COPY OF CHAPTER 6-14

Lamas has the following products in inventory at the year-end: Product Selling Cost Quantity Cost Selling Price At what amount should total inventory be stated in the statement of financial position?
A. P95,900
B. P103,100
C. P95,100
D. P105,100
In which of the following situations is the net realizable value of an item of inventory likely to be lower than cost?
A. The production cost of the item has been falling
B. The selling price of the item has been rising.
C. The item is becoming obsolete.
D. Demand for the item is increasing.
At what amount is a biological asset measured on initial recognition in accordance with IAS 41 Agriculture?
A. Production cost
B. Fair value
C. Cost less estimated costs to sell
D. Fair value less estimated costs to sell
Which of the following is not the outcome of a biological transformation according IAS 41?
A. Growth
B. Harvest
C. Procreation
D. Degeneration
How is a gain or loss arising on a biological asset recognized in accordance with IAS 41?
A. Included in profit or loss for the year
B. Adjusted in retained earnings
C. Shown under 'other comprehensive income'
Which of the following statements about IAS 2 Inventories are correct? 1. Production overheads should be included in the cost on the basis of a company's actual level of activity in the period. 2. In arriving at the net realizable value of inventories, settlement discounts must be deducted from the expected selling price. 3. In arriving at the cost of inventories, FIFO, LIFO, and weighted average cost formulas are acceptable. 4. It is permitted to value finished goods inventories at materials plus labor cost only, without adding production overheads.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 3 and 4
D. None of them
Spartacus is a company which buys agricultural produce from wholesale suppliers for retail to the general public. It is preparing its financial statements for the year ending Sept. 30, 20X4 and is considering its closing inventory. In addition to IAS 2 Inventories, which of the following IFRSS may be relevant to determining the figure to be included in its financial statements for closing Inventories?
A. IAS 10 Events After the Reporting Period
B. IAS 38 Intangible Assets
C. IAS 16 Property, Plant, and Equipment
D. IAS 41 Agriculture
Charles has borrowed P2.4 million to finance the building of a factory. Construction is expected to take two years. The loan was drawn down and incurred on Jan. 1, 20x9 and work began on Mar. 1, 20x9, P1 million of the loan was not utilized until July 1, 20X9 so Charles was able to invest it until needed Charles is paying 8% on the loan and can invest surplus funds at 6% Calculate the borrowing costs to be capitalized for the year ended Dec. 31, 20x9 in respect of this project.
A. P140,000
B. P192,000
C. P100,000
D. P162,000
Which one of the following would be recognized as an investment property under IAS 40 in the consolidated financial statements of Gamal Corp.?
A. A property intended for sale in the ordinary course of business.
B. A property being constructed for a customer.
C. A property held in Gamal Corp. As right-of-use asset and leased out under a sixmonth lease.
D. A property owned by Gamal Corp. And leased out to a subsidiary.
Which of the following is not true concerning the treatment of investment properties under IAS 40?
A. Following initial recognition, investment property can be held at either cost or fair value.
B. If an investment property is held at fair value, this must be applied to all the entity's investment property.
C. An investment property is initially measured at cost, including transaction costs.
D. A gain or loss arising from a change in the fair value of an investment property should be recognized in other comprehensive income.
A company has the following loans in place throughout the year ended Dec. 31, 20x8 In Millions 10% bank loan P140 8% bank loan P200 On July 1, 20XR, P50 million was drawn down for construction of a qualifying asset which was completed during 20X9. What amount should be capitalized as borrowing costs at Dec. 31, 20x8 in respect of this asset?
A. P5.6 million
B. P2.8 million
C. P4.4 million
D. P2.2 million
An aircraft requires a planned overhaul each year at a cost of P5,000. This is a condition of being allowed to fly. How should the cost of the overhaul be treated in the financial statements?
A. Accrued for over the year and charged to maintenance expenses.
B. Provided for in advance and charged to maintenance expenses.
C. Capitalized and depreciated over the period to the next overhaul.
D. Charged to profit or loss when the expenditure takes place.
Ronald is developing a new product and expects to be able to capitalize the costs. Which one of the following would preclude capitalization of the costs?
A. Development of the product is not yet complete.
B. No patent has yet been registered in respect of the product.
C. No sales contracts have yet been signed in relation to the product.
D. It has not been possible to reliably allocate costs to development of the product.
A company had P20 million of capitalized development expenditure at cost brought forward at Oct. 1, 20X7 in respect of products currently in production and a new project began on the same site The research stage of the new project lasted until Dec. 31, 20X7 and incurred P1 million of costs. From that date, the project incurred developed costs of P800,000 per month. On April 1, 20X8, the directors became confident that the project would be successful and yield a profit well in excess of costs. The project was still in development at Sept. 30, 20X8, Capitalized development expenditure is amortized at 20% per annum using the straight-line method. What amount will be charged to profit or loss for the year ended Sept. 30, 2009 in respect of research and development costs?
A. P8,280,000
B. P6,880,000
C. P7,800,000
D. P3,800,000
Which one of the following internally generated items may be eligible for capitalization as intangible assets in accordance with IAS 38 Intangible Assets? (Ignore business combinations.)
A. A customer list
B. A pre-production prototype
C. Goodwill
D. The cost of researching new material
At Sept. 30, 20x9, Thatcher Inc's trial balance showed a brand at cost of P30 million, less accumulated amortization brought forward at Oct. 1, 20x8 of P9 million Amortization is based on a ten-year useful life. An impairment review an Apr. 1, 20X9 concluded that the brand had a value in use of P12 million and a remaining useful life of three years. However, on the same date Thatcher Inc. Received an offer to purchase the brand for P15 million. What should be the carrying amount of the brand in the statement of financial position of Thatcher Inc. As at Sept. 30, 20X9?
A. P12,500,000
B. P14,250,000
C. P15,000,000
D. P10,000,000
A cash-generating unit comprises the following assets: P'000 Building 700 Plant and equipment 200 Goodwill 90 Current assets 20 1,010 One of the machines, carried at P40,000, is damaged and will have to be scrapped. The recoverable amount of the cash-generating unit is estimated at P750,000. What will be the carrying amount of the building when the impairment loss has been recognized? (to the nearest P'000)
A. P597,000
B. P577,000
C. P594,000
D. P548,000
What is the recoverable amount of an asset?
A. Its current market value less costs of disposal.
B. The lower of carrying amount and value in use.
C. The higher of fair value less costs of disposal and value in use.
D. The higher of carrying amount and market value.
IAS 36 Impairment of Assets suggests how indications of impairment might be recognized Which two of the following would be external indicators that one or more of an entity's assets may be impaired?
A. An unusually significant fall in the market value of one or more assets.
B. Evidence of obsolescence of one or more assets.
C. A decline in the economic performance of one or more assets.
D. An increase in market interest rates used to calculate the value in use of the assets.
Which of the following is not an indicator of impairment under IAS 36 Impairment of Assets?
A. Advąnces in the technological environment in which an asset is employed have an adverse impact on its future use.
B. An increase in interest rates which increases the discount rate an entity uses.
C. The carrying amount of an entity's net assets is lower than the entity's number of shares in issue multiplied by its share price.
D. The estimated net realizable value of inventory has been reduced due to fire damage although this value is greater than its carrying amount.
Which of the following statements regarding the scope of IAS 36 is correct?
A. IAS 36 does not apply to assets measured at fair value.
B. IAS 36 applies to investments in subsidiaries, associates and joint ventures.
C. Non-current assets classified as held for sale are measured in accordance with AIS 36.
D. The requirements of IAS 36 do not apply to properties that are leased out under operating leases.
Which of the following best describes the underlying principle of IAS 36?
A. Assets and liabilities should be carried at an amount that best reflects their value to a reporting entity.
B. Assets should be measured at an amount that conforms to the measurement bases of the Conceptual Framework.
C. Assets should not be measured at more than the net amount that they can be sold for or the amount they will generate through use.
D. The carrying amount of assets should not be overstated in the statement of financial position and the carrying amount of liabilities should not be understated.
A non-current asset has a carrying amount of P40,000. It could be sold for P37,000 with selling costs of P1,000. Its value in use is P44,000 and its replacement cost is P100,000. According to IAS 36 Impairment of Assets what is the recoverable amount of this asset?
A. P36,000
B. P40,000
C. P44,000
D. P100,000
In accordance with IAS 36 Impairment of Assets which of the following must be tested for impairment annually?
A. non-depreciable land held for an undetermined use
B. A brand name that is being amortized over 10 years
C. A machine that has previously suffered an impairment loss
D. Capitalized costs associated with an ongoing development project
Which of the following statements regarding impairment testing is or are correct? I. An increase in interest rates is an indicator that an asset may be impaired. ii. The recoverable amount of a CGU to which goodwill has been allocated in the year must be tested for impairment for the first time 12 months after the business combination that gave rise to the goodwill.
A. I only
B. Ii only
C. both I and ii
D. neither I nor ii
To which of the following assets does IAS 36 apply?
A. Inventories of finished goods measured at cost
B. Cattle measured by a farmer at fair value less costs to sell
C. An internally generated brand initially recognized at fair value on the date of a business combination
D. a 5% holding in the equity shares of a listed company measured at fair value through profit or loss
A 5% loan note was issued on Apr. 1, 20X0 at its face value of P20 million. Direct costs of the issue were P500,000. The loan note will be redeemed on Mar. 31, 20X3 at a substantial premium. The effective interest rate applicable is 10% per annum. At what amount will the loan note appear in the statement of financial position as at Mar. 31, 20X2?
A. P21,000,000
B. P20,450,000
C. P22,100,000
D. P21,495,000
How does IFRS 9 Financial Instruments require investments in equity instruments to be measured and accounted for (in the absence of any election at initial recognition)?
A. Fair value with changes going through profit or loss.
B. Fair value with changes going through other comprehensive income.
C. Amortized cost with changes going through profit or loss.
D. Amortized cost with changes going through other comprehensive income.
On Jan. 1, 20X1, Roald purchased a debt instrument for its fair value of P500,000. It had a principal amount of P550,000 and was due to mature in five years. The debt instrument carries fixed interest of 6% paid annually in arrears and has an effective interest rate of 8%. It is held at amortized cost. At what amount will the debt instrument be shown in the statement of financial position of Roald as at Dec. 31, 20X2?
A. P514,560
B. P566,000
C. P564,560
D. P520,800
Which of the following are not classified as financial instruments under IAS 32 Financial instruments: Presentation?
A. Share options
B. Intangible assets
C. Trade receivables
D. Redeemable preference shares
Which of the following would not qualify as a financial instrument according to the definition in IAS 32 Financial Instruments: Presentation?
A. Trade receivable of P250,000
B. P200,000 borrowed under a mortgage
C. P15,000 bank deposit with a 3-year fixed term
D. P25,000 payment in advance for a 12-month insurance policy
Which of the following are not financial liabilities in accordance with IAS 32 Financial Instruments: Presentation?
A. Loan notes
B. Equity shares
C. Trade payables
D. Redeemable preference shares
Which of the following preference shares are classified as equity in the issuer's financial statements in accordance with IAS 32 Financial instruments: Presentation?
A. Redeemable preference shares with a fixed redemption date
B. Preference shares that are redeemable on request by the holder
C. Preference shares that are redeemable at the discretion of the issuer
D. Preference shares that are redeemable at the discretion of the issuer and the issuer has informed the holders of its intention to redeem
Which of the following statements is correct regarding accounting for a financial liability measured at amortized cost, in accordance with IFRS 9 Financial Instruments?
A. The liability is recognized initially at the fair value of the consideration received.
B. Issue costs paid in connection with the issue of the instrument are expensed immediately.
C. The finance cost of the liability is recognized over the term of the instrument at a constant rate.
D. The carrying amount of the liability is reduced by the finance cost each year, calculated using the effective rate.
Which of the following are the main components of market risk, in accordance with IFRS 7 Financial Instruments: Disclosures?
A. Credit risk and liquidity risk
B. Currency risk and credit risk
C. Interest rate risk and liquidity risk
D. Interest rate risk and currency risk
Which of the following amounts is recognized outside the statement of profit or loss in accordance with lAS 32 and IFRS 9?
A. A gain on an equity investment that is held for trading
B. An increase in impairment allowance on a financial asset measured at amortized cost
C. A loss on an interest rate swap used to protect the value of a recognized debt instrument
D. A gain on a financial liability measured at fair value through profit or loss due to changes in credit risk
Which one of the following factors would prevent the application of hedge accounting in accordance with IFRS 9 Financial Instruments?
A. The hedge is of a net investment in a foreign operation.
B. There is no economic relationship between the hedged item and the hedging instrument.
C. The effect of credit risk does not dominate fair value changes in the hedging instrument and hedged item.
D. The hedge ratio of the hedging relationship is only equal to that resulting from the quantity of the hedged item that the entity actually hedges and the quantity of the hedging instrument that the entity actually uses to hedge that quantity of hedged item.
Which of the following is a primary financial instrument?
A. A contract to swap a fixed rate of interest on a notional P1 million for a variable rate
B. A contract to buy 2 million Euro at a fixed date in the future at a specified exchange rate
C. A contract to deliver a fixed number of ordinary shares in the future equal to a fixed currency amount
D. A contract giving the holder the option to sell 500g of gold on a fixed date in the future at a specified price
Charlemagne Inc. Has in issue P500,000 6% preference shares, which are redeemable at the option of the holder. The preference shares have been in issue for over 10 years and none of them has ever been redeemed. The company has treated the P30,000 annual payment as a deduction from equity. Is this treatment correct, according to IAS 32 Financial Instruments: Presentation?
A. yes, because shares are equity and the annual payment is a dividend
B. no, because the annual payment must be separated into dividend and interest components
C. no, because the preference shares should be classified as a financial liability and the annual payment is interest
D. yes, because although the preference shares appear to be a liability the substance of the arrangement is that they are equity; in practice they are unlikely ever to be redeemed.
On Jan. 1, 20X6, Bolivar hired a machine under a lease. The present value of the lease payments was P3.3 million. Installments of P700,000 are payable annually in advance with the first payment made on Jan. 1, 20X6. The interest rate implicit in the lease is 6%. What amount will appear under non-current liabilities in respect of this lease in the statement of financial position of Bolivar at Dec. 31, 20X7? (Answers to nearest P'000)
A. P1,479,000
B. P2,179,000
C. P1,702,000
D. P2,266,000
Which of the following situations does not suggest that an arrangement constitutes a lease?
A. The lessee obtains substantially all the economic benefits from use of the asset.
B. Ownership in the asset is transferred at the end of the lease term.
C. The contract relates to an identified asset.
D. If it suits them to do so, the lessor can substitute and identical asset.
A company acquired an item of plant under a lease on Apr. 1, 20X7. The present value of the lease payments was P15.6 million and the rentals are P6 million per annum paid in arrears for three years on Mar. 31 each year. The interest rate implicit in the lease is 8% per annum. What amount will appear under current liabilities in respect of this lease in the statement of financial position at Mar. 31, 20X8? (Answers to nearest P'000)
A. P5,132,000
B. P5,716,000
C. P6,000,000
D P4,752,000
At what amount does IFRS 16 Leases require a lessee to measure a right-of-use asset acquired under a lease?
A. Lease liability + other direct costs + incentives received
B. Lease liability - other direct costs - prepayments
C. Lease liability + other direct costs + prepayments - incentives received
D. Lease liability - other direct costs - prepayments + incentives received
On Oct. 1, 20X3, Hernan acquired an item of a plant under a five-year lease agreement. The initial measurement of the liability was P25 million. The agreement had an implicit finance cost of 10% per annum and required an immediate deposit of P2 million and annual rentals of P6 million paid on Sept. 30 each year for 5 years. What will be the interest in respect of this lease in Hernan's statement of profit or loss as at Sept. 30, 20X5?
A. P2,500,000
B. P2,300,000
C. P2,150,000
D. P1,930,000
The objective of IFRS 16 Leases is to prescribe appropriate accounting treatment and required disclosures in relating to leases. Which two of the following are among the criteria set out in IFRS 16 for an arrangement to be classified as a lease?
A. The lessee has the right to substantially all of the economic benefits from use of the asset.
B. The lease term is for substantially all of the economic life of the asset.
C. The agreement concerns an identified asset which cannot be substituted.
D. The lessor has the right to direct the use of the asset.
A sale and leaseback transaction involve the sale of an asset and the leasing back of the same asset. If the arrangement meets the IFRS 15 criteria to be recognized as a sale, how should any 'profit' on the sale be treated?
A. Recognize whole amount of profit immediately in profit or loss.
B. Defer profit and amortized over the lease term.
C. Recognize the proportion relating to right of use retained.
D. Recognize the proportion relating to right of use transferred.
Which of the following does not suggest that an arrangement constitutes a lease?
A. The contract relates to an identified asset.
B. The lessor is able to substitute an identical asset.
C. Ownership of the asset is transferred to the lessee at the end of the lease term
D. The lessee obtains substantially all of the economic benefits from use of the asset
At what amount should a lessee initially measure a right-of-use asset according to IFRS 16 Leases?
A. Lease liability - other direct costs - prepayments
B. Lease liability + other direct costs + incentives received
C. Lease liability - other direct costs - prepayments + incentives received
D. Lease liability + other direct costs + prepayments - incentives received
Cromwell Corp. Entered into a lease agreement for an item of plant. The lease liability was originally recorded at P700,000 and Cromwell Corp. Also incurred initial direct costs of P40,000 and received lease incentives from the lessor totaling P14,000. At the end of the lease, Cromwell Corp. Will have to dismantle the plant at an estimated (discounted) cost of P30,000. At what amount should the right-of-use asset be initially measured?
A. P700,000
B. P726,000
C. P730,000
D. P756,000
Which two of the following would indicate that lease payments may be charged to the statement of profit and loss as incurred? I. The asset has a low underlying value. ii. The lease is for less than 12 months. iii. Ownership is transferred at the end of the lease term. iv. The asset has been specially adapted for the use of the lessee.
A. I and ii only
B. I and iv only
C. Ii and iii only
D. Iii and iv only
Mandela is being sued by a customer for P2 million for breach of contract over a cancelled order. Mandela has obtained legal opinion that there is a 20% chance that Mandela will lose the case. Accordingly, Mandela has provided P400,000 (P2 million x 20%) in respect of the claim. The unrecoverable legal costs of defending the action are estimated at P100,000. These have not been provided for as the case will not go to court until next year. What is the amount of provision that should be made by Mandela in accordance with IAS 37 Provisions, Contingent Liabilities, and Contingent Assets?
A. 2,000,000
B. P2,100,000
C. P500,000
D. P100,000
During the year, Dwightlee acquired an iron ore mine at a cost of P6 million. In addition, when all the ore has been extracted (estimated ten years' time) the company will face estimated costs for landscaping the area affected by the mining that have a present value of P2 million. These costs would still have to be incurred even if no further ore was extracted. How should this P2 million future cost be recognized in the financial statements?
A. Provision of P2 million and P2 million capitalized as part of cost of mine.
B. Provision of P2 million and P2 million charged to operating costs.
C. Accrual P200,000 per annum for next ten years.
D. Should not be recognized as no cost has yet arisen.
Which one of the following would not be valid grounds for a provision?
A. A company has a policy of cleaning up any environmental contamination caused by its operation but is not legally obliged to do so.
B. A company is leasing an office building for which it has no further use. However, it is tied into the lease for another year.
C. A company is closing down a division. The Board has prepared detailed closure plans which have been communicated to customers and employees.
D. A company has acquired a machine which requires a major overhaul every three years. The cost of the first overhaul is reliably estimated at P120,000.
Which one of the following events taking place after the year end but before the financial statements were authorized for issue would require adjustment in accordance with IAS 10 Events After the Reporting Period?
A. Three lines of inventory held at the year end were destroyed by flooding in the warehouse.
B. The directors announced a major restructuring.
C. Two lines of inventory held at the year end were discovered to have faults rendering them unsaleable.
D. The value of the company's investments fell sharply.
Which of the following statements are correct in accordance with IAS 37 Provisions, Contingent Liabilities, and Contingent Assets? I. Provisions should be made for both constructive and legal obligations. ii. Discounting may be used when estimating the amount of a provision. iii. A restructuring provision must include the estimated costs of retraining or relocating continuing staff. iv. A restructuring provision may only be made when a company has a detailed plan for the restructuring and has communicated to interested parties a firm intention to carry it out.
A. All four statements are correct.
B. I, ii, and iv only
C. I, iii, and iv only
D. Ii and iii only
Kemal's year end is Sept. 30, 20X4 and the following potential liabilities have been identified: Which two of the above should Kemal recognize as liabilities as at Sept. 30, 20X4?
A. The signing of a non-cancellable contract in Sept. 20X4 to supply goods in the following year on which, due to a pricing error, or loss will be made.
B. The cost of a reorganization which was approved by the board in Aug. 20X4 but has not yet been implemented, communicated to interested parties or announced publicly.
C. An amount of deferred tax relating to the gain on the revaluation of a property during the current year. Kemal has no intention of selling the property in the foreseeable future.
D. The balance on the warranty provision which is related to products for which there are no outstanding claims and whose warranties had expired by Sept. 30, 20X4.
Which two of the following events which occur after the reporting date of a company but before the financial statements are authorized for issue are classified as adjusting events in accordance with IAS 10 Events After the Reporting Period?
A. A change in tax rate announced after the reporting date but affecting the current tax liability.
B. The discovery of a fraud which had occurred during the year.
C. The determination of the sale proceeds of an item of plant sold before the year end.
D. The destruction of a factory by fire.
The IASB Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting (Conceptual Framework) refers to 'faithful representation' as a fundamental qualitative characteristic. Which of the following is an example of faithful representation as defined in the Conceptual Framework?
A. The consistent use of accounting estimates when accounting for depreciation
B. The classification of expenses as cost of sales, administrative expenses and distribution costs
C. The ability to use information on provisions to predict future cash flows of a reporting entity
D. the IAS 37 requirement to disclose contingent liabilities in order to provide complete information
The financial statements of Lincoln Corp. For the year ended Dec. 31, 20X2 were authorized for issue on Apr. 15, 20X3. According to IAS 10 Events After the Reporting Period, which of the following is treated as a non-adjusting event in the financial statements for the year ended Dec. 31, 20X2?
A. Inventory items held at Dec. 31, 20X2 with an original cost of P40,000, were sold for P30,000.
B. On Apr. 2, 20X3, there was a fire in Lincoln Corp.'s main warehouse that destroyed 60% of the total inventory.
C. Notice was received on Feb. 28, 20X3 that a major customer had ceased trading due to prolonged financial difficulties and was unlikely to make further payments.
D. It was discovered that a member of the accounts payable team had processed false invoices through the purchases ledger resulting in payment of P75,000 to her personal bank account.
A company's reporting period ends on June 30, 20X2 and the financial statements are authorized for issue on Aug. 31, 20X2. On July 30, 20X2, a major drop in the price of shares means that the value of the company's investments has declined by P130,000 since the period end. The fall in value is material. How should this event be treated in the financial statements for the period ended June 30, 20X2?
A. An adjusting event without separate disclosure
B. A non-adjusting event without separate disclosure
C. An adjusting event with disclosure that a major fall in the price of shares has resulted in a loss of P130,000
D. A non-adjusting event with disclosure that a major fall in the price of shares has resulted in a loss of P130,000
I. An entity is planning to refurbish its head office in Feb. 20X3. It is anticipated that the refurbishment will cost P200,000, ii. On Dec. 15, the board of an entity decided to close down a division of its business On Dec. 18, the details were approved by the board and customers were notified. On Dec. 20, redundancy notices were sent to staff. iii. Under new legislation an entity is required to install improved sound proofing in all of its factories by Mar. 31, 20x3. The entity will be fined if it does not comply with the legislation by this date. At Dec. 31, 20X2, the entity has not made the required improvements.
A. I only
B. Iii only
C. I and iii only
D. Ii and iii only
In accordance with IAS 37 Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets which of the following is recognized as a provision?
A. The costs of a major refit required in three years' time
B. Electricity costs owing, estimated by reference to the bill for the previous quarter
C. An amount for goods received but for which have not been invoiced by the supplier
D. The expected costs of meeting warranty claims from customers in relation to sales made
In accordance with IAS 37 Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets which of the following is the correct treatment for a present obligation arising from past events, the amount of which cannot be reliably estimated?
A. It is disclosed as a contingent asset.
B. It is disclosed as a contingent liability.
C. No reference is made to the item in the financial statements.
D. A liability is recognized based on the limited information available with a note disclosing the unreliable nature of the estimate.
In accordance with IAS 37 Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets, In a which of the following statements is correct?
A. Contingent assets and contingent liabilities are always disclosed in the financial statements.
B. Contingent liabilities are accrued and contingent assets are disclosed in the financial statements.
C. Contingent liabilities are either accrued or disclosed and contingent assets are disclosed in the financial statements.
D. Contingent liabilities are usually disclosed and contingent assets are sometimes disclosed in the financial statements.
A company's trial balance shows a debit balance of P2.1 million brought forward on current tax and a credit balance of P5.4 million on deferred tax. The tax charge for the current year is estimated at P16.2 million and the carrying amounts of net assets are P13 million in excess of their tax base. The income tax rate is 30% What amount will be shown as income tax in the statement of profit or loss for the year?
A. P15.6 million
B. P12.6 million
C. P16.8 million
D. P18.3 million
A company's trial balance at Dec. 31, 20X3 shows a debit balance of P700,000 on current tax and a credit balance of P8,400,000 on deferred tax. The directors have estimated the provision for income tax for the year at P4.5 million and the required deferred tax provision is P5.6 million, P1.2 million of which relates to a property revaluation. What is the profit or loss income tax charge for the year ended Dec. 31, 20X3?
A. P1 million.
B. P2.4 million
C. P1.2 million
D. P3.6 million
The following information relates to an entity. I. At Jan. 1, 20X8, the carrying amount of non-current assets exceeded their tax written down value by P850,000. ii. For the year to Dec. 31, 20X8, the entity claimed depreciation for tax purposes of P500,000 and charged depreciation of P450,000 in the financial statements. iii. During the year ended Dec. 31, 20X8, the entity revalued a property. The revaluation surplus was P250,000. There are no current plans to sell the property. iv. The tax rate was 30% throughout the year. What is the provision for deferred tax required by IAS 12 Income Taxes at Dec. 31, 20X8?
A. P240,000
B. P270,000
C. P315,000
D. P345,000
Which of the following will not give rise to a taxable temporary difference?
A. Receipt of a non-taxable government grant
B. Accelerated depreciation of a machine for tax purposes
C. Prepaid expenses that benefitted from tax relief when paid
D. Capitalized development costs that were fully relieved for tax purposes when paid
Which of the following best describes a temporary difference when applying the balance sheet liability method of accounting for deferred tax?
A. Amounts that will be taxable or deductible in future periods
B. The amount that will be deductible for tax purposes when the carrying amount of an asset is recovered
C. Differences between taxable profit and accounting profit that originate in one period and reverse in another
D. The difference between the amount attributed to an asset or liability for tax purposes and its carrying amount
Assets have a carrying amount of P450,000 and a tax base of P360,000. Which of the following best describes the resulting temporary difference of P90,000?
A. An amount of income tax recoverable in future periods
B. An amount of income tax payable in future periods when the carrying amount of the assets is recovered
C. A difference that will result in taxable amounts in future periods when the carrying amount of the assets is recovered
D. A difference that will result in amounts that benefit from tax relief in future periods when the carrying amount of the assets is recovered
Which of the following provides an example of an outflow of economic benefits associated with the reversal of a taxable temporary difference?
A. Receipt of P300 accrued interest receivable, which is taxed on a cash basis
B. Payment of P500 accrued expenses that are allowable for tax purposes on a cash basis
C. Receipt of P6,000 owed by credit customers; revenue is taxed when recognized as income
D. Payment of P900 accrued expenses that were allowable for tax purposes when recognized as an expense for accounting purposes
Which of the following correctly describes deferred tax?
A. An accounting device
B. Tax that has been avoided
C. Tax due back from the tax authority
D. Tax that will not be paid until the following period
Which of the following statements regarding the disclosure of deferred tax is not correct?
A. The deferred tax charge for the year must be disclosed in the statement of profit or loss.
B. Deferred tax balances must be disclosed as non-current in the statement of financial position.
C. A statement of financial position may include both a deferred tax asset and a deferred tax liability.
D. The amount of deductible temporary differences that are not recognized as a deferred tax asset must be disclosed in the notes to the accounts.
The financial statements of Caesar Inc. Include an amount for interest receivable of P10,000. The related interest revenue will be taxed on a cash basis. What is the tax base of the interest receivable and what temporary difference arises?
A. A tax base of P10,000 and no resulting temporary difference
B. A tax base of zero and a taxable temporary difference of P10,000
C. A tax base of zero and a deductible temporary difference of P10,000
D. A tax base of P10,000 and a taxable temporary difference of P10,000
A company's liabilities include sales revenue received in advance with a carrying amount of P600. The revenue was taxed when it was received. According to IAS 12 Income Taxes, which of the following statements is correct?
A. The tax base of the liability is zero and there is a taxable temporary difference of P600.
B. The tax base of the liability is P600 and there is a taxable temporary difference of P600.
C. The tax base of the liability is zero and there is a deductible temporary difference of P600.
D. The tax base of the liability is P600 and there is a deductible temporary difference of P600.
At the end of the reporting Bonaparte Inc. Had the following assets in its statement of financial position: • A machine that had originally cost P150,000 with related accumulated depreciation of P50,000. Accumulated tax depreciation was P100,000. • Trade receivables with a carrying amount of P60,000. This amount is net of an allowance for doubtful receivables of P40,000. The related sales revenue has already been included in taxable profit. Doubtful debts are not deductible for tax purposes until the debt is written off. - The tax rate is 30%. Applying the balance sheet liability method of tax effect accounting, these items will give rise to:
A. A net deferred tax asset of P3,000
B. A net deferred tax liability of P3,000
C. A net deferred tax asset of P27,000
D. A net deferred tax liability of P27,000
Pirandello had 10 million ordinary shares in issue throughout the year ended June 30 20x3. On July 1, 20X2, it had issued P2 million of 6% convertible loan stock, each PS of loan stock convertible into 4 ordinary shares on July 1, 20X6 at the option of the holder. Pirandello had profit after tax for the year ended June 30, 20X3 of P1,850,000. It pays tax on profits at 30%. What was diluted EPS for the year?
A. PO.167
B. PO.185
C. PO.17
D. PO.161
At Sept. 30, 20X2, the trial balance of Becquerel includes the following balances: P'000 Equity shares of 20c each 50,000 Share premium 15,000 Becquerel has accounted for a fully subscribed rights issue of equity shares made on Apr. 1, 20X2 of one new share for every four in issue at 42 cents each. This was the only share issue made during the year. What were the balances on the share capital and share premium accounts at Sept. 30, 20X1? Share capital Share premium P'000 P'000
A. 37,500 11,250
B. 40,000 4,000
C. 37,500 4,000
D. 40,000 11,250
Aqua has correctly calculated its basic earnings per share (EPS) for the current year. Which of the following items need to be additionally considered when calculating the diluted EPS of Aqua for this year? I. A 1 for 5 rights issue of equity shares during the year at P1.20 when the market price of the equity shares was P2.00. ii. The issue during the year of a convertible (to equity shares) loan note. iii. The granting during the year of directors' share options exercisable in three years' time. iv. Equity shares issued during the year as the purchase consideration for the acquisition of a new subsidiary company.
A. All four
B. I and ii only
C. Ii and iii only
D. Iii and iv only
Many commentators believe that the trend of earnings per share (EPS) is a more reliable indicator of underlying performance than the trend of net profit for the year. Which of the following statements supports this view?
A. Net profit can be manipulated by the choice of accounting policies but EPS cannot be manipulated in this way.
B. EPS takes into account the additional resources made available to earn profit when new shares are issued for cash, whereas net profit does not.
C. The disclosure of a diluted EPS figure is a forecast of the future trend of profit.
D. The comparative EPS is restated where a change of accounting policy affects the previous year's profits.
At Jan. 1, 20X8, Morgan had 5 million P1 equity shares in issue. On June 1, 20X8, it made a 1 for 5 rights issue at a price of P1.50. The market price of the shares on the last day of quotation with rights was P1.80. Total earnings for the year ended Dec. 31, 20X8 was P7.6 million. What was EPS for the year?
A. P1.35
B. P1.36
C. P1.27
D. P1.06
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