho Exam III
Patho Exam III: Immunology Quiz
Test your knowledge on immunology with our comprehensive Patho Exam III quiz! This quiz features 149 carefully crafted multiple-choice questions that challenge your understanding of the immune system, antibodies, hypersensitivity reactions, and more.
Whether you're preparing for an exam or simply want to reinforce your knowledge, this quiz is designed for you. Key features of the quiz include:
- In-depth questions on various immunological concepts
- Immediate feedback on your answers
- Engaging and educational experience
What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?
A. Natural active
B. Artificial active
C. Natural passive
D. Artificial passive
When an antigen enters the body, the immune system produces ___ against that antigen.
A. antibodies
B. allergens
C. haptens
D. epitopes
The primary characteristic that differentiates the adaptive immune response from other protective mechanisms is that the adaptive immune response is
A. A short-term response to a group of pathogens.
B. Specific to the antigen that initiates it.
C. Much less specific than innate mechanisms.
D. Similar each time it is activated.
Which of the following is correct?
A. An antigen is always an antibody.
B. An immunogen is always an antigen.
C. An antigen is always an immunogen.
D. An antibody is always an antigen.
Which immunoglobulin is released first in a primary infection?
A. IgG
B. IgD
C. IgA
D. IgM
All of the following are direct actions of antibodies except:
A. neutralization.
B. precipitation.
C. agglutination.
D. opsonization.
Which major histocompatibility complex marker identifies cells as belonging to “self”?
A. MHC I
B. MHC II
C. MHC III
D. MHC IV
The primary difference between a primary and secondary immune response is
A. The amount of IgE secreted.
B. The amount of pathogen present.
C. Memory cells.
D. How quickly the individual becomes ill.
A person gets his annual flu shot at work. What kind of immunity in this?
A. Natural active
B. Artificial active
C. Natural passive
D. Artificial passive
Antibodies are part of ___ immunity.
A. humoral, adaptive
B. humoral, innate
C. cell-mediated, adaptive
D. cell-mediated, innate
An adaptive response requires first that the antigen is
A. processed.
B. foreign.
C. recognized.
D. cloned.
Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
At birth, samples of blood from the umbilical cord indicate which immunoglobulin levels, if any, are near adult levels?
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgE
D. None of the immunoglobulins
Where are T lymphocytes matured and “selected”?
A. Bone marrow
B. thyroid
C. liver
D. thymus
Where are T and B lymphocytes produced?
A. Bone marrow
B. thyroid
C. liver
D. thymus
What type of cell secretes antibodies?
A. Plasma cell
B. B lymphocytes
C. T lymphocytes
D. antigen-presenting cell
All of the following may be antigen-presenting cells except:
A. macrophages
B. Dendritic cells
C. T lymphocytes
D. B lymphocytes
A person has a type I allergic reaction. Which pathophysiologic response is occurring?
A. Immune complexes are deposited in vessel walls
B. IgE and products of tissue mast cells are released
C. Antibody binds to tissue-specific antigen
D. T lymphocytes, not antibodies, mediate the process
The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?
A. T cells
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgG
A person with type O blood is likely to have high tiers of which anti-antibodies?
A. B
B. A
C. O
D. A and B
Which component of the immune system is deficient in individuals with infections caused by viruses, fungi, or yeast?
A. B cells
B. T cells
C. macrophages
D. Natural killer cells
Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA is the cause of which disease?
A. Hemolytic anemia
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Myasthenia gravis
Urticaria are a manifestation of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
A. IV
B. III
C. II
D. I
During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated?
A. eosinophils
B. neutrophils
C. monocytes
D. T lymphocytes
Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell fun
A. iodine
B. magnesium
C. zinc
D. iron
Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Which blood cell carries the carbohydrate antigens for blood type?
A. neutrophils
B. platelets
C. lymphocytes
D. erythrocytes
Autoimmunity occurs when:
A. An acute rejection of a transplanted organ or tissue occurs.
B. The immune system recognizes self-antigens as foreign.
C. Transplanted tissues are rejected.
D. Self-antigens stimulate molecular mimicry.
In a type III hypersensitivity reaction, the harmful effects after the immune complexes that are deposited in tissues are a result of
A. Degranulation of mast cells.
B. Natural killer cells.
C. cytotoxic T cells.
D. Complement activation.
What characteristics do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies?
A. Greater quantities of IgE
B. More histamine receptors
C. A deficiency in epinephrine
D. Greater quantities of histamine
In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial-to-complete absence of T-cell immunity?
A. Adenosine deaminase deficiency
B. DiGeorge syndrome
C. Bruton disease
D. Reticular dysgenesis
Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(an)
A. Undetectable immune response in the presence of antigens
B. Immunologic reaction of one person to the tissue of another person
C. Disturbance in the immunologic tolerance of self-antigens
D. Altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease
When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what reaction occurs?
A. alloimmunity
B. Fetal immunity
C. T cell immunity
D. autoimmunity
Graves disease is a result of:
A. The infiltration of the thyroid with T lymphocytes
B. Autoantibodies binding to thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)-receptor sites
C. Increased levels of circulating immunoglobulins
D. Exposure to acetylates in substances such as rubber
Which information is correct regarding secondary immune deficiencies?
A. Increased dietary zinc intake
B. Aspirin therapy that is prescribed by the physician
C. Caring for an older aren’t with Alzheimer disease
D. Congenital or genetic defects in the neonate
Alloimmunity occurs when
A. A disturbance occurs in the immunologic tolerance of self-antigens
B. An anaphylactic reaction occurs.
C. The immune system produces a response to tissues of another individual.
D. Antigens are in the environment
Blood transfusion reactions are an example of
A. hypersensitivity
B. alloimmunity
C. autoimmunity
D. homoimmunity
Which statement is true regarding immunodeficiency?
A. Immunodeficiency is never acquired; rather, it is congenital
B. Immunodeficiency is almost immediately symptomatic
C. Immunodeficiency is a result of a postnatal mutation
D. Immunodeficiency is generally not present in other family members
Superantigens bypass the antigen presenting sites and activate a large population of T lymphocytes. All of the following complications may occur except:
A. High blood pressure
B. Excessive cytokine production
C. shock
D. fever
Identify the correct order of the steps of phagocytosis.
A. Engulfment, recognition, fusion, destruction
B. Fusion, recognition, engulfment, destruction
C. Recognition, engulfment, fusion, destruction
D. Fusion, engulfment, recognition, destruction
What plasma protein system forms a fibrinous meshwork at an inflamed site?
A. Complement
B. Kinin
C. Coagulation
D. Fibrinolysis
One of the functions of the complement cascade is as an opsonin. What is an opsonin?
A. An opsonin is a molecule that tags a pathogen for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages.
B. An opsonin is a molecule that causes the hypothalamus to induce fever.
C. An opsonin is a chemical that attracts cytokines.
D. An opsonin is a glycoprotein that lyses viruses.
Interferon is a cytokine specific to
A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Fungi
D. Protists
Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory response?
A. To communicate between the innate and adaptive immune responses.
B. To lyse cell membranes of microorganisms.
C. To provide specific responses to tissue damage.
D. To create immunity against subsequent tissue injury.
Which leukocytes develop into macrophages
A. Basophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Monocytes
D. Lymphocytes
E. Neutrophils
Mast cells synthesize all the following mediators except:
A. Prostaglandins
B. Thromboxanes
C. Leukotrienes
Tumor necrosis factor alpha
Inflammation is important for all the following reasons except:
A. Prevents and/or limits infection
B. Maintains homeostasis when faced with tissue injury
C. Is the only immune system working until it is inactivated by the adaptive immune system
D. Promotes healing of damaged tissues
Which leukocytes would be more numerous than normal in a person with severe allergies?
A. Eosinophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Neutrophils
E. Basophils
Dysfunctional wound healing where the wound pulls apart from the suture line and may involve sepsis is called
A. Chronic inflammation
B. Dehiscence
C. Epithelialization
D. Keloid
Vaccines against viruses are created from:
A. Live organisms weakened to produce antigens
B. Killed organisms or extracts of antigens
C. Recombinant pathogenic protein
D. Purified toxins that have been chemically detoxified
The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host is referred to as:
A. Pathogenicity
B. Infectivity
C. Virulence
D. Toxigenicity
Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by:
A. Endogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus
B. Exogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus
C. Cytokines acting indirectly on the hypothalamus
D. Immune complexes acing indirectly on the hypothalamus
What is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide?
A. Cardiovascular disease
B. Infectious disease
C. Traumatic disease
D. Starvation
Toxigenicity is defined as the:
A. Ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host
B. Pathogen’s ability to produce disease by the production of a soluble toxin
C. Potency of a pathogen measured in terms of the number of microorganisms required to kill the host
D. Ability of an agent to produce disease
Which type of microorganism reproduces on the skin?
A. Mycoplasma
B. Bacteria and Fungi
C. Protozoa and Rickettsiae
D. Viruses
What area in the body may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs?
A. Central Nervous System
B. Lungs
C. Bone Marrow
D. Thymus Gland
After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for how many months?
A. 1 to 2
B. 6 to 14
C. 18 to 20
D. 24 to 36
Which disease is an example of a rickettsial infection?
A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
B. Cholera
C. Candida
D. Sleeping sickness
Which statement about vaccines is true?
A. Vaccines require booster injections to maintain life-long protection
B. Most viral vaccines are made by using dead organisms
C. Vaccines provide effective protection against most infections
D. Most bacterial vaccines contain attenuated organisms
Phagocytosis involves neutrophils actively attacking, engulfing, and destroying which microorganisms?
A. Yeasts
B. Fungi
C. Bacteria
D. Viruses
Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do natural killer (NK) cells actively attack?
A. Fungi
B. Bacteria
C. Viruses
D. Mycoplasma
What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection?
A. It converts RNA into double-stranded DNA.
B. Reverse transcriptase converts single-stranded DNA into double-stranded DNA.
C. It transports the RNA into the cell nucleus.
D. It is needed to produce integrase.
AIDS produces a striking decrease in the number of which cells?
A. T helper cells
B. Macrophages
C. T cytotoxic cells
D. Memory t cells
What is the final stage of the infectious process?
A. Invasion
B. Colonization
C. Spread
D. Multiplication
Which statement is a characteristic of HIV?
A. HIV has five identified strains.
B. HIV carries genetic information in its DNA.
C. HIV only infects T-helper (Th) cells.
D. HIV is a retrovirus.
Cytokines are thought to cause fevers by stimulating the synthesis of which chemical mediator?
A. Bradykinin
B. Prostaglandin
C. Leukotriene
D. Histamine
What are the signs that a patient is in the adaptive stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
A. He or she begins to experience elevated heart and respiratory rates.
B. He or she find it difficult to concentrate on a solution for the stress.
C. The patient has exceeded his or her ability to cope with the current situation.
D. The patient perceives his or her only options are to run away or fight back.
A reduction in an individual’s number of natural killer (NK) cells appears to correlate with an increased risk for the development of:
A. Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)
B. Depression
C. Gastroesophageal reflux disorder (GERD)
D. Type 1 diabetes
During a stress response, the helper T (Th) 1 response is suppressed by which hormone?
A. ACTH
B. Growth hormone
C. Cortisol
D. Prolactin
What effect do androgens have on lymphocytes?
A. Suppression on B-cell responses and enhancement of T-cell responses
B. Enhancement of B- and T-cell responses
C. Suppression of T-cell responses and enhancement of B-cell responses
D. Suppression of B- and T-cell responses
Stress-induced norepinephrine results in:
A. Increased sweat gland secretions
B. Decreased blood pressure
C. Pupil constriction
D. Peripheral vasoconstriction
The most influential factor in whether a person will experience a stress reaction is his or her:
A. Ability to cope
B. Intellectual abilities
C. Spiritual belief system
D. General state of physical health
Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal during a stress response?
A. Cortisol
B. Norepinephrine
C. Epinephrine
D. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Stress-age syndrome directly results in depressed function of which system?
A. Immune
B. Digestive
C. Endocrine
D. Respiratory
Which organ is stimulated during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)?
A. Anterior pituitary
B. Limbic system
C. Hypothalamus
D. Adrenal cortex
Which gland regulates the immune response and mediates the apparent effects of circadian rhythms on immunity?
A. Pineal
B. Anterior pituitary
C. Adrenal
D. Basal ganglia
Diagnostic blood work on individuals who perceive themselves to be in a chronic stress state will likely demonstrate:
A. Increased erythrocytes
B. Increased platelets
C. Decreased Tc cells
D. Decreased Th lymphocytes
What is the effect that low-serum albumin has on the central stress response?
A. Diminished oncotic pressure
B. Impaired wound healing
C. Impaired circulation of epinephrine and norepinephrine
D. Lessened circulation of cortisol
A nurse is providing care to a terminally ill adult who has been with his life partner for over 56 years. Research supports the nurse’s assessment of the life partner for signs of:
A. Suicidal ideations
B. Cardiac dysrhythmia
C. Severe stress reaction
D. Anorexia induced weight loss
Stress-induced sympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla causes the secretion of:
A. Epinephrine and norepinephrine
B. Norepinephrine and cortisol
C. Acetylcholine and cortisol
D. Epinephrine and aldosterone
The action of which hormone helps explain increases in affective anxiety and eating disorders, mood cycles, and vulnerability to autoimmune and inflammatory diseases in women as a result of stimulation of the CRH gene promoter and central norepinephrine system?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Prolactin
D. Cortisol
Exhaustion occurs if stress continues when which stage of the general adaption syndrome is not successful?
A. Adaptation
B. Alarm
C. Arousal
D. Fight or Flight
Which term describes an agent’s ability to produce disease?
A. Virulence
B. Pathogenicity
C. Infectivity
D. Immunogenicity
Which statement is true regarding bacteremia?
It occurs with a normal defense system of the body.
Gram-positive bacteria typically cause bacteremia.
Endotoxins often cause symptoms such as vasodilation.
Symptoms include increased blood pressure.
Which statement regarding viruses is true?
Viruses are less common than bacterial infections.
Viruses actively produce exotoxins.
Viruses bypass many defense mechanisms by developing intracellularly.
Viruses contain all their genetic information in ribonucleic acid (RNA).
Which statement regarding fever is true?
Fever is a failure of the body to regulate temperature.
An endogenous pyrogen may produce fever.
The body’s central thermostat is the pituitary gland.
Fever is a failure of the body’s defense system.
What contributes to antibiotic-resistant pathogens?
Inadequate sanitation
Genetic mutation
Loss of multidrug transporters
Limited use of antibiotics
The stages of pathologic infection include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A. Invasion
B. Death
C. Colonization
C. Metastasis
E. Multiplication
Which of the following are mechanisms of antigenic variation? (Select all that apply.)
Siderophoric switching
Mutation
Recombination
Gene switching
Which mechanisms are used by viruses to evade the immune response? (Select all that apply.)
Rapid division
Antigenic specificity
Self-protein coat
Immune suppresion
Lipopolysaccharide
What is the definition of the reactive response?
Mounting a response in anticipation of a stressor
Mounting a response in reaction to a stressor
Mounting a response to a learned stressor
Mounting a response to a physical stressor
A stress response is initiated in what part of the nervous system?
Peripheral nervous system
Exocrine system
Parasympathetic nervous system
Central nervous system
A stress response results in the stimulation of which sympathetic nervous system receptors?
α-Adrenergic receptors
β-Receptors
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Growth hormone (GH)
Which statement is true regarding the effects of circulating epinephrine in the body?
The heart rate will slow down.
The heart’s contractility will decrease.
Blood vessels to skeletal muscle will constrict.
Transient hyperglycemia will result.
Which statement is true regarding how cortisol reacts when activated by ACTH?
Cortisol is plasma bound to corticotropin.
Gluconeogenesis is halted.
Cortisol increases blood glucose.
Cortisol decreases protein synthesis.
Which statement is true regarding the immune system in response to stress?
T-helper 1 (Th1) cells increase.
A shift in Th1 cells occurs.
The immune system is not affected.
Cortisol is released.
Which of the following is a function of norepinephrine?
Increases contraction of the heart
Constricts smooth muscle in all blood vessels
Secretes steroid hormones
Stimulates adrenal medulla
Which statement regarding corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) and its influence on the immune system is true?
CRH is also released from peripheral inflammatory sites.
CRH causes vasoconstriction.
CRH causes decreased vascular permeability.
Red blood cells are the peripheral targets.
Which statement is true regarding stress and the immune system?
Seasonal allergies are related to stress.
Cardiovascular disease is one condition that is related to stress.
The level of proinflammatory cytokines is decreased.
Negative emotions cause few alterations in cytokine production.
Which of the following are stages in the development of the general adaptation syndrome? (Select all that apply.)
Alarm
Exposure
Resistance
Exhaustion
_______________ factors are biochemical substances that attract leukocytes to the site of inflammation.
Chemotactic
Which definition is true?
Allergy means the deleterious effects of hypersensitivity.
Immunity means an altered immunologic response.
Hypersensitivity means the protective response to an antigen.
Autoimmunity means the normal response to foreign antigens.
Which statement is true regarding hypersensitivity reactions?
They require sensitization against a particular antigen.
They occur after the primary immune response.
Reactions are always delayed.
The most delayed reaction is anaphylaxis.
Which statement best describes a type I reaction?
Most type I reactions are mediated by IgA.
Most type I reactions are allergic.
Most occur against medications.
Seldom does this type contribute to autoimmune diseases.
What antibody binds to a mast cell?
Cytotropic
Allergen
Antigen
Fc
Which statement is true regarding atopic individuals?
If one parent has allergies, then a 4% chance exists that the offspring will have similar allergies.
If two parents have allergies, then a 50% chance exists that their offspring will have similar allergies.
Atopic individuals tend to produce higher quantities of IgE.
No genes are associated with an atopic state.
Which statement is true of serum sickness?
The formation of immune complexes in the blood cause serum sickness.
It is the deposition of complexes in the blood vessels.
It occurs through cytotoxic T cells.
It binds antigen to the cell surface.
The Arthus reaction is an example of which type of sensitivity reaction?
I
II
III
IV
Which statement is true regarding a type IV allergic reaction?
Is immediate in its action.
Is infiltrated with B cells.
Has a red, soft center.
Can be transferred by cells.
Which is an example of an alloimmune disease?
Tuberculin reaction
Graves disease
Contact dermatitis
Penicillin allergy
Which statement is true regarding unmatched packed red blood cell (RBC) transfusions?
Only three different RBC antigens have been identified.
Approximately 80 major carbohydrate antigens exist.
People with O type blood have neither A or B antigens.
A person with type A blood contains anti-O antibodies.
Histamine release leads to which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Bronchial smooth muscle contraction
Bronchoconstriction
Decreased vascular permeability
Vasoconstriction
Edema
Antibody-related damage to cells through phagocytosis is an example of a mechanism of type ______ hypersensitivity.
I
II
III
IV
Which is a foreign or nonself substance?
Immunoglobulins
Lymphocytes
Antibodies
Antigens
Which statement is true regarding the immune response in humans?
Before birth, lymphocytes are not produced.
B lymphocytes come from the thymus.
The thymus releases mature lymphocytes.
Generation of clonal diversity occurs in primary lymphoid organs.
Which statement best describes the cells and their functions in the humoral arm of the immune system?
Cells undergo differentiation and develop into subpopulations.
Cells attack cancerous cells.
Antibodies are primarily responsible for protection.
Cells in the humoral arm are also called cellular immunity.
Which term describes the type of immunity that occurs when preformed antibodies are transferred from a donor to a recipient?
Passive
Active
Memory
Cellular
What is the precise portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding of an antibody?
Paratope
Epitope
Self-antigen
Immunogen
Which antigen is too small to initiate an immune response?
Carrier
Allergen
Hapten
Self-antigen
Which statement is true regarding immunoglobulin A (IgA) antibodies?
IgA-2 is predominantly found in blood.
IgA-1 is predominantly found in the body’s secretions.
The J chain anchors together the IgA molecules.
The gamma heavy chain is predominant.
It is true that immunoglobulin E (IgE) is:
Designed to protect the host from large viruses
The primary cause of common allergies
The only inflammatory cell that can damage a virus
Specifically designed to prevent the invasion and attachment of pathogens through mucous membranes.
Which statement is true regarding aging and the immune system function?
Older adults have decreased circulating antibodies.
T-cell function is increased.
Antibody production to specific antigens is inferior.
Response to infection is rapid.
Which criteria influence the degree of immunogenicity? (Select all that apply.)
Foreignness to the host
Appropriate size
Appropriate quantity
Chemical simplicity
Chemical complexity
Which of the following are molecular classes of immunoglobulins? (Select all that apply.)
IgC
IgD
IgE
IgM
IgN
Antigens that can induce an allergic response are called _________.
Allergens
Carriers
Haptens
Self-antigens
__________ describes the inactivation or blocking of the binding of the antigen to a receptor?
Neutralization
What is the first stage in the infectious process?
Colonization
Spread
Invasion
Multiplication
Which statement is true concerning a fungal infection?
Phagocytes and T lymphocytes control fungal infections
Fungal infections release endotoxins
Vaccines prevent fungal infections
Fungal infections occur only on skin, hair, and nails
Which statement concerning exotoxins is true?
Exotoxins are released during the lysis of bacteria
Exotoxins are able to initiate the complement and coagulation cascades
Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth
Exotoxins are contained in cell walls of gram-negative bacteria
Chemicals produced by white blood cells for cell to cell communication is called:
Interleukins
Immunoglobulins
Opsonins
Antimicrobials
Leukocytes (white blood cells) don’t flow through the blood stream, they roll along the blood vessel endothelium in a process called:
Opsonization
Diapedesis
Margination
Chemotaxis
Bradykinin has which of the following effects:
Vasoconstriction
Decreases vascular permeability
Restrict smooth muscle contraction
Causes pain
Natural killer cells
Are critical in releasing interleukins
Bind tightly to antigens
Trigger the complement cascade
Eliminate virally infected cells
Inflammation has many manifestations. Which of the following would be system wide?
Redness and heat
Pain and edema
Formation of exudate
Fever and leukocytes
Plasma protein systems trigger inactivated proteins through a cascade of steps. All of the following are plasma protein systems?
Coagulation
Complement
Inflammation
Kinin
Which of the following is an example of a physical barrier?
Antibacterial fatty acids
Lysozymes in tears
Epithelial cells
Earwax
Which statement is true regarding the inflammatory response?
Inflammatory response is the third line of defense.
Inflammatory response relies on cellular components only.
Inflammatory response generates a nonspecific response.
Inflammatory response occurs at healthy tissue.
Which complement factor is considered an anaphylatoxin?
C3a
C1
C7
C9
Which receptor is expressed on macrophages and facilitates recognition and phagocytosis of bacterial pathogens?
Complement receptors
Scavenger receptors
Toll-like receptors
Pattern recognition receptors
Which statement regarding mast cells is true?
Histamine causes vasoconstriction.
Mast cells are found only in blood vessels.
Snake bites, bee venoms, and toxins may cause activation.
Mast cells are not involved in allergic reactions.
Which term describes an acidic sulfur-containing lipid that produces effects similar to histamine?
Leukotriene
Prostaglandin
Adhesion molecule
Phagocyte
Which statement is true regarding neutrophils?
Neutrophils are agranular.
Neutrophils are the predominant phagocytes of early inflammation.
Neutrophils are the largest blood cells.
Neutrophils enter the site of injury after lymphocytes and macrophages.
What biochemical messenger is produced by macrophages and lymphocytes in response to a bacterial pathogen?
Interleukins
Interferons
Chemokines
Tumor necrosis factor
Chronic inflammation is characterized by a(an):
Lack of giant cells
Absence of exudate
Dense infiltrate of lymphocytes and macrophages
Inflammation that lasts less than 2 weeks
Which of the following are not natural barriers?
Physical
Resistance
Biochemical
Mechanical
Which characteristics are observable of vascular injury and inflammation? (Select all that apply.)
Redness
Coolness to the touch
Warmth to the touch
Increased swelling
Pain
Which pathways activate the complement system? (Select all that apply.)
Antigen-antibody
Classical
Lectin
Alternative
Which functions of the clotting system are exhibited at the site of injury or inflammation? (Select all that apply.)
Prevents the spread of infection to adjacent tissues.
Traps microorganisms at the site of greatest inflammatory cell activity.
Prevents clot formation at the site of injury.
Provides a framework for future repair and healing.
{"name":"Patho Exam III", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"Test your knowledge on immunology with our comprehensive Patho Exam III quiz! This quiz features 149 carefully crafted multiple-choice questions that challenge your understanding of the immune system, antibodies, hypersensitivity reactions, and more.Whether you're preparing for an exam or simply want to reinforce your knowledge, this quiz is designed for you. Key features of the quiz include:In-depth questions on various immunological conceptsImmediate feedback on your answersEngaging and educational experience","img":"https:/images/course2.png"}
More Quizzes
Lymphatic System & Immunity part 2
1588
Immune system
10550
Wbcs
281414
Lymphatic System & Immune System
221125
Pathology - Part 2
221126
Part 3 Immunology(100-149) prof. Keit vanseth
502539
Pathophysiology 2022
241283
Immune system and lymphoid organs
8461
Practice Quiz Lecture Exam 1
351823
Anatomy first 50
502527
Anatomy Quiz: Test Your Knowledge!
482420
BIOLO0GY FLP-02 (SMART INSTITUTE)
60300