Make your own quiz Manage my Quizzes Plans / Features Guides and Help Contact Privacy & Security

CAAV test

1) What is indicated by a flashing orange light at the flight attendant station?

A) Lavatory smoke has been detected

B) A call initiated from the flight deck

C) A call initiated from the lavatory

D) A call initiated from a Passenger Service Unit

2) What causes the service tank light on the flight attendant panel to illuminate?

A) When the waste tank is full

B) When the waste tank is 75% full

C) When the waste tank is 50% full

D) When the waste tank is empty

3) A vacuum generator is used to dispose of aircraft waste when...

A) The aircraft is on the ground

B) The aircraft is in flight above 18,000 feet

C) The aircraft is in flight and below 18,000 feet

D) The aircraft is on the ground, or in flight below 18,000 feet

4) How long should the cabin light in the bright mode is required in order to fully charge the photo-luminescent strips?

A) 5 minutes

B) 10 minutes

C) 15 minutes

D) 20 minutes

5) Photo-luminescent strips are installed along the cabin floor. These strips are charged by ambient cabin lighting. If fully charged, the strips will provide_______ of luminescence.

A) 2 hours

B) 5 hours

C) 7 hours

D) 9 hours

6) Which Display Units can be reverted?

A) DU 1 and 2

B) DU 2 and 3

C) DU 2 and 4

D) Du 1 and 4

7) How long will the ELPUs power the internal emergency lights?

A) 5 minutes

B) 10 minutes

C) 15 minutes

D) 20 minutes

8) In normal conditions, the de-clutter is disable when:

A) Landing gear is extended

B) Landing gear is extended and or flap is not at 0

C) Landing gear is extended and flap set to 2 position or greater

D) All the above

9) What happens if the Emergency Entry Button is pressed?

A) The cockpit door opens if the INHIB pushbutton is not pressed up to 10 s

B) The cockpit door opens if the INHIB pushbutton is not pressed up to 20 s

C) The cockpit door opens if the INHIB pushbutton is not pressed up to 30 s

D) None

10) The charge of the batteries is sufficient to supply all emergency lights for approximately:

A) 10 min

B) 15 min

C) 20 min

D) 30 min

11) Photoluminescent escape path strips must be charged prior to the first flight of the day by exterior lighting:

A) True

B) False

12) In case of mismatched information between two PDFs:

A) Aural warning sound is trigger

B) EICAS message is displayed

C) Monitor warning annunciation is displayed

D) All above

13) The over wing emergency door can be opened and closed from inside or from outside:

A) True

B) False

14) The cargo doors support maximum wind gusts of (for the open and locked position):

A) 30 kts

B) 40 kts

C) 50 kts

D) 60 kts

15) It pressurizes the potable water system:

A) Engine and APU bleed

B) Air compressor

C) Air driven generator

D) Only Engine

16) The locked pushbutton (guarded) when pressed deactivates the inhibition control:

A) True

B) False

17) What does a white striped bar on ADS button mean?

A) ADS reversion is selected

B) ADS reversion is NOT selected

C) ADS system malfunction

D) ADS is working normal

18) Which of the following components is NOT de-clutter from EICAS:

A) Oil pressure

B) Flap position

C) Pressurization

D) Speed brake position

19) The concept used to design and operate the airplane assumed that while in flight, all systems are normal when:

A) Overhead, main, glareshield and control pedestal panels have no lights on

B) No aural warnings are being issued

C) The selector knobs are positioned at twelve o’clock

D) All the above

20) What is the function of the ARM position of the emergency light selector knob?

A) Illuminates all emergency lights if DC buses lose electrical power

B) Illuminates all emergency lights if airplane electrical power is turned off

C) A and B

D) None

21) During single engine taxi, both an engine and bleed air is available when the aircraft is on the ground. What would cause the AMS to give priority to the APU bleed air system?

A) The opposite engine bleed air pressure is below the minimum required for an engine start

B) The ground speed is below 50 knots

C) The crossbleed valve is operating normally

D) All of the above

22) The APU bleed system is designed to prevent engine bleed air from flowing into the APU when an engine is running.

A) True

B) False

23) When is the engine bleed valve commanded to the open position?

A) The respective bleed switch is in the AUTO position and the respective engine bleed air is available

B) No fire is detected in the associated engine

C) No bleed leak is detected

D) All of the above

24) In the event there are multiple bleed air sources available, the Air Management System (AMS) will use air in the following order (external air and APU air are available):

A) External air, APU, onside engine, opposite engine

B) Onside engine, APU, opposite engine

C) Onside engine, APU, opposite engine, external air

D) Onside engine, opposite engine, APU

25) Which of the following are required in order to open an engine bleed valve:

A) The associated bleed switch must be in the AUTO position

B) The associated engine bleed air is available

C) No fire has been detected in the associated engine and there are no bleed leaks

D) All of the above

26) Which of the following is false concerning the cross bleed valve (XBLEED button is pushed in)?

A) The cross bleed valve will not open is a bleed leak has been detected under any circumstance

B) The cross bleed valve will open if the is pneumatic pressure on one side and there is no bleed source for the opposite side

C) The cross bleed valve will open when the APU bleed button is pushed out for main engine start

D) The cross bleed vale will open for a number 2 engine start in the air

27) Which of the following conditions will not cause an ECS pack to shutdown?

A) No bleed air source is available for a pack

B) The associated Pack button is selected to OFF

C) The aircraft is on the ground and an engine is running

D) All of the above

28) Which of the following will cause the ECS packs to close during takeoff?

A) Thrust levers set to MAX

B) TDS REF A/I set to ALL on the MCDU

C) TDS REF ACS set to OFF on the MCDU and APU bleed is not available

D) All of the above

29) The total flow of air entering the flight deck and the passenger cabin is approximately______% fresh air and_______% recirculated air.

A) 50; 50

B) 48; 52

C) 52; 48

D) 30; 70

30) A single pack is capable of supplying sufficient air to maintain cabin pressurization and temperature

A) True

B) False

31) When does the Emergency Ram Air valve open?

A) When the aircraft is in flight and the cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet

B) When the aircraft is in flight and the cabin altitude exceeds 9,800 feet

C) When the aircraft is in flight and the air conditioning packs are OFF or failed OFF and the aircraft's altitude is less than 25,000 feet

D) When the aircraft is in flight and the air conditioning packs are OFF or failed OFF and the aircraft's altitude is greater than 25,000 feet

32) What is the nominal differential pressure maintained by the CPCS when the aircraft is above 37,000 feet?

A) 7.8 PSI

B) 8.8 PSI

C) 7.3 PSI

D) 8.4 PSI

33) What is the nominal differential pressure maintained by the CPCS when the aircraft is below 37,000 feet?

A) 8.8 PSI

B) 8.3 PSI

C) 7.8 PSI

D) 7.3 PSI

34) A what pressure differential does the Positive Pressure Relief safety valve open?

A) When the cabin pressure differential exceeds 6.8 PSI

B) When the cabin pressure differential exceeds 8.6 PSI

C) When the cabin pressure differential exceeds 6.6 PSI

D) When the cabin pressure differential exceeds 8.8 PSI

35) What is the depressurization rate when the cabin pressure is dumped?

A) 1000 FPM

B) 1500 FPM

C) 2000 FPM

D) 2500 FPM

36) During a takeoff, the engine rating will automatically switch from the TO to CLB mode if there are no changes in the vertical mode and the aircraft passes 1500 feet above field elevation (MSL).

A) True

B) False

37) The TO mode can be activated anytime when the aircraft is on the ground following a landing.

A) True

B) False

38) The TCS button is pressed. This causes the autopilot command servos to disengage. The servos will automatically reengage when the TCS button is released. However, the autopilot and flight directors must be resynchronized.

A) True

B) False

39) Which of the following will not cause the autopilot to disengage?

A) Stick shaker is activated

B) Reversion of the fly-by wire system to the direct mode

C) Either aileron or elevator control system disconnects

D) Turning the flight director off on the non-coupled DCP

40) Which of the following is the basic vertical mode?

A) Takeoff

B) Altitude hold

C) Vertical Speed

D) Flight Path Angle

41) The Takeoff mode is a flight director mode only.

A) True

B) False

42) Which of the following is NOT a function of the TLA trim system?

A) Performs small thrust adjustments with limited authority

B) Reduces excessive thrust lever movements

C) Synchronizes the N1 rotation speeds

D) Compensates for an engine failure

43) The ROLL mode is activated and the aircraft's bank angle is 45 degrees. What action will the autopilot take?

A) It will maintain the existing bank angle

B) It will roll the aircraft back to 35 degrees of bank angle

C) It will roll the aircraft to 6 degrees of bank angle

D) It will roll the aircraft to wings level

44) How is the takeoff mode activated?

A) By pressing the TOGA button.

B) Automatically after lift-off.

C) By selecting the Flight Path Angle mode.

D) By selecting the vertical speed mode.

45) During a Go-Around, the automatic transition from ROLL to TRACK occurs when the indicated airspeed is______ than______ knots and the bank angle is at 3 degrees or less for more than 10 seconds.

A) Less; 140

B) Greater; 140

C) Less; 100

D) Greater; 100

46) Which of the following is required in order for the mach trim system to automatically engage?

A) The autopilot is engaged

B) The indicated airspeed is above 0.70 mach

C) The horizontal stabilizer is not being manually trimmed, neither quick disconnect button is pressed, and there are no other tirm inputs

D) All of the above

47) What speed will the TO mode command in the event an engine fails during a takeoff when the aircraft's speed is at V2 + 20?

A) V2 + 20

B) V2 + 10

C) V2

D) Vmcg

48) During takeoff, the HOLD mode becomes active at what point?

A) When the indicated airspeed is greater than 40 knots

B) When the indicated airspeed is greater than 60 knots

C) When V1 is reached

D) When Vr is reached

49) Which of the following is the basic roll mode?

A) Heading hold

B) Track hold

C) Roll hold

D) LNAV

50) Which of the following is not related to the Speed on Thrust mode (SPDt)?

A) Flight Level Change (FLCH)

B) Flight Path Angle (FPA)

C) Vertical speed

D) Glide Slope

51) Which fuel tank feeds the APU?

A) Right wing tank

B) Left wing tank

52) Which of the following will cause the APU to shutdown automatically when the aircraft is in flight?

A) FADEC critical fault.

B) APU fire.

C) APU EGT over temperature.

D) All of the above.

53) Using the Emergency APU shutdown switch will cause the APU bleed air valve to close and the APU will enter a 2 minute cool down period.

A) True

B) False

54) Which of the following will cause the APU to shutdown automatically when the aircraft is on the ground?

A) FADEC critical fault.

B) APU fire.

C) APU EGT over temperature.

D) All of the above.

55) Which battery is used to energize the APU electronic starter?

A) #1

B) #2

56) The APU is capable of supplying electrical power up to______feet.

A) 20,000

B) 23,000

C) 30,000

D) 33,000

57) The maximum altitude for an APU start is______feet.

A) 33,000

B) 30,000

C) 21,000

D) 15,000

58) The APU is capable of supplying bleed air for engine starts up to______feet.

A) 33,000

B) 30,000

C) 21,000

D) 15,000

59) What is the normal cool down period for the APU?

A) 30 seconds

B) 1 minute

C) 1.5 minutes

D) 3 minutes

60) When is APU bleed air and electrical power available during an APU start?

A) When the APU reaches 100%

B) When the APU reaches 95%

C) When the APU reaches 90%

D) When the APU reaches 85%

61) The APU generator has the same rating as the IDGs.

A) True

B) False

62) What is the priority order of power sources for powering the AC main buses?

A) APU generator, GPU, respective IDG, opposite IDG

B) GPU, APU generator, respective IDG, opposite IDG

C) Respective IGG, GPU, APU generator, opposite IDG

D) Respective IDG, APU generator, GPU, opposite IDG

63) What is the minimum temperature for battery #2 to start the APU?

A) 0 degrees C

B) 5 degrees C

C) -15 degrees C

D) -20 degrees C

64) An IDG that has been disconnected in flight can be reconnected while the aircraft is in flight.

A) True

B) False

65) The RAT can be manually deployed.

A) True

B) False

66) During an electrical emergency with the RAT unavailable, the batteries can supply the essential load for_______minutes.

A) 10

B) 20

C) 30

D) 40

67) Once deployed, how long does it take for the RAT to power the AC buses?

A) Instantaneously.

B) 4 seconds after deployment.

C) 6 seconds after deployment.

D) 8 seconds after deployment.

68) What is the minimum airspeed required in order for the RAT to power the AC/DC ESS buses?

A) 90 knots

B) 110 knots

C) 130 knots

D) 150 knots

69) What is the significance of an AC External Power Source AVAIL light?

A) The External power cord is plugged in

B) The External power cord is plugged in and the power is within limits

C) The external power source is powering the aircraft

D) None of the above

70) The AC GPU has priority over the batteries to power the electrical system.

A) True

B) False

71) When does the RAT deploy?

A) Whenever AC power sources are not powering the AC buses

B) Whenever DC power sources are not powering the DC buses

C) When both engines flame out

D) None of the above

72) What situation will cause an automatic APU shut down in flight?

A) Underspeed

B) APU fire

C) Sensor fail

D) High temp

73) The APU is able to supply bleed air for engine starting up to:

A) 25.000 ft

B) 21.000 ft

C) 30.000 ft

D) 33.000 ft

74) During a normal shutdown sequence, the APU pneumatic power:

A) Is removed immediately

B) Is removed after 30 s

C) Is removed after 1 minute

D) Is removed after 2 minutes

75) What component provides FUEL to the APU when only DC power is available?

A) DC fuel pump, located in the right-wing tank

B) DC fuel pump, located in the left-wing tank

C) AC fuel pump 2

D) AC fuel pump 1

76) What will cause the Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System (ATTCS) to command RSV power?

A) Difference between both engine N1 speeds is greater than 15%

B) An engine fails during takeoff

C) An engine fails during go-around

D) Any of the above

77) The FADEC will protect the engine against hot starts or hung starts during all conditions.

A) True

B) False

78) What is the maximum flex takeoff reduction for takeoff thrust?

A) 10%

B) 15%

C) 20%

D) 25%

79) The FADEC will prevent the flow of fuel during a ground start if the ITT exceeds_____degrees C.

A) 100

B) 105

C) 110

D) 120

80) How many igniters does the FADEC use during an inflight start?

A) One

B) Both

81) What is the time limit on the use of go-around power?

A) 1 minute

B) 5 minutes

C) 12 minutes

D) 15 minutes

82) Which of the following is not a protection provided by the FADEC during an engine start on ground?

A) Hung Start

B) Hot Start

C) No light-Off

D) No oil pressure

83) During an engine start, the FADEC initiates ignition at approximately______% N

A) 7; N1

B) 7; N2

C) 20; N1

D) 20; N2

84) What is the power source for the FADEC above 50% N2?

A) Battery #1

B) Battery #2

C) Any TRU

D) A Permanent Magnet Alternator

85) How many igniters does the FADEC use during a ground start?

A) One

B) Both

86) Does the low rate extinguishing bottle automatically discharge in the event of a cargo fire on the ground?

A) Yes

B) No

87) Can the low rate cargo extinguishing bottle be discharged without waiting one minute after the high rate bottle was discharged?

A) Yes.

B) No.

C) Never.

D) Yes, by pressing the associated pushbutton before the one-minute period expires.

88) During flight a cargo fire has been detected and the associated cargo compartment fire button has been pressed. This discharge:

A) The high rate bottle only.

B) The high rate bottle, followed by the low rate bottle.

C) The low rate bottle only.

D) None of the above.

89) Which of the following occurs when the APU Fire Extinguisher button is pressed?

A) The APU fire bottle discharges.

B) The APU shuts down.

C) The APU fuel shutoff valve closes.

D) All of the above.

90) Which of the following is not an indication during a fire detection system test?

A) The aural warning sounds.

B) The APU automatically shuts down.

C) The fire extinguisher handles illuminate steady.

D) The Fire warning light on the ITT indicator illuminates.

91) There are no indications of a lavatory fire or smoke.

A) True

B) False

92) On the ground, the APU will automatically shut down.

A) Yes

B) No

C) Yes, if the APU Emergency Stop button is not pressed within 10 seconds after an APU fire has been detected.

D) None of the above

93) What happens when you pull an engine fire handle?

A) Closes the associated fuel shutoff valve.

B) Closes the associated hydraulic shutoff valve.

C) Closes the associated engine bleed air shutoff valve.

D) All of the above.

94) How can the low rate bottle be discharged when the aircraft is on the ground (there is a cargo fire)?

A) It cannot be discharged.

B) You have to wait for the one-minute period to expire.

C) By pressing the other cargo compartment button.

D) By pressing the cargo compartment button, a second time.

95) Can both engine fire bottles be used for one engine if needed?

A) Yes

B) No

96) The ailerons are driven by conventional control cables that run from each control column to a pair of hydro-mechanical actuators.

A) True

B) False

97) The Captain's pitch trim switch has priority over the First Officer's.

A) True

B) False

98) What is the time limit for the actuation of the backup trim switches?

A) 3 seconds

B) 7 seconds

C) 30 seconds

D) 1 minute

99) The HS-ACE responds to all trim commands in the following order:

A) Captain's; First Officer's; FCM; Backup switches

B) FCM; Backup switches; Captain's; First Officer's

C) Captain's; First Officer's; Backup switches; FCM

D) Backup switches; Captain's; First Officer's; FCM

100) Which of the following is not a primary flight control?

A) Ailerons

B) Multi-function roll spoilers

C) Elevators

D) Horizontal stabilizer

101) Which of the following is not a secondary flight control surface?

A) Rudder

B) Flaps and slats

C) Dedicated ground spoilers

D) Speed brakes

102) At what speed will the trim function work at following an electrical failure with RAT deployment?

A) Full speed

B) Half speed

C) One third speed

D) One quarter speed

103) Following a disconnect, half of the aileron control system will remain operational.

A) True

B) False

104) The speed brakes are deployed. At what speed will the speed brakes automatically retract?

A) Above 180 KIAS

B) Below 180 KIAS

C) Above 150 KIAS

D) Below 150 KIAS

105) You are descending to landing and are starting to configure the aircraft. The speed brakes are extended. At what point will the speed brakes automatically retract?

A) Flaps 1 or above

B) Flaps 2 or above

C) Flaps 3 or above

D) Flaps 4 or above

106) When does the FMS transition to the approach speed?

A) 15 NM from the destination.

B) 5 NM from the destination.

C) 15 NM from the first approach fix.

D) 10 NM from the first approach fix.

107) In flight alignment of the IRUs is possible by means of the GPS.

A) True

B) False

108) When is a VNAV Vertical Track Alert (VTA) issued?

A) 60 seconds before the FMS commands a climb.

B) 60 seconds before the FMS commands a descent.

C) 1000 feet before a level off altitude.

D) All of the above.

109) How long does it take to align the IRUs when on the ground?

A) Up to 90 seconds

B) Up to 7 minutes

C) Up to 17 minutes

D) Up to 20 minutes

110) The DVDR can record________of flight data information.

A) 120 minutes

B) 25 hours

C) 125 hours

D) 25 minutes

111) What is the arc range of the Target Alert function of the WX Radar Modes?

A) +/- 5 degrees

B) +/- 7.5 degrees.

C) +/- 10 degrees

D) +/- 12.5 degrees

112) Which has priority over the PAs?

A) Cockpit announcements have priority

B) Flight attendant announcements have priority

C) Pre-recorded announcements have priority

D) Whichever is used first has priority

113) Audio alerts for altitude alerts, GPWS, TCAS, and windshear cannot be controlled or turned off by the crew.

A) True

B) False

114) The alignment (IRS) on ground must be performed with:

A) Airplane NOT in movement and GPS position

B) Airplane NOT in movement, GPS position or manually entered primary via MCDU

C) Airplane NOT in movement, last position, IRS set to ALIGN mode

D) All the above

115) What is the function of the TEST button of the Digital Voice-Data Recorder?

A) Simultaneously tests all CVR and FDR functions on both DVDR

B) Test ONLY the CVR function

C) Test the external microphone of the cockpit and the CVR function

D) All the above

116) What would be the result of a single sensor failure of the Air Data System?

A) The affected indication will be lost or unreliable

B) The affected PFD loses all air data information

C) The ADS automatically revert to ADS 3

D) None

117) What does the symbol VTA on the PFD mean?

A) You are 60 s before the FMS commands a climb or descent

B) You are 5 NM before the FMS commands a climb or descent

C) You are 30 s before the FMS commands a climb or descent

D) You are 1 NM before the FMS commands a climb or descent

118) The IAS monitor is inhibited if both airspeed indicators show below 120 kias:

A) True

B) False

119) What does the altitude trend vector indicates?

A) Projected altitude in 6 s

B) Projected altitude in 10 s

C) Target altitude

D) None

120) The DVDR automatically starts recording audio information as soon as:

A) Power up is performed

B) WOW sense a flight condition

C) Beacon is turned on

D) All the above

121) Which Radio System (VDR) provides voice communication as well as data communications through ACARS?

A) VDR 1

B) VDR 2

C) VDR 3

D) All of the above

122) What happens in the case of a single Radar Altimeter failure (dual installation)?

A) The radio alt readout is shown in amber

B) The remaining radar alt provides the radio alt information

C) An EICAS message is posted

D) All of the above

123) What does the symbol VTA on the PFD mean?

A) Vertical Track Angle

B) Vertical Track Alert

C) Vertical Track Altitude

D) Vertical Track Advise

124) What is the first logic priority in case of a single ADS unit failure (LSP)?

A) The failed ADS automatically revert to ADS 3

B) The failed ADS automatically revert to ADS 4

C) The pilot must manually revert to ADS 3

D) It remains without change

125) What action must be performed by the pilot after using the oxygen mask microphone to restore communication via the hand or headset microphone?

A) Oxygen mask stowage box doors must be closed and reset

B) Auto/Mask Microphone SW must be push OUT

C) Auto/Mask Microphone SW must be push IN

D) All the above

126) GPWS and TCAS audio warnings can be canceled using the Audio Control Panel cancel feature:

A) True

B) False

127) Which is NOT a data provided by the IRS system?

A) Magnetic and true heading

B) Vertical velocity

C) Body linear acceleration

D) Wind Data

128) What is the range of operation of the radio altimeter?

A) 0 ft to 3000 ft

B) -20 ft to 2500 ft

C) -20 ft to 1500 ft

D) 0 ft to 1500 ft

129) What does the green dot on the PFD mean?

A) VMCA speed

B) Stall speed in landing configuration

C) Driftdown speed Slat/Flap Up

D) All the above

130) Which Air Data System sends information to the flight control system?

A) ADS 1

B) ADS 3

C) ADS FCS

D) None

131) During normal operation, which ADS provides information to the IESS?

A) ADS 1

B) ADS 2

C) ADS 3

D) ADS 4

132) The flight data begins to be recorded when:

A) Airplane is energized

B) The first engine is started

C) The beacon is turned ON

D) When the FO sets the On/Off Sw to ON.

133) What is the function of the RAIM mode of the GPS system?

A) Ensure integrity of the GPS module

B) Ensure integrity of the data transmitted by the satellite

C) Test the GPS system every hour

D) All of the above

134) How is the AOA calculated on the E190?

A) Based on an interface between static pressure of the smart probes

B) AOA sensors installed on both sides of the airplane

C) Computation between airspeed and pressure altitude

D) The E190 doesn’t calculate AOA

135) What is the function of the SELCAL feature?

A) Monitors selected frequencies on the VHF and HF radios

B) Establish communication between pilots and flight attendant

C) Backup source of the Radio System

D) It has been deactivated on the E190

136) The engine fuel shutoff valves can only be closed by the associated fire handle.

A) True

B) False

137) Setting the AC PUMP 1 or 2 selector knob to any position other than “auto” will override the fuel crossfeed commands.

A) True

B) False

138) Where is the DC fuel pump located?

A) Right wing tank.

B) Left wing tank.

C) One in each wing tank.

139) What is the purpose of the scavenge pumps?

A) To power the ejector pump.

B) To feed the engine with fuel.

C) To maintain the fuel level in the collector tank.

D) To vent the fuel in case a tank is overfilled.

140) The ejector pumps require electrical power in order to operate.

A) True

B) False

141) What powers the ejector fuel pump?

A) Gravity does the work.

B) Respective engine motive flow.

C) Suction.

D) Electrical power.

142) What is the purpose of the collector tank?

A) To provide a reserve of fuel during low fuel conditions.

B) To keep the fuel pump submerged.

C) To balance the aircraft.

D) None of the above.

143) At what point does the FUEL 1 LO LEVEL EICAS message appear?

A) When the low level sensor indicates less than 400 KG of fuel remaining in tank #1

B) When the low level sensor indicates less than 400 pounds of fuel remaining in tank #1

C) When the low level sensor indicates less than 360 KG of fuel remaining in tank #1

D) When the low level sensor indicates less than 360 pounds of fuel remaining in tank #1

144) It is also a backup pump in the event of ejector pump failure:

A) DC fuel pump

B) Wing AC fuel pump

C) Scavenge pump

D) All of the above

145) To achieve the maximum tank capacities, gravity refueling must be used to fill the remainder of the tank:

A) True

B) False

146) What automatically activates electric hydraulic pump 2? (Aircraft is on the ground and engine number 1 is running)?

A) Releasing the parking brake.

B) Movement of the aircraft.

C) Turning the tiller in either direction.

D) None of the above. Electric Hydraulic pump 2 never actuates automatically.

147) What is primary source of hydraulic power for hydraulic system 1?

A) Engine Driven Pump 1.

B) Electric Hydraulic pump 1.

C) Hydraulic system 1 accumulator.

D) The PTU.

148) What is the purpose of the PTU?

A) To transfer hydraulic fluid from system 1 to system 2.

B) To transfer hydraulic fluid from system 2 to system 1.

C) To provide hydraulic pressure in system 2 using system 1 pressure.

D) To provide hydraulic pressure in system 1 using system 2 pressure.

149) Which of the following component is not powered by the hydraulic system?

A) Landing gear

B) Flaps

C) Brakes

D) Steering

E) All of the above

150) In the event of an engine flameout, the associated Engine Driven Pump must be manually depressurized.

A) True

B) False

151) Electric Hydraulic pump 1 switch is in the AUTO position. What will cause the pump to activate automatically?

A) Flaps selected to any position greater than 0.

B) Thrust levers set to the takeoff position.

C) Ground speed greater than 50 knots.

D) All of the above are required.

152) During a single engine taxi using engine 1, electric hydraulic pump 2 will provide hydraulic power to:

A) Inboard brakes and nosewheel steering.

B) Outboard brakes and nosewheel steering.

C) Inboard and outboard brakes and nosewheel steering.

D) None of the above.

153) On GROUND if the ACMP 3A fails the hydraulic system logic turns ON the electric pump 3B:

A) True

B) False

154) What hydraulic system supplies the landing gear?

A) System 1

B) System 2

C) System 3

D) System 1 and System 2

155) What is the primary source for the Hydraulic System 1?

A) Electric Hydraulic Pump

B) Engine Driven Pump (EDP)

C) Hydraulic System Accumulator

D) APU

156) The ice detector system has actuated the engine and wing anti-ice systems. Once you leave icing conditions and icing conditions are no longer detected, the engine and wing anti- ice systems will remain on for a period of______.

A) They will turn off immediately.

B) 1 minute.

C) 5 minutes.

D) Until they're turned off by the crew.

157) During specific conditions, the wing anti-ice system will be activated regardless of icing conditions.

A) True

B) False

158) ALL is selected on the REF A/I line. When is the wing anti-ice system deactivated?

A) Until 1700 feet AGL

B) Until 5 minutes after takeoff

C) Until the crew turns it off

D) Until 1700 feet AGL or 5 minutes after takeoff, whichever occurs first

159) The wing anti-ice system is on and an engine subsequently flames out. What will happen to the cross bleed valve?

A) It will remain in the last selected position until the crew opens it.

B) It will open automatically.

C) It will close automatically.

D) None of the above.

160) When are the probes heated?

A) Only when the aircraft is in flight.

B) When electrical power is on the aircraft.

C) When both engines are running.

D) When either engine is running.

161) You have experienced a number 2 engine failure while in flight. What is the status of the windshield heat system?

A) It is 100% operational.

B) It operates at half heat.

C) Only the right windshield is heated.

D) Only the left windshield is heated.

162) The windshield wipers will stop operating if they are operating on a dry windshield.

A) True

B) False

163) What action should be taken if one bleed air fails?

A) Leave icing conditions immediately

B) The crew must open the cross-bleed valve manually

C) The system automatically opens the cross-bleed valve and uses opposite bleed

D) The systems revert to Stan by mode

164) The Ice and Rain protection System provides pneumatic anti-ice protection for:

A) Engine cowls and wing slats

B) Static ports, engine cowls, and wing slats

C) Engine cowls, wing slats, windshields

D) All of the above

165) The wing anti-ice system tests itself during flight:

A) 5 min after takeoff or at 15.000 ft AGL

B) 10 min after takeoff or at 10.000 ft AGL

C) 10 min after takeoff or at 5.000 ft AGL

D) It doesn’t test itself

166) What is the tiller steering authority at 100 knots?

A) +/- 76 degrees

B) +/- 38 degrees

C) +/- 10 degrees

D) +/- 7 degrees

167) What is the source of hydraulic power for the nosewheel steering system?

A) Hydraulic system 1.

B) Hydraulic system 2.

C) Both hydraulic system 1 and 2.

D) The Emergency/parking brake system.

168) The nosewheel steering tiller provides a steering angle of +/- 76 degrees at all ground speeds.

A) True

B) False

169) The alternate gear extension system has been activated. Once activated, normal landing gear hydraulic operation can only be restored on the ground by maintenance.

A) True

B) False

170) The emergency/parking brake system accumulators store enough pressure for_____full brake applications.

A) 2

B) 4

C) 6

D) 8

171) What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Warning Inhibition button?

A) There is no such button.

B) To inhibit the landing gear warning in the event of a GPWS failure.

C) To inhibit the landing gear warning in the event of a dual radio altimeter failure.

D) To silence the horn in case it activates while in flight and during gear movement.

172) Anti-skid protection is available for the emergency/parking brake system.

A) True

B) False

173) When is the anti-skid system automatically deactivated?

A) When the wheel speed is below 10 knots.

B) When the wheel speed is below 30 knots.

C) When engines are set in Idle.

D) When the thrust reversers are stowed.

174) The nose wheel steering has three modes of operation:

A) Handwheel; Rudder; Free wheel

B) Handwheel; Rudder; Automatic mode

C) Handwheel; Rudder; Free wheel; Backup mode

D) Handwheel; Rudder, Emergency mode

175) When retraction is completed, the landing gear is held in place by:

A) Hydraulic actuators

B) Uplock

C) Safety Switches

D) WOW and PSEM

176) The passenger oxygen masks cannot be manually deployed. Can only deploy automatically.

A) True

B) False

177) Amber color (oxygen press) cautionary operating range on the MFD indicates:

A) Minimum oxygen for 3 crew members

B) Minimum oxygen for 2 crew members

C) No dispactch condition

D) No limitations

178) When the oxygen mask stowage box door is opened:

A) Initiates the flow of oxygen

B) The oxygen microphone is activated

C) Speakers are turned ON

D) All of the above

179) The passenger oxygen system consists of two oxygen bottles located in the forward cargo compartment.

A) True

B) False

180) What is an external indication that the flight crew oxygen bottle has been discharged due to an overpressure?

A) None.

B) A red discharge disk will be missing above the oxygen filling port.

C) A yellow discharge disk will be missing above the oxygen filling port.

D) A green discharge disk will be missing above the oxygen filling port.

181) Which of the following is true?

A) With the regulator set to 'NORM', oxygen dilution will be automatic. As the cabin altitude increases, the proportion of ambient air entering the regular is reduced.

B) The 100% position will provide oxygen with a slight positive pressure.

C) The EMERGENCY mode will automatically dilute the amount of oxygen entering the regulator in proportion to the cabin altitude.

D) The oxygen mask microphone must be manually turned on after donning the oxygen mask.

182) At what cabin altitude will the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy?

A) 14.000 ft

B) 14.000 and 14.750 ft

C) 14.500 ft

D) It can only be activated by the PIC

183) The passenger oxygen masks have deployed. How much oxygen will be provided by each dispensing unit?

A) 10 minutes

B) 12 minutes

C) 14 minutes

D) 16 minutes

184) How much oxygen will the PBE provide, in minutes?

A) Approximately 10 minutes.

B) Approximately 15 minutes.

C) Approximately 20 minutes.

D) Approximately 25 minutes.

185) Where is the oxygen cylinder of the pilots located?

A) FWD cargo compartment

B) AFT cargo compartment

C) Behind the RSP

D) Electronic Bay

186) When is a Traffic Advisory issued on the TCAS?

A) When an aircraft is approximately 35 to 45 seconds from the TCAS collision area.

B) When an aircraft is approximately 20 to 30 seconds from the TCAS collision area.

C) When an aircraft is within 6.5 NM and 1200 feet above or below your aircraft's altitude.

D) When an aircraft is within 6.5 NM and 2700 feet above or below your aircraft's altitude.

187) With respect to the TCAS system, TCAS will not issue CLIMB or INCREASE CLIMB commands when the aircraft is at or above________feet.

A) 24,000

B) 30,000

C) 34,000

D) 35,000

188) They are highlighted by a preceding chevron:

A) Root EICAS messages

B) Warning EICAS messages

C) Status EICAS messages

D) All of the above

189) The Windshear Escape Guidance Mode is activated automatically when caution (AMBER) condition is detected:

A) True

B) False

190) Which warning has priority over all other voice message aural warnings?

A) Windshear

B) EGPWS

C) TCAS

D) Stall condition

191) What will cause the takeoff configuration warning to sound during a takeoff?

A) Flaps not in takeoff position, parking brake set, and pitch trim out of the green range.

B) Parking brake set, flaps not at takeoff position, any spoiler panel deployed.

C) Pitch trim not in the green range, flaps not takeoff, and any spoiler panel deployed.

D) Flaps not in takeoff position, parking brake set, pitch trim out of the green range, or any spoiler panel deployed.

192) The stick shaker has been activated. The AOA limiting function will automatically reduce control column authority in the nose up direction.

A) True

B) False

193) How is an RA traffic depicted on the TCAS?

A) Cyan hollow diamond

B) Cyan solid diamond

C) Red solid square

D) Amber solid circle.

194) What type of aural warning is associated with a windshear alert?

A) A voice message

B) A horn

C) A bell

D) A continuous Repetitive Chime (CRC)

195) The Windshear Escape Guidance Mode is activated (MANUALLY) in the following conditions:

A) Windshear warning condition is detected and thrust levers position to maximum

B) Windshear warning or caution condition is detected, and TOGA switch pressed

C) Windshear condition detected and WSHR mode on the FMA selected

D) All of the above

196) What is the order of priority of EICAS messages?

A) They are ordered according to when they appear, with the newest ones on top.

B) They are ordered according to when they appear, with the newest ones at the bottom.

C) They are grouped by priority, with the latest one on the top of each group.

D) None of the above.

197) A new warning message has been displayed on the EICAS. How does the crew acknowledge the new message?

A) By pressing the Master Warning or Caution button.

B) By correcting the situation (eg, running the checklist).

C) By selecting the OFF menu on the ND map menu.

D) By pressing the master warning and caution buttons simultaneously.

198) How are new caution and warning messages displayed on the EICAS?

A) In inverse video mode

B) Pulsing

C) Flashing in inverse video

D) Pulsing in large font

199) EICAS messages cannot be cancelled. They will remain in view until the underlying condition still exists.

A) True

B) False

200) During a Windshear encounter, the Autothrottle will disconnect if: (Autothrottle ON)

A) The AT System will disconnect no matter what

B) Pilot press the TOGA SW

C) Pilot manually advances the throttle lever beyond TOGA position

D) All of the above

201) What is the maximum differential overpressure?

A) 8.8 psi

B) 8.4 psi

C) 7.8 psi

D) 0.2 psi

202) What is the maximum tire ground speed?

A) 155 kt

B) 195 kt

C) 170 kt

D) 165 kt

203) What is the cool-down time required after DRY motoring the engine for 90 s (1st attempt)?

A) 5 minutes

B) 3 minutes

C) 2 minutes

D) 1 minute

204) The E190 has a positive load factor (Flaps Up) of:

A) -1 g

B) 0 g

C) 2 g

D) 2.5 g

205) When landing at an airport that is not in the EGPWS:

A) Use caution during landing

B) Landing only in VFR conditions

C) Manually inhibit the EGPWS

D) All of the above

206) VMO/MMO maximum operating speed (above 10.000 ft):

A) 300 kias / 0.82

B) 290 kias / 0.78

C) 300 kias / 0.78

D) 320 kias / 0.82

207) What is the maximum EGT for continuous use of the APU?

A) 1032°C

B) 960°C

C) 845°C

D) 717°C

208) Maximum flap extended speed (VFe) for the Flaps 3 position:

A) 230 kias

B) 215 kias

C) 200 kias

D) 180 kias

209) What is the maximum altitude for the APU Bleed extraction?

A) 15.000 ft

B) 20.000 ft

C) 21.000 ft

D) 30.000 ft

210) Autopilot minimum engagement height:

A) 50 ft

B) 200 ft

C) 400 ft

D) 1.000 ft

211) TAS, TAT and SAT information are only valid above______kias:

A) 30 kias

B) 60 kias

C) 80 kias

D) 100 kias

212) What is the maximum temperature for inflight start?

A) 740°C

B) 875°C

C) 960°C

D) 983°C

213) What is the maximum altitude for flap extended operation?

A) 24.000 ft

B) 21.000 ft

C) 20.000 ft

D) 15.000 ft

214) Maximum altitude for APU operation:

A) 14.500 ft

B) 21.000 ft

C) 33.000 ft

D) 41.000 ft

215) What is the VLO for retraction (Landing Gear operation speed)?

A) Green dot

B) 210 kias

C) 215 kias

D) 235 kias

216) What is the maximum EGT for APU start?

A) 1032°C

B) 940°C

C) 875°C

D) 717°C

217) What is the maximum recommended crosswind for a WET RWY?

A) 12 kt

B) 18 kt

C) 20 kt

D) 31 kt

218) 360 kg is the maximum permitted imbalance of fuel between wing tanks:

A) True

B) False

219) While trans mitting in VHF 2 the standby magnetic compass indication is NOT valid:

A) True

B) False

220) What is the maximum altitude for APU Bleed to assist engine start?

A) 33.000 ft

B) 30.000 ft

C) 21.000 ft

D) 20.000 ft

221) Normally the overheat sensors use dual loop sensing. In this configuration an overheat is indicated when at least one loop detects an overheat condition:

A) True

B) False

222) It is provided in case of pack shutdown or for smoke removal:

A) Outflow valves for cabin control

B) Dump Valve

C) Emergency Ram Air ventilation

D) Negative Pressure Relief Valve

223) The gasper air distribution system provides air to:

A) Cargo, avionics, and passengers

B) Each pilot and passenger position

C) Each pilot, passenger position, and cargo

D) All of the above

224) What happens when the pilot press the APP button and it is not aligned within 90 degrees of the final approach course?

A) LOC mode will be armed

B) BC mode will be armed

C) Roll mode will be armed

D) NAV mode will be armed

225) In flight IRS alignment is also possible to recover navigation capability using data from the GPS:

A) True

B) False

{"name":"CAAV test", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"1) What is indicated by a flashing orange light at the flight attendant station?, 2) What causes the service tank light on the flight attendant panel to illuminate?, 3) A vacuum generator is used to dispose of aircraft waste when...","img":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/3012/images/ogquiz.png"}