Pharm Practice Quiz 2

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Pharmaceutical Practice Quiz

Test your knowledge and skills in pharmacology with our engaging Pharm Practice Quiz 2! This quiz is designed to challenge your understanding of medication interactions, side effects, and therapeutic uses.

Whether you are a student or a practicing professional, you will benefit from this comprehensive review. Enhance your learning with:

  • Multiple-choice questions
  • In-depth explanations
  • A focus on practical applications in patient care

35 Questions9 MinutesCreated by LearningDoctor427
A patient is taking Methotrexate (Rheumatrex) and you are considering adding infliximab (Remicade) to their treatment regimen. What must you do first before starting this medication?
Measure PFTs
Obtain a HgA1c
Check their CBC for anemia
Assess for active illness/infection
Which of the following SSRIs is the least likely to cause sexual dysfunction?
Paroxetine (Paxil)
Citalopram (Celexa)
Sertraline (Zoloft)
Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Which of the following drugs does not have a side effect that would show acute changes on an EKG?
Halperidol (Haldol) IV
Ziprasidone (Geodon)
Celcoxib (Celebrex)
Citalopram (Celexa)
What can you give to offset the SE of antacids?
Take with water
Switch to PPI
Give mixed antacid like Maalox
Increase the dose
Which of the following drugs has a BBW for increased risk of neoplasia?
Methotrexate
Azathioprine
Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)
Cyclosporine
You started your 25 y/o female patient with history of depression on Fluoxetine (Prozac). After trying the medication for several weeks, the patient reports she feels as though the medication isn’t helping. You decide to stop Fluoxetine (Prozac) and try a new medication. What medication would you put your patient on next?
Excitalopram (Lexapro)
Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
Trazodone (Desyrel)
Imipramine (Tofranil)
A patient presents to you and is confused, hypomanic, restless, diaphoretic and has myoclonus. Meds: sertraline (Zoloft) and Trazodone (Desyrel). What can you give the patient in this emergency?
Flumazenil (Romazicon)
Cyproheptadine
Acetylcysteine
Activated charcoal
Your patient takes ondansetron (Zofran) for post-op n/v. They are also on ziprasidone (Geodon) for schizophrenia. What side effect are you concerned about with the use of both of these drugs together?
Excessive weight gain
Metabilic abnormalities
QTc prolongation
Toxic megacolon
What is a side effect of the first line treatment for osteoarthritis and how do you treat it?
Acetaminophen (Tylenol); replenish fluid losses
Indomethacin (Indocin); give N-acetylcysteine
Acetaminophen (Tylenol); give N-acetylcysteine and activated charcoal
Ibuprofen (Motrin); give activated charcoal
Which of the following second generation “Atypical” Neuroleptic medications has a BBW for seizures and myocarditis?
Chloropromazine (Thorazine)
Aripiprazole (Abilify)
Clozapine (Clozaril)
Quetiapine (Seroquel)
A patient with PMH of anxiety presents to the ED confused with altered level of consciousness. While trying to take his history, you realize the patient cannot remember anything past 8pm last night. He spent the night drinking EtOH with his friends at a college party. Before you are able to finish taking their history your patient starts to hypoventilate and goes into a respiratory depression. You immediately start planning for intubation. What drug was this patient most likely on?
Alprazolam (Xanax)
Buspirone (Buspar)
Buproprion (Wellbutrin)
Atomoxetine (Strattera)
Regarding the prior case, what drug could you give this patient to reverse the medication effects?
Atropine
Norepinephrine
N-Acetylcysteine
Flumazenil (Romazicon)
Which of the following drugs has a BBW for colitis?
Dicyclomine (Bentyl)
Alosetron (Lotronex)
Budesonide (Entocort)
Inflixumab (Remicade)
Your patient with PMH of depression is currently taking Zoloft. They’re morbidly obese and were just started on Lorcaserin (Belviq) by their bariatric PA. What condition must you monitor your patient for?
Steven’s Johnson Syndrome
Serotonin Syndrome
Bone marrow suppression
Ototoxicity
Which of the following is the only drug that can be used for both acute treatment of gout and prophylaxis?
Indomethacin (Indocin)
Colchicine
Corticosteroids
Allopurinol
A patient presents to you and is feverish, agitated, and confused. On PE, they are tachycardic and have muscle rigidity. There is increased CPK levels and leukocytosis. Which agent is likely responsible for this?
Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
Haloperidol (Haldol)
Aripiprazole (Abilify)
Ziprasidone (Geodon)
Your patient with Bipolar disorder is prescribed Lithium. Practicing patient centered care, you educate your patient on the side effects of this drug including what to expect if they start to develop Lithium toxicity. What two side effects (typically) always happen in lithium toxicity that you need to tell your patient about, so they know when to present to the ED for evaluation?
Rash and tremor
Weight gain and diarrhea
Tremor and diarrhea
Myoclonus and hypomania
Which of the following medications has a side effect of rectal seepage and soiling?
Naloxegol (Movantik)
Mineral oil
Dronabinol (Marinol)
Polycarbophil
Which of the following is not a diet restriction for a person taking Phenylzine (Nardil)?
Decaffeinated coffee
Cured or pickled meats
Beer
Aged chees
T/F: Antacids inhibit the conversion pepsinogen to pepsin and therefore are used to heal ulcers.
True
False
Which medication should be taken with food in order to enhance absorption?
Ziprasidone (Geodon)
Risperidone (Risperdal)
Lithium
Quetiapine (Seroquel)
A patient with osteoarthritis complains of vomiting, increased sweating, and tinnitus. You check his BMP and see that there are electrolyte imbalances. Which drug is the culprit?
Aspirin
Methotrexate(Rheumatrex)
Cyclosporine (Neoral, Sandimmune)
Leflunomide
Which of the following would be a good drug to use in a child who has ADHD and also has anxiety?
Adderall
Methylphenidate
Atomoxetine (Strattera)
Modafinil (Provigil)
A patient presents to you complaining of nausea and vomiting. PMH is significant for diabetic gastroparesis. Which antiemetic would be most helpful to give to the patient?
Prochlorperazine (Compazine)
Ondansetron (Zofran)
Aprepitant (Emend)
Metoclopramide (Reglan)
Which of the following medications should not be used with mineral oil due to risk of liver toxicity?
Magnesium citrate
PEG (miralax)
Bisacodyl (Dulcolax)
Docusate sodium (Colace)
Which of the following antiemetics is a dopamine antagonist?
Alosetron (Lotronex)
Promethazine (Phenergan)
Dronabinol (Marinol)
Aprepitant (Emend)
Which of the following medications has a MOA that blocks the reuptake of NE and dopamine in addition to inhibiting MAO?
Methylphenidate (Ritalin LA, Metadate CD, Concerta)
Mixed amphetamine salts (Adderall)
Atomoxetine (Strattera)
Halperidol (Haldol)
A patient presents to you with Steven Johnsons Syndrome. He just started his stimulant medication 3 weeks ago. What do you suspect he was started on?
Modafinil (Provigil)
Atomoxetine (Strattera)
Adderall
Methylphenidate
Which of the following is a chronic gout medication that can increase the risk of nephrolithiasis?
Febuxostat (Uloric)
Allopurinol
Probenecid
Colchicine
Which of the following is an antiperisaltic agent used in the treatment of diarrhea?
Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto Bismol)
Polycarbophil
Octreotide (Sandostatin)
Loperamide (Imodium)
Which class of antiemetics do not have a side effect of extra-pyramidal symptoms?
Butyrophenones
Benzamides
Cannabinoids
Serotonin (5-HT3) antagonists
Which of the following can be used if your patient has a sulfa allergy?
Celecoxib (Celebrex)
Probenecid
Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)
Methotrexate
Which medication used to treat constipation must be used cautiously in patients who have HTN?
Glycerin
Lactulose
Milk of Magnesia
Lubiprostone (Amitiza)
Which of the following medications is used to treat anticipatory nausea?
Lorazepam (Ativan)
Scopolamine (Transderm-Scop)
Meclizine (antivert)
Metoclopramide (Reglan)
Which of the following is true regarding prophylactic therapy in patients with gout?
All patients diagnosed with gout require prophylactic treatment
Prophylaxic treatment should be started along with treatment for an acute attack
Patients with mild to moderate attacks should be on phrophylactic therapy
Patients who experience frequent attacks (>2-3 attacks per year) should be on prophylactic treatment
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