Basic science Q 201 to Q 276 End x

201 A primary procedure for diagnosis of fecal parasites is a stained smear of feces. For some parasitic infections, however, other specimens may be more productive. G. Lamblia is best diagnosed by
A. Sigmoidoscopy and aspiration of mucosal lesions
B. Baermann technique
C. Dilution followed by egg count
D. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
E. Examination of a cellophane tape swab
202 histolytica infection is best diagnosed by
A. Sigmoidoscopy and aspiration of mucosal lesions
B. Baermann technique
C. Dilution followed by egg count
D. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
E. Examination of a cellophane tape swab
203 The best method for the detection of Strongyloides larvae is
A. Sigmoidoscopy and aspiration of mucosal lesions
B. Baermann technique
C. Dilution followed by egg count
D. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
E. Examination of a cellophane tape swab
204 Ascaris are best observed in human specimens by which one of the following?
A. Sigmoidoscopy and aspiration of mucosal lesions
B. Baermann technique
C. Dilution followed by egg count
D. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
E. Examination of a cellophane tape swab
205 A butcher, who is fond of eating raw hamburger, develops chorioretinitis; a Sabin-Feldman dye test is positive. This patient is most likely infected with
A. Trichinosis
B. Schistosomiasis
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Visceral larva migrans
E. Giardiasis
206 A fur trapper complains of sore muscles, has swollen eyes, and reports eating bear meat on a regular basis. He is at risk for
A. Trichinosis
B. Schistosomiasis
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Visceral larva migrans
E. Giardiasis
207 A student from Phnom Penh has had abdominal pain for 2 years; he is used to swim in Sekong/Stung Treng river. Which of the following should you be in your differential diagnosis?
A. Trichinosis
B. Schistosomiasis
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Visceral larva migrans
E. Giardiasis
208 A teenager who works in a dog kennel after school has had a skin rash, eosinophilia, and an enlarged liver and spleen for 2 years. The most likely cause of this infection is
A. Trichinosis
B. Schistosomiasis
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Visceral larva migrans
E. Giardiasis
209 Certain parasites are found most commonly in particular body contents. A helminth that is naturally transmitted by ingestion of pork, bear, or walrus meat could be detected in
A. Vaginal secretions
B. Duodenal contents
C. Blood
D. Biopsied muscle
E. Sputum
210 A tissue-dwelling trematode that may be found in feces can also be detected in
A. Vaginal secretions
B. Duodenal contents
C. Blood
D. Biopsied muscle
E. Sputum
211 A parasite resembling malaria that infects both animals and humans and is carried by the same tick that transmits B. burgdorferi (the bacterium that causes Lyme disease) would most likely be observed in
A. Vaginal secretions
B. Duodenal contents
C. Blood
D. Biopsied muscle
E. Sputum
212 Finding HBsAg positive and HBeAg positive reflects
A. Acute infection (incubation period)
B. Acute infection (acute phase)
C. Post infection (acute phase)
D. Immunization
E. HBV carrier state
213 Finding HBsAg positive, HBeAg positive, and IgM core antibody pos- itive reflects
A. Acute infection (incubation period)
B. Acute infection (acute phase)
C. Post infection (acute phase)
D. Immunization
E. HBV carrier state
214 Finding antibodies to HBsAg reflects
A. Acute infection (incubation period)
B. Acute infection (acute phase)
C. Post infection (acute phase)
D. Immunization
E. HBV carrier state
215 The association between low birth weight and maternal smoking during pregnancy can be studied by obtaining smoking histories from women at the time of the first prenatal visit and then subsequently assessing and assigning birth weight at delivery according to smoking histories. What type of study is this?
A. Clinical trial
B. Crosssectional
C. Prospective cohort
D. Casecontrol
E. Retrospective cohort
216 Which of the following measures is used frequently as a denominator to calculate the incidence rate of a disease?
A. Number of cases observed
B. Number of new cases observed
C. Number of asymptomatic cases
D. Personyears of observation
E. Persons lost to follow up
217 Among women aged 18 to 34 in a community, weight is normally distributed with a mean of 52 kg and a standard deviation of 7.5 kg. What percentage of women will have a weight over 59.5 kg?
A. 2%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 16%
E. 32%
218 In nine families surveyed, the numbers of children per family were 4, 6, 2, 2, 4, 3, 2, 1, and 7. The mean, median, and mode numbers of children per family are, respectively
A. 3.4, 2, 3
B. 3, 3.4, 2
C. 3, 3, 2
D. 2, 3.5, 3
E. 3.4, 3, 2
219 In the study of the cause of a disease, the essential difference between an experimental study and an observational study is that in the experimental investigation
A. The study is prospective
B. The study is retrospective
C. The study and control groups are of equal size
D. The study and control groups are selected on the basis of history of exposure to the suspected causal factor
E. The investigators determine who is and who is not exposed to the suspected causal factor
220 In a study of the cause of lung cancer, patients who had the dis ease were matched with controls by age, sex, place of residence, and social class. The frequency of cigarette smoking was then compared in the two groups. What type of study was this?
A. Prospective cohort
B. Retrospective cohort
C. Clinical trial
D. Casecontrol
E. Correlation
221 The incidence rate of lung cancer is 120/100,000 person years for smokers and 10/100,000 person years for nonsmokers. The prevalence of smoking is 20% in the community.What is the relative risk of developing lung cancer for smokers compared with nonsmokers?
A. 5
B. 12
C. 50
D. 100
E. 120
222 A research team wishes to investigate a possible association between smokeless tobacco and oral lesions among professional baseball players. At spring training camp, they ask each baseball player about current and past use of smokeless tobacco, cigarettes, and alcohol, and a dentist notes the type and extent of the lesions in the mouth. What type of study is this?
A. Case control
B. Cross sectional
C. Prospective cohort
D. Clinical trial
E. Retrospective cohort
223 You are preparing a report to present to the MoH on the declining rates of gonorrhea in your province in both men and women over the last 10 years. Which type of graph would best illustrate the data?
A. Bar chart
B. Histogram
C. Pie chart
D. Frequency polygon
E. Line graph
224 Select an appropriate measure of frequency that describes the number of deaths in the first 28 days of life per 1000 live births in 1 year.
A. Fetal mortality
B. Infant mortality
C. Perinatal mortality
D. Neonatal mortality
E. Post neonatal mortality
225 Select an appropriate measure of frequency that describes the number of deaths under the age of 1 year per 1000 live births in 1 year.
A. Fetal mortality
B. Infant mortality
C. Perinatal mortality
D. Neonatal mortality
E. Post neonatal mortality
226 Select an appropriate measure of frequency that describes the number of deaths between the ages of 28 days and 11 months per 1000 live births in 1 year.
A. Fetal mortality
B. Infant mortality
C. Perinatal mortality
D. Neonatal mortality
E. Post neonatal mortality
227 Comparison of the prevalence of hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) in medical and dental students. Select an appropriate statistical test to analyze the data that match above description
A. Chi-square analysis
B. Student t test
C. Paired t test
D. Analysis of variance
E. Linear regression
228 Death occurs in 10% of cases of meningococcal meningitis. Choose statement below that match rate above.
A. Secondary attack rate
B. Case fatality rate
C. Morbidity rate
D. Age adjusted mortality
E. Crude mortality
229 Approximately 9 people die each year in a country for every 1000 estimated to be alive.Choose statement below that match rate above.
A. Secondary attack rate
B. Case fatality rate
C. Morbidity rate
D. Age adjusted mortality
E. Crude mortality
230 Eighty percent of susceptible household contacts of a child with chicken pox develop this disease. Choose statement below that match rate above.
A. Secondary attack rate
B. Case fatality rate
C. Morbidity rate
D. Age adjusted mortality
E. Crude mortality
231 Children between the ages of 1 and 5 have an average of eight colds per year. Choose statement below that match rate above.
A. Secondary attack rate
B. Case fatality rate
C. Morbidity rate
D. Age adjusted mortality
E. Crude mortality
232 Each individual of the total group has an equal chance of being selected.Select the correct term that match above description of a sampling procedure.
A. Systematic sampling
B. Paired sampling
C. Simple random sampling
D. Stratified sampling
E. Cluster sampling
233 Households are selected at random, and every person in each household is included in the sample. Select the correct term that match above description of a sampling procedure.
A. Systematic sampling
B. Paired sampling
C. Simple random sampling
D. Stratified sampling
E. Cluster sampling
234 A new test for chlamydial infections of the cervix is introduced. Half of the women who are tested have a positive test. Compared with the gold standard of careful cultures, 45% of those with a positive test are infected with chlamydia, and 95% of those with a negative test are free of the infection. Match with the correct percentage with the epidemiologic terms, Sensitivity of the test.
A. 25%
B. 45%
C. 63%
D. 90%
E. 95%
235 A new test for chlamydial infections of the cervix is introduced. Half of the women who are tested have a positive test. Compared with the gold standard of careful cultures, 45% of those with a positive test are infected with chlamydia, and 95% of those with a negative test are free of the infection. Match with the correct percentage with the epidemiologic terms, Specificity of the test.
A. 25%
B. 45%
C. 63%
D. 90%
E. 95%
236 A new test for chlamydial infections of the cervix is introduced. Half of the women who are tested have a positive test. Compared with the gold standard of careful cultures, 45% of those with a positive test are infected with chlamydia, and 95% of those with a negative test are free of theinfection. Match with the correct percentage with the epidemiologic terms, Prevalence of chlamydial infection in that community. A new test for chlamydial infections of the cervix is introduced. Half of the women who are tested have a positive test. Compared with the gold standard of careful cultures, 45% of those with a positive test are infected with chlamydia, and 95% of those with a negative test are free of the infection. Match with the correct percentage with the epidemiologic terms, Predictive value of a positive test
A. 25%
B. 45%
C. 63%
D. 90%
E. 95%
237 A new test for chlamydial infections of the cervix is introduced. Half of the women who are tested have a positive test. Compared with the gold standard of careful cultures, 45% of those with a positive test are infected with chlamydia, and 95% of those with a negative test are free of the infection. Match with the correct percentage with the epidemiologic terms, Predictive value of a negative test
A. 25%
B. 45%
C. 63%
D. 90%
E. 95%
238 Choose the type of measurement scale for Birth Weight.
A. Dichotomous scale
B. Nominal scale
C. Ordinal scale
D. Interval scale
E. Ratio scale
239 Choose the type of measurement scale for Type of medical specialty.
A. Dichotomous scale
B. Nominal scale
C. Ordinal scale
D. Interval scale
E. Ratio scale
240 Choose the type of measurement scale for Year of birth.
A. Dichotomous scale
B. Nominal scale
C. Ordinal scale
D. Interval scale
E. Ratio scale
241 Which of the following vaccines is CONTRAINDICATED during pregnancy?
A. Hepatitis B vaccine
B. Varicella vaccine
C. Influenza vaccine
D. Tetanus toxoid
E. Rabies vaccine
242 A 32yearold farmer presents to the emergency room with a crushing injury of the index finger and thumb that occurred while he was working with machinery in his barn. Records show that he received three doses of Td in the past, and that his last dose was given when he was 25 years old. In addition to proper wound cleaning and management, which of the following is the most appropriate prevention intervention?
A. No additional prophylaxis
B. Administration of tetanus toxoid
C. Administration of tetanus immunoglobulin only
D. Administration of tetanus toxoid and immunoglobulin
E. Administration of tetanus and diphtheria toxoid
243 An 18yearold sexually active college student presents with complaints of lower abdominal pain and irregular bleeding for five days. She has no fever. She uses oral contraceptives as method of birth control. Upon examination, the cervix is friable; there is cervical motion tenderness and adnexal tenderness. The pregnancy test is negative.
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Herpes simplex virus type 2
E. Mycoplasma hominis
244 Which patient is most likely to become a chronic carrier following an acute episode of hepatitis B?
A. A newborn
B. A 20yearold female following vaginal sexual transmission
C. A 50yearold male following rectal sexual transmission with a partner positive for HBeAg
D. A 30yearold health care worker following a percutaneous injury
E. A 40yearold HIVinfected male with a CD4 cell count of 200
245 The medical evaluation of a 25yearold intravenous drug user reveals elevated liver enzymes and a positive antiHBsAg. The most likely cause of the abnormal liver profile is hepatitis
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
246 The time interval between entry of an infectious agent into a host and the onset of symptoms is called
A. The communicable period
B. The incubation period
C. The preinfectious period
D. The noncontagious period
E. The decubation period
247 Rabies, psittacosis, salmonellosis. Select the most common described mode of transmission with the above disease
A. Water or foodborne transmission
B. Zoonoses
C. Person to person direct contact transmission
D. Airborne transmission
E. Arthropodborne transmission
248 Measles, tuberculosis, influenza. Select the most common described mode of transmission with the above disease
A. Water or foodborne transmission
B. Zoonoses
C. Persontoperson direct contact transmission
D. Airborne transmission
E. Arthropodborne transmission
249 Select the most effective or principal means of control for Typhoid fever.
A. Rat control
B. Sanitation
C. Immunization
D. Vector control
E. Deer control
250 Select the most effective or principal means of control for Tetanus.
A. Rat control
B. Sanitation
C. Immunization
D. Vector control
E. Deer control
251 A 25yearold man presents with blurred vision, dysphagia, and dry mouth.Select the correct etiologic agent that match the descriptions above
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium tetani
C. Poliovirus
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
E. Haemophilus influenza B
252 A 4yearold girl presents with sore throat, fever, hoarseness, and drooling.Select the correct etiologic agent that match the descriptions above
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium tetani
C. Poliovirus
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
E. Haemophilus influenza B
253 Which of the following interventions is the most effective in the prevention and control of injuries?
A. Education
B. Economic incentives
C. Law enforcement
D. Engineering
E. Emergency response
254 A 52 year old woman presents to your office for her annual gynecological examination. She stopped menstruating about 6 months ago and is getting some hot flashes. Her history reveals that she drinks one glass of wine per day and smokes about 10 cigarettes per day. She does not exercise much and is overweight. Her most important risk factor for developing osteoporosis is
A. Smoking
B. Alcohol use
C. Lack of physical activity
D. Age
E. Obesity
255 Which of the following types of cancer is the most frequent cause of gynecologic cancer deaths?
A. Ovarian
B. Cervical
C. Endometrial
D. Vaginal
E. Vulvar
256 A 50 year old woman comes for her periodical health examination. Her body mass index is 29 kg/m2. Her blood pressure is 120/80. She has no family history of cardiovascular disease. Her total cholesterol is 200 mg/dL (5.2 mmol/L), her HDL is 35 mg/dL (0.9 mmol/L), and her LDL is 100mg/dL (2.6 mmol/L). This patient is at highest risk for developing which of the following conditions?
A. Stroke
B. Coronary artery disease
C. Noninsulin dependent diabetes
D. Pulmonary embolism
E. Hypertension
257 A 50 year old woman comes for her periodical health examination. Her body mass index is 29 kg/m2. Her blood pressure is 120/80. She has no family history of cardiovascular disease. Her total cholesterol is 200 mg/dL (5.2 mmol/L), her HDL is 35 mg/dL (0.9 mmol/L), and her LDL is 100 mg/dL (2.6 mmol/L). This patient’s weight increases the risk for which of the following cancers?
A. Breast, pancreas, and ovary
B. Endometrium, breast, and colon
C. Ovary, cervix, and colon
D. Cervix, ovary, and breast
E. Colon, endometrium, and ovary
258 A 50 year old woman comes for her periodical health examination. Her body mass index is 29 kg/m2. Her blood pressure is 120/80. She has no family history of cardiovascular disease. Her total cholesterol is 200 mg/dL (5.2 mmol/L), her HDL is 35 mg/dL (0.9 mmol/L), and her LDL is 100 mg/dL (2.6 mmol/L). The most appropriate initial intervention for weight loss is
A. Exercise
B. Surgery
C. Appetitesuppressive drugs
D. Diet with less than 25% of total calories from fat
E. Restriction to three meals per day
259 Which of the following is the most important risk factor for developing cervical cancer?
A. Coitarche before age 18
B. Herpes simplex virus infection
C. Multiple sexual partners
D. More than five years since the last Pap smear
E. Human papillomavirus type 16
260 35yearold woman presents to your office complaining of hair loss, bone pain, and dryness and fissures of the lips. She tells you that she has been taking large amount of vitamins in hopes of pre venting cancer and infections. Her symptoms are most likely caused by an excess of
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
E. Vitamin K
261 A 20yearold patient presents to the office for contraception counseling. Her history reveals no past medical problems. Her physical and pelvic examination is normal. She is sexually active with the same partner for 9 months. Which of the following contraceptive methods would be most appropriate?
A. Barrier method
B. Combined oral contraceptives
C. Pro-gestinonly contraceptives
D. Intrauterine device (IUD)
E. Barrier method and combined oral contraceptives
262 A 30yearold patient presents to your office for contraceptive counseling. She is divorced and has just started a new relationship. She wishes to use oral contraceptives because of their effectiveness. Her examination is normal. Which of the following factors would be considered a contraindication to their use?
A. Tobacco use
B. Vaginal bleeding
C. History of gestational hypertension
D. Polycystic breast disease
E. Migraines
263 The use of oral contracep tives will have the most impact on gynecological mortality by reduc ing the risk for which of the follow ing cancers?
A. Ovarian
B. Breast
C. Cervical
D. Vulvar
E. Endometrial
264 Environmental tobacco smoke (ETS) is a major public health issue, particularly for children. Which of the following conditions is most affected by ETS?
A. Low birth weight
B. Middle ear infection
C. Bronchitis or pneumonia
D. Asthma
E. Lung cancer
265 Which of the following groups of risk factors has been associated with endometrial cancer?
A. Hypertension, diabetes, and obesity
B. Family history, obesity, and null parity
C. Hypertension, oral contraceptives, and null parity
D. Family history, early pregnancy, and diabetes
E. Multiple pregnancies, obesity, and family history
266 Which of the following types of diets may reduce the risk of developing cancer?
A. Low fiber diet
B. High protein diet
C. High fat diet
D. Diet rich in vitamin C and βcarotene
E. Diet rich in vitamin E
267 A 52yearold patient with chronic cough and shortness of breath is diagnosed with chronic obstructive lung disease. Which of the following factors is the most important contributor to this finding?
A. Tobacco use
B. Deficiency of α antitrypsine
C. Asthma
D. Repeated childhood respiratory tract infections
E. Occupation
268 Which of the following public health interventions has been the most successful in preventing initiation of smoking or reducing the prevalence of smoking?
A. Media campaigns against smoking
B. Prohibiting the sale of tobacco to minors
C. Restrictions on indoor smoking
D. Lawsuits against the tobacco industry
E. Increases in cigarette prices through taxes
269 Public health efforts to pre vent injuries have been particularly successful in reducing deaths from
A. Firearms
B. Fire
C. Motor vehicle accidents
D. Falls
E. Hypothermia
270 Which of the following acts as a cofactor in duodenal ulcer?
A. Cigarette smoking
B. Alcohol use
C. NSAID use
D. Blood group O
E. Helicobacter pylori
271 A 68yearold man with controlled hypertension complains of gradual impairment of vision. His history further reveals that he was recently diagnosed with mild adult onset diabetes that is also well controlled. He is a retired fisherman. The most likely cause of his visual impairment is
A. Glaucoma
B. Cataract
C. Diabetic retinopathy
D. Macular degeneration
E. Xerophthalmia
272 Which of the following is the most cost-effective and safe public health measure today to prevent dental caries?
A. Water fluoridation
B. Proper nutrition
C. Regular dental visits
D. Promotion of regular flossing
E. Promotion of regular brushing
273 Dermatitis, diarrhea, and delirium. Select the dietary deficiency that match each set of symptoms and signs.
A. Vitamin A deficiency
B. Thiamine deficiency
C. Vitamin C deficiencyD. Vitamin
D deficiency
E. Niacin deficiency
274 Edema, neuropathy, and myocardial failure. Select the dietary deficiency that match each set of symptoms and signs.
A. Vitamin A deficiency
B. Thiamine deficiency
C. Vitamin C deficiency
D. Vitamin
D deficiency
E. Niacin deficiency
275 Treating a pregnant woman infected with syphilis.Select the most appropriate level of prevention that match with description above.
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Primary and tertiary prevention
E. Primary and secondary prevention
276 Using condoms during sexual intercourse.Select the most appropriate level of prevention that match with description above.
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Primary and tertiary prevention
E. Primary and secondary prevention
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