Pharma
Atropine overdose can be complicated all of the following manifestations EXCEPT:
Dryness of mouth
Retention of urine
Tachycardia
Miosis
Blurred vision (cycloplegia)
Which of the following pairs of drug and its property is TRUE?
Neostigmine ---------is neuromuscular blocking agent.
Atropine-----------is selective muscarinic (m2) receptor blocker.
Scoplamine------- is used in the management of motion sickness.
Bethanechol---------is rapidly hydrolyzed by cholinesterase enzyme.
Echothiophate-------is a cycloplegic agent.
Which of the following drugs can produce broncodilation tachycardia and hypotention?
Adrenaline (epinephrine).
Noradrenaline (norepinephrine).
Isoproterenol.
Dobutamine.
Dopamine.
Beta adrenergic blocking drugs are used in the management of all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
Hypertension.
Hypothyroidism.
Angina pectoris.
Essential tremor.
Cardiac arrhythmia
The drug of the first choice in the management of anaphytactic shock is:
Epinephrine.
Dopamine.
Hydrocortisone.
Phenylephrine.
Dobutamine.
Which of the following is mismatched
Epinephrine--->anaphylactic shock
Phenylephrine-----> nasal stuffness
Metoprolol----> vasospastic angina
Case qus for a Patient who was affected by organophosphate, which of the following is not a result:
Weakness in muscles
Incontinence
Bronchodilation
Bronchoconstricion
Which of these drugs can be used to treat glaucoma:
neostigmine
timolol
echothiophat
Pilocarpine
All are correct
Irreversible inhibition of the bone marrow is an adverse effect to:
Benzathine penicillin
Clarithromycin
Trimethoprim
Gentamycin
Chloramphenicol
All of the following actions could be a cause of treatment failure with antimicrobial agents except:
The patient is male
The dose used is lower than required
The patient is on another drug or steroid therapy
The duration of therapy is short and insufficient
Drug resistance
Which of the following antibiotics can be safely administered in the presence of hepatic disease:
Erythromycin
Neomycin
Doxycycline
Chloramphenicol
Azithromycin
A patient presented with cough and greenish sputum, fever and difficulty in breathing for the last three days, the diagnosis was established by the culture as having mycoplasma, the best therapy for that is:
Ciprofloxacin
Amoxicillin
Co-trimoxazole
Clarithromycin
Gentamycin
Ciprofloxacin acts by inhibiting bacterial:
Protein synthesis
Nucleic acid synthesis
Cell membrane function
Cell wall synthesis
More than one mentioned mechanism
Clindamycin:
Has excellent penetration to the bone
Can rarely cause gastrointestinal problems
Inhibits nucleic acid synthesis
Contraindicated in patients allergic to penicillin
Is the most common drug used to treat pseudomembranous colitis
A lady on antibiotics, suddenly developed severe diarrhea due to clostridium difficile, which of the following antibiotics is effective in the treatment of the condition
Clindamycin
Ampicillin
Metronidazole
Doxycycline
Penicillin V
A young man presented to you complaining of dysuria with frequency of micturition for the last 3 days urine culture show pseudomonas aeruginosa, the best drug to be given to treat this patient is:
Ciprofloxacin
Vancomycin
Benzathine penicillin
Clarithromycin
Co-trimazole
All of the following are adverse effects of cephalosporin EXCEPT:
False positive glucose test in urine
Bleeding
Thrombocytopenia
Irreversible bone marrow suppression
Combination of two or more antibiotics may lead to:
Potentiation of the effects of drugs used in combination
Delay the development of drug resistance
All mentioned statements are correct
Broader suppression of normal flora
Increase the possibilities of side effects
Azithromycin:
Is highly active against respiratory infections due to H.influenzae
Inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria
Is characterized by all mentioned statements
Is given orally and once per day
Is less active against streptococcal infections than erythromycin
Which of the following penicillin drugs is resistant to gastric acid:
Penicillin G
Ureidopenicillins
Benzathine penicillin
Phenoxymethyl penicillin
None of the listed drugs
Which of the following statements regarding penicillin G is correct:
It is active against aerobic infections
It is used in the treatment of infection in men only
It is contraindicated in the treatment of girls with tonsillitis
It is contraindicated in boys aged 10 years and younger
It should be combined with other drugs for treatment of meningitis
Cephalosporin antibiotics are divided into generations according to:
Time of discovery
Cost of the drug
Administration methods
Manufacturer preferences
Sensitivity of microorganisms
Which of the following drugs considered bactericidal in its action
Rifampicin
Penicillin G
All mentioned drugs
Cefuroxime (cephalosporin)
Co-trimoxazole
Which of the following statements regarding ampicillin is correct:
It’s not destroyed by the beta lactamase enzyme
Its a narrow spectrum penicillin
It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis
Its highly effective against salmonella and shigella infections
Its better absorbed than amoxicillin
Ototoxicity is recognized adverse effect of all of the following drugs except:
Streptomycin
Gentamycin
None of the drug mentioned
Aztreonam
Tobramycin
Metronidazole is active against all of the following except:
Gram positive and gram negative anaerobic bacilli
Entamoeba histolytica
Dlostridium difficile
Giardia lamblia
Streptococcal infections
A patient is allergic to penicillin, with high risk of anaphylactic shock, can be given instead:
Benzathine penicillin
Amoxicillin
Cephalosporin drugs
Clarithromycin
Peniciilin V
The following adverse effects may occur with the use of erythromycin except:
Jaundice
Acute cholestatic hepatitis
Cardiac arrhythmia if given with pro-arrhythmic drugs
Abdominal pain
Nephrotoxicity
Chloramphenicol:
Can be bactericidal or bacteriostatic in its action
May cause irreversible aplastic anemia
is effective against most anaerobic infections
Is administered intravenously
All statements mentioned are correct
All the following can cause wrong diagnosis except:
The patient is male
Lower dose than required
Compliance
Headache, dizziness and vertigo might be an adverse effect of which of the following:
cholarmphenicol
ciprofloxacin
gentamycin
A boy who has irritation on his left forearm because of staphylococcus aureus. Which penicillin is the best to be given?
Flucloxacillin
A disease showed enlargment of bowel, ulcerative colitis, could be treated by:
co-trimoxazol
sulphasalazine
sulfaamide
Which of the following pairs of drug and its property is TRUE?
Neostigmine ---------is neuromuscular blocking agent.
Atropine-----------is selective muscarinic (m2) receptor blocker.
Scoplamine------- is used in the management of motion sickness.
Bethanechol---------is rapidly hydrolyzed by cholinesterase enzyme.
Echothiophate-------is a cycloplegic agent.
Hypotention?
Adrenaline (epinephrine).
Noradrenaline (norepinephrine).
Isoproterenol.
Dobutamine.
Dopamine.
Beta adrenergic blocking drugs are used in the management of all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
Hypertension.
Hypothyroidism.
Angina pectoris.
Essential tremor.
Cardiac arrhythmia.
The drug of the first choice in the management of anaphytactic shock is:
Epinephrine.
Dopamine.
Hydrocortisone.
Phenylephrine.
Dobutamine.
The intensity (magnitude) and direction of drug action correlate in a predictable by way the:
Lipid/water partition coefficient (LWPC) of the drug.
Potency of the drug.
Molecular weight of the drug.
Administered dose of the drug.
Efficacy of the drug.
If a 5mg dose of drug X produce the same magnitude of effects as drug Y at a dose of 20mg. Via a similar mechanism of action. It can be concluded that:
Drug Y is associated with a wider therapeutic index compared to drug X.
Drug X is more efficacious than drug Y.
Risk of toxicity induced by drug Y is higher than that of drug X.
Drug X is less potent than drug Y.
None of the listed conclusions is correct.
First pass hepatic effect refers to:
Liver metabolism of drugs delivered via the portal vein.
Activation of drugs by hepatic enzymes.
Storage of drugs in the liver.
Biliary excretion of drugs.
Liver metabolism of drugs delivered via the hepatic artery.
First-order elimination process:
Is characterized by drug dose-dependent half-life of elimination (T1/2e).
Applies to a limited number of drugs in clinical practice.
Is not applicable to the rate of drug metabolism (biotransformation).
Proceeds at rates dependent on drug concentration.
Is characterized by all listed features.
Biotransformation (metabolism) of drugs usually results in products that are likely to:
Have wide tissue distribution.
Produce severe side effects.
Be inactive pharmacologically.
Interact with target receptors similar to the parent drug.
Be more effective than parent drug.
When drugs are administered orally:
Active transport is the main mechanism of drug absorption.
Tthe stomach is the major site of absorption.
Gastric emptying does not effects the rate of drug absorption.
The pharmacological response tend to be rapid.
Incomplete absorption is likely consequence.
Drug interaction with target receptor:
Depends on chemical structures of both the drug and the receptor.
Can lead sometimes to G protein activation.
Is likely to be followed by a specific cellular response.
Can be inhibited by selected antagonists.
Is characterized by all of the listed facts.
Drug administered rectally are:
Not subjected to first pass hepatic effect.
Characterized by predictable pattern of absorption.
In general no favored by the patients.
Likely to be complicated with severe vomiting.
Characterized by all of the listed facts.
Which of the following statements is true about drug binding to plasma proteins:
Binding is an irreversible process.
Bound drug is pharmacologically inactive.
Drug-protein complex is effectively excreted in urine.
Drugs are mainly bound to plasma globulin.
None of the listed statements.
Which of the following is the most frequent mechanism of drug transport across biological membranes?
Passive diffusion.
Active transport.
Filtration.
Carrier-mediated process.
All of the listed mechanism have comparable frequency.
Which of the following process is considered a pharmacokinetic process in pharmacology?
Drug transport across biological membranes.
Drug-receptor interaction.
Dose-response relationships.
Mechanism of drug action.
Toxicological response of drugs.
The elimination half-life (T1/2e) of the drug:
Is likely to reflect the duration of drug action.
Is correlated with the elimination rate constant (Ke) of drug.
Is useful for the estimation of dose interval (T).
Cannot be estimated for drugs eliminated via zero-order kinetics.
Is associated by all of the listed facts.
For drug with half-life elimination (T1/2e) of 250 minutes administered by I.V. Infusion the therapeutic plasma steady state concentration (Css) “95% of the theoretical value” is expected to be achieved at:
67 minutes.
20 hours.
12 hours.
2days.
One week.
If administration of ammonium chloride as a weak acid increases the urinary clearance of drug X. It is reasonable that this drug(X) is:
Weak acid.
Weak base.
Strong acid.
Strong base.
Neutral compound.
If 88% of a drug dose is eliminated, via first-order kinetics, in 120 hours then the half-life of elimination (T1/2e) is expected to be:
15 hours.
40 hours.
60 hours.
120 hours.
Greater than 120 hours.
A pharmacological response might be delayed, reduced, or blocked by all of the following, EXCEPT:
Drug that goes rapid distribution.
A drug that does not get its site of action.
Abnormal target receptor.
Lack of absorption at site of administration.
The drug that is not soluble in water.
Aspirin is a weak organic acid with a pKa of 3.5 what % of a given dose of aspirin will be unionized at stomach pH of 2.5?
1%
10%
50%
90%
99%
Drugs that are highly bound (greater than 90%) to plasma protein are likely to:
Be associated with large volume of distribution (Vd).
Have very short half-life off elimination (T1/2e).
Be associated with wide therapeutic index (TI).
Have short duration of action.
Be characterized by low renal clearance values.
Drugs associated with high efficacy are characterized by:
Small therapeutic dose.
High therapeutic dose.
Low therapeutic indices.
High bioavailability.
None of the listed characteristics.
Intravenous route of drug administration is associated with:
Absence of an absorption process.
High risk of systemic toxicity.
Rapid response.
Potential risks of topical and systemic infections.
All of the listed features.
Which of the following is the expected loading dose (Dl) of a drug having volume of distribution (Vd) value of 150 liter, if desired plasma concentration is
The therapeutic index (TI) of a drug reflects its:
Efficacy.
Duration of action.
Relative safety.
Onset of effect.
Potency.
Pharmacodynamics deals with all of the following processes EXCEPT:
Mechanism of drug action.
Drug interaction with its specific receptor.
Dose-response relationships.
Mmechanism of drug excretion.
Toxicological responses of drugs.
EXCEPT:
The dose interval (T).
The desired plasma steady state concentration (Css).
The absorption rate constant (Ka).
The drug Bioavailability (F).
Systemic clearance (CL).
All of the following are excitatory CNS neurotransmitters, EXCEPT:
Acetylcholine.
Norepinephrine.
Dopamine.
GABA.
Glutamate.
All of the following are therapeutic uses of the benzodiazepines, EXCEPT:
Anxiety disorders.
Skeletal muscle spasm.
Sleep disorders “insomnia”.
Preanesthetic medication.
Ethanol and barbiturate overdose.
EXCEPT:
Blockade of neurotransmitter synthesis.
Interference of with storage of neurotransmitters.
Stimulation of metabolism of neurotransmitters.
Stimulation of release of neurotransmitters.
Interaction with specific postsynaptic receptors.
Tramine contact is a common complication of treatment with:
Phenelizine.
Imipramine.
Proxetine.
Clozapine.
Aripiprazole.
The biological abnormality in the Pathophysiology of depression:
Dopamine and serotonin excess.
Norepinephrine and serotonin efficiency.
Dopamine deficiency.
Acetylcholine excess.
None of the listed.
Chloropromazine as an antipsychotic drug is characterized by its:
Dopamine-receptors blocking activity in the brain.
5-HT-receptors blocking activity in the brain.
Blockade of cholinergic transmission.
+adrenergic and histamine-1receptors blocking effects.
All of the listed statements are correct.
Imipramine as a tricyclic anti-depressant can produce the following adverse drug reactions EXCEPT:
Nocturnal enuresis.
Dry mouth.
Tachycardia.
Sedation.
Sexual dysfunction.
Which of the following is not a target for drugs affecting neurons:
Synthesis of a new neurotransmitters
Decrease neurotransmitters release
Decrease neurotransmitters re-uptake
Increase neurotransmitters release
Which of the following is true regarding cetuximab:
It is a monoclonal antibody that binds EGFR
It inhibits tumor growth through binding to EGF
It is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor of EGF
It is a monoclonal antibody that binds EGF
Which of the following is the most common side effect of erythromycin
Hepatotoxicity
GIT disturbance
Skin rash
Teeth discoloration
Which of the following is not an effect of angiotensin II
Decreases sympathetic activity
Causes general vasoconstriction
Enhances ADH release
Enhances aldosterone release
Which of the following routes of administration undergoes 3rst pass metabolism:
Rectal
IV
Intramuscular
Subcutaneous
Penicillin can cause all of the following except:
Hypersensitivity
Nephritis
Hepatotoxicity
Angioedema
Salt overload
Cephalosporines:
Can be given to a pregnant woman
Active against G- bacteria
Can be given IV only
Inhibit the protein synthesis
Which of the following is wrong about cyanide intoxication
Activated charcoal very effective in this situation
Sodium nitrite may be used
Which of the following is true about isopropyl alcohol intoxication
No antidote is required
Fomepeizole inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase
Which of the following describes cytotoxic anticancer drugs the best
They act through inhibiting DNA synthesis
Have less side effects in comparison to molecular targeted therapy
Affects highly proliferating cancer cells and not normal cells
Which of the following is wrong
Hemodialysis can be used for all kinds of intoxications
Urinary Alkalinization using phenolbarbital is useful to enhance the elimination
Which of the following is false:
Acyclovir is used to treat all kinds of herpetic infections.
Acyclovir can only be given orally
Which of the following drugs targets erythrocytic stage:
Artemicin
Chloroquine
MeAoquine
Quinine
All of the choices are correct
Which of the following is true about 5-FU
It is usually administered with leucovorin
M phase speci3c
Exerts its activity through guanine neucleotides
Active in cells active in producing aldehyde dehydrogenase
Which of the following matches is wrong,
Bimatoprost - used for narrow angle glaucoma.
Misoprostol - GI protection..
Alprostadil - Treatment congenital heart disease..
Lubiprostane - constapition
Epoprosteno l- treatment pulmonary hypertension
Which of the following combinations is true.
Atropine is a nonselective antimuscarinic agent
Bethanechol stimulates adrenaline release.
Physostigmine is a reversible receptor inhibitor
Which of the following is wrong regarding NSAIDs
They inhibit prostaglandine synthesis.
Inhibitleukotriene synthesis.
Decrease free radicals.
Interfere with Ca mediated intracellular events
Which of the following is true regarding chemotherapeutic agent.
It is more effective to combine a microbistatic with a microbicidal drug.
Drug mechanism of action and dosage determine its microbicidal potential
Which mechanism of action we use for prophylactic from
InAuenza A not for treatment :
Inhibition of uncoating of the virus
Inhibit the M channel
Inhibiting the activity of neuraminidase
Competes with deoxyguanosine triphosphate (dGTP)
All of the following actions of anti-helminthics except?
Block microtubules assembly
Neuromuscular junction blockage
Hyperpolarization
Decrease Ca entry
Methods for testing new drug combination:
Diagnostic trials
Screening trials
Quality of life
Genetic studies
All of the above
Which of the following isn’t the justi3cation of medical research?
It contributes to community health
It contributes to the medical progress
Discovering new ways of bene3ting the human health
Elevation of suffering
Increase the 3nance of the drug companies
Which is true about phase 2 in clinical trials:
80 people are monitored
Evaluate the bene3t risk ratio relationship and you have to compare it with other drugs or other combinations of drugs
Determine the mechanism of action, metabolism, side effects and the effectiveness
Monitor the effectiveness of the drug, is it effective or not, at the same time evaluate the safety
Which one of the following anti-fungal drugs can cause an increase in androgenic and estrogenic disturbances?
Amphotericin b
Ketoconazole
Nystatin
Terbina3ne
Which one of the following anti-fungal drugs can use for oral candidiasis
Amphotericin b
Ketoconazole
Nystatin
Terbinafine
Which drug of the following can cause nausea, tinnitus, vertigo and photosensitivity?
Chloroquine
MeAoquine
Quinine
Primaquine
The life saving measure in treatment of acetaminophen toxicity is:
Alkalinzation of urine
N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine
N-acetylcysteine administration
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