VI pdf quiz part 3
Paramyxovirus and Rabies Quiz
Test your knowledge on paramyxoviruses and rabies with this comprehensive quiz! Covering clinical presentations, vaccine information, and epidemiology, this quiz is designed for students and professionals in the medical field. Challenge yourself and see how well you understand these important viral infections.
- 72 questions
- Multiple choice format
- Focused on clinical and epidemiological aspects
A 4-year-old boy develops an acute febrile illness. His pediatrician diagnoses mumps. The organ most commonly exhibiting signs of mumps is the
Lungs
Ovary
Parotid glands
Skin
Testes
The paramyxoviruses include the most important causes of respiratory infections in infants and young children. Which of the following is not characteristic of paramyxoviruses?
Genome is negative-sense RNA.
Envelope contains a glycoprotein with fusion activity
Paramyxoviruses do not undergo genetic reassortment.
Replication cycle occurs in cytoplasm of susceptible cells.
Genome is segmented.
Several paramyxoviruses can cause pneumonia in infants or children. For which of the following paramyxoviruses is there an effective vaccine available that would prevent pneumonia?
Parainfluenza virus type 1
Measles virus
Respiratory syncytial virus
Mumps virus
Metapneumovirus
A 27-year-old woman who is 2 months’ pregnant develops fever, malaise, and arthralgia. A fine maculopapular rash appears on her face, trunk, and extremities. Rubella is diagnosed, and there is concern that the fetus will be infected, resulting in the congenital rubella syndrome. Which of the following statements about this syndrome is correct?
The disease can be prevented by vaccination of school-age children with measles vaccine
Congenital abnormalities occur when a nonimmune pregnant woman is infected at any time during pregnancy
Deafness is a common defect associated with congenital rubella syndrome
Only rare strains of rubella virus are teratogenic
None of the above
Parainfluenza viruses are ubiquitous and cause respiratory illnesses in people of all ages. However, reinfections with parainfluenza viruses are common because
Many antigenic types of parainfluenza viruses exist, and exposure to new strains results in new infections.
Infections in the respiratory tract do not elicit a systemic immune response.
Limited virus replication occurs, which fails to stimulate antibody production
Secretory immunoglobulin A antibody in the nose is short lived, disappearing a few months after infection
A 20-month-old boy had an illness characterized by fever, irritability, conjunctivitis, and a brick-red rash initially on the face but spreading downward and outward. At age 9 years, the boy had a gradual onset of severe, generalized neurologic deterioration. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) was diagnosed. Which of the following statements about SSPE is correct?
Defective varicella-zoster virus is present in brain cells
High titers of measles antibody are found in cerebrospinal fluid
The incidence of the disease is rising since the introduction of MMR vaccine
Rapidly progressive deterioration of brain function occurs
The disease is a rare, late complication of rubella infection
Which of the following paramyxoviruses has an HN surface glycoprotein lacking hemagglutinin activity?
Measles virus
Mumps virus
Parainfluenza virus type 1
Respiratory syncytial virus
Rubella virus
A 3-year-old girl develops an acute respiratory virus infection that requires hospitalization. Ribavirin therapy is considered. Ribavirin is approved for treatment of which of the following situations?
Lower respiratory tract disease caused by respiratory syncytial virus in infants
Congenital rubella syndrome
Aseptic meningitis caused by mumps infection
Pneumonia caused by measles virus in adults
Encephalitis related to Nipah virus
All of the above
Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) assays are useful in diagnosis of paramyxovirus infections. Which of the following statements about RT-PCR is not accurate?
More sensitive assay than virus isolation
Can identify virus strains
More rapid assay than antigen detection
Can provide data about genetic variation for molecular epidemiology studies
More specific assay for parainfluenza viruses than serology
A 5-year-old child develops a low-grade fever, coryza, conjunctivitis, and Koplik spots. The physician can conclude that
The child has probably not been successfully vaccinated with the MMR vaccine
The child’s pregnant mother is at risk of becoming infected and her unborn child developing congenital abnormalities, including mental retardation
A rash will soon develop on the child’s face and will last only 2–3 days
Treatment of the child with the antiviral drug ribavirin should be initiated immediately to minimize the chance of development of acute encephalitis
Which one of the following statements concerning mumps is correct?
Because there is no vaccine against mumps, passive immunization is the only means of preventing the disease
Although the salivary glands are the most obvious sites of infection, the testes, ovaries, and pancreas can be involved as well
The diagnosis of mumps is made on clinical grounds because the virus cannot be grown in cell culture and serologic tests are inaccurate
Second episodes of mumps can occur because there are two serotypes of the virus, and protection is type specific
. Each of the following statements concerning measles vaccine is correct except
The vaccine contains live, attenuated virus
The vaccine should not be given at the same time as the mumps vaccine because the immune system cannot respond to two viral antigens given simultaneously
Virus in the vaccine contains only one serotype
The vaccine should not be given before 15 months of age because maternal antibodies can prevent an immune response
Each of the following statements concerning rubella is correct except
Congenital abnormalities occur primarily when a pregnant woman is infected during the first trimester
Women who say that they have never had rubella can, nevertheless, have neutralizing antibody in their serum
In a 6-year-old child, rubella is a mild, self-limited disease with few complications
Acyclovir is effective in the treatment of congenital rubella syndrome
Each of the following statements concerning rubella vaccine is correct except
The vaccine prevents reinfection, thereby limiting the spread of virulent virus
The immunogen in the vaccine is killed rubella virus
The vaccine induces antibodies that prevent dissemination of the virus by neutralizing it during the viremic stage
The incidence of both childhood rubella and congenital rubella syndrome has decreased significantly since the advent of the vaccine
Each of the following statements concerning mumps is correct except
Mumps virus is a paramyxovirus and hence has a singlestranded RNA genome
Meningitis is a recognized complication of mumps
Mumps orchitis in children before puberty often causes sterility
During mumps, the virus spreads through the bloodstream (viremia) to various internal organs
Each of the following statements concerning subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is correct except
Immunosuppression is a frequent predisposing factor
Aggregates of helical nucleocapsids are found in infected cells
High titers of measles antibody are found in cerebrospinal fluid
Slowly progressive deterioration of brain function occurs.
Which one of the following is the best evidence on which to base a decisive diagnosis of acute mumps disease?
A history of exposure to a child with mumps
A positive skin test result
A fourfold rise in antibody titer to mumps antigen
Orchitis in young adult man
Which of the following statements is more likely to be true of measles (rubeola) than German measles (rubella)?
Koplik spots are present
It causes birth defects
It causes only a mild illness
Human beings are the only natural host
Attenuated virus vaccine is available for prevention
Coronavirus infections in humans usually cause a common cold syndrome. However, a recent outbreak of SARS was characterized by pneumonia and progressive respiratory failure. The prevention or treatment of these diseases can be accomplished by
A subunit vaccine
A cold-adapted live-attenuated vaccine
The antiviral drug amantadine
Infection control measures, including isolation and wearing of protective gear
The antiviral drug acyclovir
The following are common characteristics of coronaviruses, except for one. Which is not correct?
Possess cross-reactive antigens with influenza viruses
Contain the largest genomes among RNA viruses
Can cause gastroenteritis
Are distributed worldwide
A 63-year-old woman develops fever, headache, malaise, myalgia, and cough. It is early in the winter respiratory virus season, and the patient’s physician does not know what viruses are present in the community. Which of the following viruses is not a cause of acute respiratory disease?
Influenza virus
Adenovirus
Respiratory syncytial virus
Coronavirus
Rotavirus
Rabies virus is rapidly destroyed by
Ultraviolet radiation
Heating at 56°C for 1 hour
Ether treatment
Trypsin treatment
All of the above
Prions are readily destroyed by
Ionizing radiation
Formaldehyde
Boiling
Proteases
None of the above
The presence in neurons of eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion bodies, called Negri bodies, is characteristic of which of the following central nervous system infections?
Borna disease
Rabies
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
New variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
Postvaccinal encephalitis
Which of the following statements about rabies vaccines for human use is true?
Contain live, attenuated rabies virus
Contain multiple antigenic types of rabies virus
Can treat clinical cases of rabies
Can be used for postexposure prophylaxis
They are associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome
A 22-year-old man is a resident of a small town near London. He likes to eat beefsteak. He develops a severe progressive neurologic disease characterized by psychiatric symptoms, cerebellar signs, and dementia. Probable bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) is diagnosed. New variant CreutzfeldtJakob disease in humans and BSE appear to be caused by the same agent. Which of the following statements is true of both diseases?
Immunosuppression of the host is a predisposing factor
It is an immune-mediated degenerative neurologic disorder
There is a long incubation period (months to years) from time of exposure to appearance of symptoms
The agent is recoverable only from the central nervous system of an infected host
The interferon response persists throughout the incubation period
There is a high-titer antibody response toward PrPSc protein of the agent
Rabies virus has a wide host range and the ability to infect all warm-blooded animals, including humans. Which statement about the epidemiology of human rabies is true?
Africa accounts for the majority of rabies fatalities
Dog bites cause most cases of human rabies in England
Domestic animals are the source of most human rabies in the United States
Human-to-human rabies transmission places medical personnel at serious risk
Bat rabies has caused most human rabies cases in the United States since the 1990s
Infectious scrapie agent can be detected in amyloid plaques in infected brains of sheep and hamsters. The genome of the infectious agent is characterized by which of the following nucleic acid types?
Negative-sense, single-stranded RNA
Small interfering RNA, smallest known infectious RNA
DNA copy of RNA genome, integrated in mitochondrial DNA
Single-stranded, circular DNA
No detectable nucleic acid
A 49-year-old man visited a neurologist after 2 days of increasing right arm pain and paresthesias. The neurologist diagnosed an atypical neuropathy. The symptoms increased and were accompanied by hand spasms and sweating on the right side of the face and trunk. The patient was admitted to the hospital the day after developing dysphagia, hypersalivation, agitation, and generalized muscle twitching. Vital signs and blood tests were normal, but within hours the patient became confused. The consulting neurologist suspected rabies. Rabies immune globulin, vaccine, and acyclovir were administered. The patient was placed on mechanical ventilation the following day. Renal failure developed, and the patient died 3 days later. Rabies test results were positive. The patient’s wife reported the patient had suffered no bites by dogs or wild animals. The most likely explanation for treatment failure is
The rabies test results were falsely positive and the patient did not have rabies.
Treatment was initiated after the onset of clinical symptoms of rabies.
The vaccine was directed against dog rabies and the patient was infected with bat rabies.
The rabies immune globulin should not have been administered as it interfered with the vaccine.
Interferons—and not the treatment regimen administered—are the treatment of choice once rabies symptoms develop.
Which of the following animals is most commonly reported rabid in the United States?
Squirrels
Raccoons
Rabbits
Swine
Rats
A runner reports an “unprovoked bite” from a neighborhood dog. The dog was captured by local animal control authorities, and it appears healthy. What is the appropriate action?
Confine and observe the dog for 10 days for signs suggestive of rabies
Begin postexposure prophylaxis of the bitten person
Immediately euthanize the dog
Because canine rabies has been eliminated in the United States, dog bites are no longer an indication for postexposure prophylaxis, and no further action is needed.
Test the dog for rabies antibody.
The slow virus disease that most clearly has immunosuppression as an important factor in its pathogenesis is
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
Scrapie
A 5-year-old boy in San Francisco reaches into a car to pet another family’s dog and is bitten on the finger. Six weeks after the bite, the child develops fever, headache, and a seizure. He becomes combative and hallucinates. What is the best diagnostic test to perform on the patient to rule in rabies as a cause of his illness?
Detection of serum antirabies antibody
Culture of cerebrospinal fluid for virus
Direct fluorescent antibody stain of a biopsy from the nape of the neck
Brain biopsy
Cerebrospinal fluid antirabies antibody
Each of the following statements concerning rabies and rabies virus is correct except
The virus has a lipoprotein envelope and single-stranded RNA as its genome
The virus has a single antigenic type (serotype).
In the United States, dogs are the most common reservoir
The incubation period is usually long (several weeks) rather than short (several days).
A 20-year-old man, who for many years had received daily injections of growth hormone prepared from human pituitary glands, develops ataxia, slurred speech, and dementia. At autopsy the brain shows widespread neuronal degeneration, a spongy appearance due to many vacuoles between the cells, no inflammation, and no evidence of virus particles. The most likely diagnosis is
Herpes encephalitis
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
Rabies
Viruses can cause cancer in animals and humans. A principle of viral carcinogenesis is that
Retroviruses cause most types of human cancer
Not all infections with a human cancer virus lead to tumor formation
Short latent periods elapse between time of virus infection and tumor appearance
Animal models seldom predict cellular mechanisms in human cancer
Host factors are insignificant in influencing the development of virus-induced human cancer
Cellular oncogenes represent activated genes involved in cancer. A second class of cancer genes is involved in cancer development only when both alleles of such a gene are inactivated. The second class of genes is called
Proto-oncogenes
T antigen genes
Tumor suppressor genes
Transduced genes
Silent genes
A 38-year-old woman is diagnosed with cervical cancer. This cancer is common worldwide and has a sexually transmitted viral etiology. The causative agent of human cervical cancer is
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis B virus
Human papillomaviruses, high-risk types
Polyomaviruses
Herpesviruses
Retroviruses encode an enzyme called reverse transcriptase. The function of the reverse transcriptase enzyme is
DNase activity
RNA-dependent DNA polymerase activity
DNA-dependent RNA polymerase activity
RNA-dependent RNA polymerase activity
Topoisomerase activity
Two months after a kidney transplant, a 47-year-old man developed nephropathy. Up to 5% of renal allograft recipients develop nephropathy. A viral cause of some of the nephropathy cases has been identified as
Polyomavirus BK
Human papillomavirus, all types
Human papillomavirus, low-risk types
Hepatitis C virus
Human cytomegalovirus
A virus that causes human cancer is also associated with a nervous system disorder called tropical spastic paraparesis. That virus is
Polyomavirus JC
Polyomavirus SV40
Herpes simplex virus
) Human T-lymphotropic virus
Human immunodeficiency virus
The polyomaviruses encode oncoproteins called T antigens. These viral gene products
Are not needed for virus replication
Interact with cellular tumor suppressor proteins
Function to integrate the viral provirus into the cellular chromosome
Mutate rapidly to allow the virus to escape immune clearance by the host
Are not able to transform cells in culture
Cancer viruses are classified in several virus families. Which of the following virus families contains a human cancer virus with an RNA genome?
Adenoviridae
Herpesviridae
Flaviviridae
Hepadnaviridae
Papillomaviridae
Laryngeal papillomas in children are generally caused by the same viruses that cause benign genital condylomas. These viruses are
Polyomavirus JC
Papillomaviruses, types 6 and 11
Epstein-Barr virus
Molluscum contagiosum virus
Papillomaviruses, types 16 and 18
Vaccines against the most common HPV types that cause genital infections were approved in 2006 and 2007. They are aimed for use in which of the following population(s)?
All adults, both men and women
All female adults
Women with precancerous cervical lesions
All adolescents and young adults, both boys and girls
Adolescent and young adult females
Which of the following best describes available HPV vaccines?
Live attenuated virus
Live recombinant virus
Noninfectious subunit
Toxoid
Many of the oncogenic retroviruses carry oncogenes closely related to normal cellular genes, called proto-oncogenes. Which one of the following statements concerning proto-oncogenes is incorrect?
Several proto-oncogenes have been found in mutant form in human cancers that lack evidence for viral etiology
Several viral oncogenes and their progenitor proto-oncogenes encode protein kinases specific for tyrosine
Proto-oncogenes are closely related to transposons found in bacteria
Some proto-oncogenes encode cellular growth factors and receptors for growth factors.
HIV-1 is classified as a member of the Lentivirus genus in the Retroviridae family. Lentiviruses
Contain a DNA genome
Cause tumors in mice
Infect cells of the immune system
Have related sequences endogenous in normal cells
Cause rapidly progressive neurologic disease
HIV-1 encodes an envelope glycoprotein, gp120. This protein
Binds to the viral coreceptor on the cell surface
Causes membrane fusion
Is highly conserved among different isolates
Fails to elicit neutralizing antibody
Induces chemokine production
HIV/AIDS has become a worldwide epidemic that continues to expand. The geographic area with the largest number of HIVinfected people after sub-Saharan Africa is
Central and South America and the Caribbean
China
North America
South/Southeast Asia
Eastern Europe and Central Asia
The typical course of an untreated HIV infection extends over 10 or more years. There is usually a long period (clinical latency) between the time of primary HIV infection and the development of AIDS. During this period of clinical latency
HIV is not detectable in the plasma
CD4 cell counts remain unchanged
Virus replicates at a very low rate
Virus is present in lymphoid organs
Neutralizing antibodies are not elicited
Viral coinfections occur in HIV-1-infected individuals and may contribute to morbidity and mortality. The most common coinfection in HIV-1-positive persons in the United States involves
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis D virus
HIV type 2
Human T-lymphotropic virus
Kaposi sarcoma herpesvirus
What are the most common symptoms of acute HIV infection?
Rash and sore throat
Fever and malaise
Diarrhea
Jaundice and hepatitis
Neuropsychiatric and behavioral changes
A 36-year-old nurse suffered a needlestick with blood from an HIV-positive patient. Six months later, the nurse’s serum was positive in an EIA test, gave equivocal results in a repeat EIA test, and was negative by Western blot. The nurse
Is probably infected with HIV
Is in the window between acute infection with HIV and seroconversion
Is probably not infected with HIV
May be infected with a drug-resistant strain of HIV
May be a long-term nonprogressor
A 41-year-old HIV-infected male who had refused antiretroviral therapy is diagnosed with Pneumocystis jiroveci infection. This patient
Is at elevated risk for lung cancer
Probably has a CD4 T-cell count below 200 cells/μL
Is not longer a candidate for HAART
Probably has declining levels of plasma viremia
Is unlikely to develop dementia at this stage
A 48-year-old HIV-positive man with a CD4 count of 40 complains of memory loss to his doctor. Four months later, he becomes paralyzed and dies. An autopsy reveals demyelination of many neurons in the brain, and electron microscopy shows clusters of nonenveloped viral particles in the neurons. The most likely cause of the disease is
Adenovirus type 12
Coxsackievirus B2
Parvovirus B19
Epstein-Barr virus
JC virus
Highly active antiretroviral combination therapy for HIV infection usually includes a protease inhibitor such as saquinavir. Such a protease inhibitor
Is effective against HIV-1 but not HIV-2
Seldom gives rise to resistant mutants of HIV
Inhibits a late step in virus replication
Degrades the CD4 receptor on cells
Interferes with virus interaction with coreceptor
In a person with HIV infection, potentially infectious fluids include all of the following except
Blood
Saliva visibly contaminated with blood
Urine not visibly contaminated with blood
Genital secretions
Amniotic fluid
Of the more than 1 million persons estimated to be living with HIV in the United States in 2011, how many are thought to be unaware of their infection?
About 5%
About 10%
About 20%
About 25%
About 30%
About 50%
Each of the following statements concerning HIV is correct except
Zidovudine (azidothymidine) inhibits the RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
The presence of circulating antibodies that neutralize HIV is evidence that an individual is protected against HIVinduced disease
The opportunistic infections seen in AIDS are primarily the result of a loss of cell-mediated immunity
Screening tests for antibodies and nucleic acid are useful to prevent transmission of HIV through transfused blood
Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) is less than ideal because
It does not eliminate latent HIV infection
Its cost is too great for 90% of AIDS sufferers
It often has severe side effects
Some HIV strains are resistant to it
All of the above
Each of the following statements concerning HIV is correct except
The CD4 protein on the T-cell surface is one of the receptors for the virus
There is appreciable antigenic diversity in the envelope glycoprotein of the virus
One of the viral genes codes for a protein that augments the activity of the viral transcriptional promoter
A major problem with testing for antibody to the virus is its cross-reactivity with human T-lymphotropic virus type 1.
A mother states that she has observed her 4-year-old son scratching his anal area frequently. The most likely cause of this condition is
Trichomonas vaginalis
Ascaris lumbricoides
Enterobius vermicularis
Necator americanus
Entamoeba histolytica
A sexually active 24-year-old woman complains of vaginal itching and vaginal discharge. To verify your tentative diagnosis of trichomoniasis, you should include which of the following in your workup?
Specific serologic test
Ova and parasite fecal smear
Wet mount of vaginal fluid
Enzyme-linked immunoassay (ELISA) test of serum
Stool culture
You are working in a rural medical clinic in China and a 3-yearold girl is brought in by her mother. The child appears emaciated and, upon testing, is found to have a hemoglobin level of 5 g/dL. Her feet and ankles are swollen, and there is an extensive rash on her feet, ankles, and knees. The most likely parasitic infection that causes the child’s condition is
Schistosomiasis
Cercarial dermatitis
Cyclosporiasis
Hookworm infection
Trichuriasis
Ascariasis
Pathologic effects of filariae in humans are caused by the adult worms in all but one species. In this case, the principal damage is caused by the microfilariae of
Brugia malayi
Mansonella ozzardi
Dracunculus medinensis
Wuchereria bancrofti
Onchocerca volvulus
An 18-year-old male complains of abdominal pain, bloating, frequent loose stools, and loss of energy. He returned a month ago from a 3-week hiking and camping trek to the Mount Everest Base Camp in Nepal. The trek involved only high-elevation hiking, since he flew in and out of the 12,000-ft starting point. Which of the following is an important consideration for the diagnosis?
Exposure to high-level UV radiation
The use of insect repellents while hiking
The source and purification of water
The presence of domestic animals en route
The degree of contact with villagers en route
Several Papua New Guinea villagers known to eat pork during celebrations were reported to be suffering from an outbreak of epileptiform seizures. One of the first things you should investigate is
The presence of Taenia solium in the pigs
The presence of Giardia cysts in the drinking water
The presence of Trypanosoma brucei gambiense in the villagers
The prevalence of schistosomiasis in the population
The prevalence of Ascaris infections in the population
A previously healthy 23-year-old woman recently returned from her vacation after visiting friends in Arizona. She complained of severe headaches, saw “flashing lights,” and had a purulent nasal discharge. She was admitted into the hospital with a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis and died 5 days later. Which of the following parasites should have been considered in the diagnosis? She had no prior history of travel outside of the United States
Plasmodium falciparum
Strongyloides stercoralis
Toxoplasma gondii
Entamoeba histolytica
Naegleria fowleri
A 37-year-old sheep farmer from Australia presents with upper right quadrant pain and appears slightly jaundiced. A stool exam was negative for ova and parasites but a CT scan of the liver reveals a large 14-cm cyst that appears to contain fluid. Which of the following parasites should be considered?
Toxoplasma gondii
Taenia solium
Taenia saginata
Clonorchis sinensis
Schistosoma mansoni
Echinococcus granulosus
Paragonimus westermani
Given a diagnosis of uncomplicated Plasmodium falciparum malaria for the patient in Question 15, which one of the following treatment regimens is appropriate where chloroquineresistance is known?
Oral artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)
Oral chloroquine
Intravenous chloroquine
Oral proguanil
Intravenous quinidine
A 52-year-old male, returning from a travel tour in India and Southeast Asia, was diagnosed with intestinal amebiasis and successfully treated with iodoquinol. A month later, he returned to the clinic complaining of the following conditions. Which of the conditions is most likely the result of systemic amebiasis (even though the intestinal infection appears to be cured)?
High periodic fever
Bloody urine
Tender, enlarged liver
Draining skin lesion
Enlarged painful spleen
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