Microbiology Exam #2
Microbiology Exam: Gastroenteritis & Cholera
Test your knowledge on gastroenteritis and cholera with this comprehensive quiz. Covering symptoms, causes, and treatments, this quiz is designed for students and professionals alike who want to enhance their understanding of these critical topics in microbiology.
What you can explore:
- Key viral pathogens
- Cholera and its impact
- Symptoms and treatments
Gastroenteritis is ...
The inflammation of stomach and intestine
One of the most common diseases of humans
Estimated 300,000 cases on any day
The frequent cause of mortality in children in developing nations
True/False: In the US the majority of gastroenteritis diseases are probably viral
True
False
For viral gastroenteritis the incubation period is
5 to 7 days
5 to 12 days
15 to 48 hours
3 to 5 days
For viral gastroenteritis the duration of the disease is
5 to 7 days
5 to 12 days
15 to 48 hours
3 to 5 days
True/False: For viral gastroenteritis the primary therapy is oral re-hydration.
True
False
Rotavirus is known to be
Norovirus
Not seasonal, nor food-bound
Winter vomiting disease
Shiga toxin
Which virus is the most common cause of endemic severe diarrhea of infants and children
Viral gastroenteritis
Rotavirus
Adenovirus
Calicivirus
What is the duration of the rotavirus disease
5 to 7 days
5 to 12 days
15 to 48 hours
3 to 5 days
The rotavirus genomes has how many independent segments
12
11
10
9
Which virus produces the enterotoxin NSP4
Viral gastroeteritis
Rotavirus
Adenovirus
Calicivirus
Why was the vaccine Rotashield withdrawn from the market
Because it wasn't as effective as they thought
Not a lot of people got it
Increased risk of intestinal intussusception
It increased the number of deaths
What is the duration of the adenovirus
5 to 7 days
5 to 12 days
15 to 48 hours
3 to 5 days
Which virus is fastidious and difficult to grow in culture
Viral gastroenteritis
Rotavirus
Adenovirus
Calicivirus
Calicivirus is known to be
Norovirus
Not seasonal, nor food-bound
Winter vomiting disease
Shiga toxin
Calicivirus is associated with
Food
Animals
Humans
Plants
True/False: Noroviruses are not fecal-oral transmission.
True
False
What is the incubation period of cholera
1 to 5 days
3 to 5 days
5 to 7 days
7 to 10 days
True/False: Cholera is an acute disease due to Vibrio cholerae infection
True
False
Which disease is a frequent attendant of disasters
V. vulnificus
V. parahaemolyticus
Cholera
E. coli
True/False: The cholera disease manifestation ranges from mild to recovery
True
False
The main feature for cholera is
Watery diarrhea
Vomiting
Wound infections
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
The major pathogenic factor for cholera is
The enterotoxin, cholera toxin
Shiga toxin
Serogroup O-1
Serogroup 0-139
The cholera disease is usually spread through
Humans
Contaminated drinking water
Animals
Food
True/ False: Dukoral is a vaccine for cholera and contains cholera toxoid, which may help against travelers diarrhea cause by same toxin.
True
False
True/ False: Vibrio vulnificus is a mild cholera-like illness.
True
False
Which vibrio species is most invasive and lethal US pathogen of recent emersion
Vibrio cholerae
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Vibrio vulnificus
Vibrio mimicus
The most common cause of food-borne illness in Japan is
V. parahaemolyticus
V. cholerae
V. vulnificus
Acute self-limiting diarrhea associated with raw oyster consumption is associated with
V. parahaemolyticus
V. cholerae
V. vulnificus
Bullous lesions occur with
V. parahaemolyticus
V. cholerae
V. vulnificus
True/False: Different strains of e.coli are typically associated with different diseases
True
False
The serogroup for E. Coli is the
O antigen
H antigen
The serotype for E. Coli is the
O antigen
H antigen
The H antigen is the
Flagella
LPS
The O antigen is the
Flagella
LPS
Which E. Coli virotype is associated with travelers diarrhea and may be fatal in infants
Enterotoxigenic
Enteropathogenic
Enterohemorrhagic
Enteroinvasive
The primary treatment for rotavirus infection is
Antibiotics
Oral rehydration therapy
Bismuth salicylate
Rectal antivirals
How are noroviruses typically spread?
Blood borne
Fecal-to-oral
Skin-to-skin contact
Contaminated needles
A patient presents to your urgent care complaining of persistent diarrhea for the past 5 days. Fecal culture reveals no bacteria, but the patient is febrile. Which virus is the most likely cause of the infection?
Rotavirus
Adenovirus
Calcifivirus
Norovirus
Which gastrointestinal virus is typically acquired in close contact restaurants and cruise ships?
Rotavirus
Adenovirus
Calcifivirus
Norovirus
True/False: Infant patients receiving oral rotavirus vaccination have a 10% risk of intusseception.
True
False
This pathogen gains its virulence through a toxin that attacks chloride transporters in the colon:
Vibrios cholera
Vibrios vulnificus
Escherichia coli
Campylobacter jejuni
This E. Coli variant can lead to fatality due to hemolytic uremic syndrome from lysed bacterial cells when using antibiotic therapies:
ETEC
EAggEC
EHEC
EPEC
Prodromal headache, fever, and malaise typically onset 12-24 hours before diarrhea for:
Vibrios cholera
Vibrios vulificus
Escherichia coli
Campylobacter jejuni
How is H. Pylori treated?
Tetracycline and bismuth salicylate
Tetracycline
Tetracycline and macrolide
Macrolide
What are the virulence factors of H. pylori?
Endotoxin
CO2 and NH4+
Urease
LPO
Enterotoxigenic (ETEC) resembles which vibrio species
V. cholerae
V. parahaemolyticus
V. vulnificus
None of the above
When diarrhea that becomes bloody after 1-3 days with cramps which E. Coli virotype occurs
ETEC
EPEC
EHEC
EIEC
True/False: All STEC produce a protein synthesis-inhibiting toxin, known as Shiga toxin
True
False
True/False: You use antibiotics for EHEC treatment
True
False
True/False: Oral rehydration is one of EHEC's treatments.
True
False
True/False: You use antimobility agents in children and infants for EHEC treatment
True
False
In EHEC, one form predominates, which is it
O157: H8
0156:H7
O157:H7
O158:H8
O157:H7 reservoir is ..
Cattle
Dogs
Bats
Humans
Which pathogen is widely distributed in poultry products?
Vibrios cholerae
Vibrios vulnificus
E coli
Campylobacter jejuni
Which pathogen was formerly known as vibrio fetus
Vibrios cholerae
Vibrios vulnificus
E coli
Campylobacter jejuni
What is the incubation period for campylobacter jejuni
1 to 5 days
1 to 7 days
3 to 5 days
5 to 7 days
The reservoir is the intestinal tract of animals (birds especially) for which pathogen
Vibrios cholerae
Vibrios parahaemolyticus
Campylobacter jejuni
Escherichia coli
Which pathogen is the chief precipitant of Guillain-Barre syndrome?
Vibrios cholerae
Vibrios parahaemolyticus
Campylobacter jejuni
Escherichia coli
Chronic active gastritis and peptic ulceration are consequence of infection for
Escherichia coli
Campylobacter jejuni
Cholera
Helicobacter pylori
This microbe requires specialized culture methods and staining procedures, so it was overlooked until the 1980's
Escherichia coli
Campylobacter jejuni
Cholera
Helicobacter pylori
Helicobacter pylori's incubation period is
3 days
5 days
7 days
9 days
This agent is a gram negative rod, non-spore former, facultative anaerobe, nonmotile (usually) and nonlactose fermenting
Shigella
Campylobacter jejuni
Cholera
Helicobacter pylori
The incubation period for shigella is
24 hours
36 hours
48 hours
72 hours
This toxin is found in both shigella and E. Coli strains
STEC
EHEC
ETEC
EPEC
True/False: Shigella is a self-limiting disease
True
False
True/False: Animals are the sole reservoir for shigella
True
False
Shigella is
Fecal-oral trasmission
Person-to-person trasmission
Which two serological groups of Shigella are in the US
S. dysenteriae; s. flexneri
S. flexneri; s. boydii
S. boydii; s. sonne
S. flexneri; s. sonnei
Which serological shigella group is most severe
Group A - s. dysenteriae
Group B - s. flexneri
Group C - s. boydii
Group D - s. sonnei
Which organisms are ubiquitous?
Shigella
Salmonella
Cholera
E. coli
True/False: Normal gut flora of many birds and animals, infect humans during food preparations is salmonella
True
False
The incubation period for salmonella is
72 hours
12-48 hours
12-24 hours
36 hours
For salmonella the duration in a normal host is
1-2 days
2-3 days
3-4 days
5-7 days
This agent is a gram negative rod, nonspore-former, facultative anaerobe, motile, nonlactose fermenter.
Shigella
Salmonella
Cholera
E. coli
True/False: Salmonella reservoirs are often foods of animal origin
True
False
True/False: In contrast to shigella, salmonella is a high dose microbe
True
False
Which is the major cause of pseudomembranous colitis
Shigella
Salmonella
Clostridioides difficile
Campylobacter jejuni
This agent is gram positive, rod shaped, anaerobe, and spore former (subterminal)
Shigella
Salmonella
Clostridiodes difficile
Staphylococcal
True/False: Predisposing factor is disruption of abnormal gut flora in some patients for clostridiodes difficile
True
False
Which is cause by consumption of heat stable preformed toxin in foods
Salmonella
Staphylococcal
True/False: Staphylococcal food borne disease is second to salmonella as a cause of food borne disease
True
False
This is an acute emetic and diarrheal disease caused by ingestion of performed heat stable toxin
Shigella
Salmonella
Clostridium difficile
Staphylococcal
The incubation period for staphylococcal is
1 to 6 days
3 to 5 days
12 days
1 to 4 days
Humans are the source of bacteria, providing placement in food during preparation.
Shigella
Salmonella
Staphylococcal
Clostridium difficile
Enterotoxin A is associated with
Staphylococcal
E. coli
Salmonella
Clostridium difficile
This agents diagnosis is afebrile, high index of suspicion with short time between eating and symptoms eruption
Shigella
Clostridium difficile
Staphylococcal
Salmonella
This is a diarrhea illness of humans, companion animals, and livestock throughout the USA and world.
Giardiasis
Amobiasis
Balantidiasis
Cryptosporidiosis
Which giardiasis assemblages has broad host specificity?
Assemblage A
Assemblage B
Assemblage C
Assemblage D
Which giardiasis assemblages are in dogs?
A & b
C & d
E &f
All the above
Which giardiasis assemblage is for cats?
A
C
D
F
Giardiasis molecular diagnostic tools define how many genetic assemblages?
5
7
9
13
True/False: Genetic assemblages are determined by purifying and amplifying certain DNA segment.
True
False
Which giardia stage features a teardrop-shaped with a bilobed ventral adhesive disc, flagella and 2 nuclei.
Trophozoite
Cyst
Which giardia stage features a an oval shape, hyaline wall, and 4 nuclei when mature or fully developed.
Trophozoite
Cyst
The cyst in giardia is in the _____ stage
Infective stage
Pathogenic stage
The trophozoite in giardia is in the _____ stage
Infective stage
Pathogenic stage
True/False: During the giardia life cycle, the cysts are ingested and then excyst in the duodenum, releasing 4 trophozoites.
True
False
What is the usually incubation period for giardia
1 day
3 days
5 days
10 days
What is the likely infective dose of cysts for giardia
100 cysts
200 cysts
50 cysts
None of the above
True/False: Clinical manifestations of giardiasis are quite variable and range from acute to chronic diarrhea.
True
False
Giardia is usually linked to ____ transmission of cysts.
Fecal-oral transmission
Person-to-person transmission
Food borne transmission
Waterborne transmission
Which animal is implicated in zootonic transmission for giardia.
Alligator
Beaver
Bear
Deer
Which is the most common intestinal parasite pathogen diagnosed in USA?
Giardiasis
Amoebiasis
Cryptosporidiosis
Entamoeba histolytica
If a stool sample is negative for ova and protozoans but the lateral flow immunoassay is positive which pathogen is this?
Giardiasis
Amoebiasis
Cryptosporidiosis
Entamoeba histolytica
When considering the inconsistent shedding patter of giardia cysts in the stool, which laboratory test is superior for diagnosing giardiasis?
Went mount examination
Trichrome stained stool sample
Lateral flow immunoassay
Immunofluorescent assay
Which is a protozoan illness that results in colitis and liver abscess. And is a common disease throughout the world.
Giardiasis
Amoebiasis
Cryptoproidiosis
Parvum
The causative agent for amoebiasis is
Entamoeba hitolytica
Cryptosporidium hominis
V. vulnificus
Giardia lamblia
If a patient is experiencing upper quadrant pain, bloody diarrhea and low-grade fevers. The microbe most likely responsible is:
Giardiasis
Amoebiasis
Cryptosporidiosis
Cholera
Which protozoan is usually a self-limited diarrheal illness that mostly affects children but has the potential to be a serious disease in immunosuppressed people
Giardiasis
Amoebiasis
Cryptosporidiosis
Cholera
The most causative agent for cryptosprodiosis is
Cryptosporidium hominis (human source)
Cryptosporidium parvum (animal source)
Both
None of the above
This is a diarrheagenic protozoan disease that has a Latin American connection; the auto fluorescent oocyst is larger than the oocyst produced by cryptosporidium.
Giradiasis
Amoebiasis
Cryptosproidiosis
Cyclosproiasis
What is the causative agent for cyclosporiasis?
Entamoeba histolytica
Cyclospora cayetanensis
Giradia lamblia
Cryptosporidium hominis
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