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Quizzes > Health & Medicine > Human Anatomy & Medicine

Take the CMAA Test: Certified Medical Administrative Assistant Quiz

Ready to ace your CMAA certification exam? Try this free NHA practice test now!

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art illustration for CMAA knowledge quiz with medical administrative questions on a coral background

This free NHA CMAA practice test helps you prepare for the Certified Medical Administrative Assistant exam with realistic questions on scheduling, patient records, billing, and insurance. Use timed practice and instant feedback to spot gaps before test day, track your progress, and review more NHA questions as you build confidence.

What does CMAA stand for?
Certified Medical Assistant
Clinical Medical Administrative Associate
Certified Management Administrative Assistant
Certified Medical Administrative Assistant
CMAA is the acronym for Certified Medical Administrative Assistant, the credential offered by the National Healthcareer Association for medical admin professionals. This certification validates skills in scheduling, billing, and office procedures. It’s recognized nationwide as a benchmark of administrative competence.
Which federal law protects patient health information privacy?
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
Occupational Safety and Health Act
Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act
Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act
HIPAA establishes national standards to protect sensitive patient health information from being disclosed without patient consent or knowledge. It applies to covered entities like providers and health plans. Violations can result in civil and criminal penalties.
Which appointment scheduling system uses a block of time for all patients, then schedules within that block?
Matrix scheduling
Stream scheduling
Wave scheduling
Clustering
Wave scheduling books several patients at the top of the hour and sees them in the order of arrival, allowing flexibility for varying visit lengths. This method helps maximize provider utilization and accommodate variable appointment times. It’s best for practices with unpredictable patient flow.
What filing system arranges patient records alphabetically by last name, then first name?
Chronologic
Alphanumeric
Alphabetic
Numeric
Alphabetic filing orders records by patients’ surnames followed by their given names, facilitating quick retrieval. It’s the most common system in outpatient settings. Numeric systems are used for privacy and uniformity but require cross-reference indexes.
In the SOAP format of charting, what does the “O” represent?
Overview
Observation
Outcome
Objective
In SOAP notes, “Objective” refers to measurable, observable data like vital signs or lab results. It follows the “Subjective” section, which is patient-reported information. Objective findings help providers support or refute the assessment.
Which form is commonly used by providers to bill professional medical services?
HCFA-1450
CMS-1450
CMS-1500
UB-04
The CMS-1500 form is the standard claim form for billing physician and professional services to Medicare, Medicaid, and many commercial insurers. UB-04 (CMS-1450) is used for institutional billing. Accurate completion of CMS-1500 ensures timely reimbursement.
What does the abbreviation “BP” stand for in medical documentation?
Bronchial Pressure
Blood Profile
Biopsy
Blood Pressure
BP is the standard abbreviation for Blood Pressure, measuring systolic and diastolic pressures. Accurate BP documentation is critical for diagnosing hypertension or hypotension. It’s a vital sign recorded at nearly every patient visit.
When a primary care provider refers a patient to a specialist, what document is typically sent?
Referral
Assignment
Authorization
Notification
A referral is a document or electronic order from a primary care provider directing a patient to a specialist. It ensures the visit is covered by the patient’s insurance if required. The referral often includes clinical notes to guide the specialist.
Which abbreviation indicates “before meals”?
stat
ac
pc
hs
“ac” is the medical shorthand for ante cibum, Latin for before meals. It’s used in medication orders to indicate timing. Conversely, “pc” means after meals. Proper timing ensures medication efficacy and patient safety.
What is the correct salutation for a professional business letter in a medical office?
Hello John
To Whom It May Concern:
Dear Mr. Smith:
Mr. Smith,
“Dear Mr. Smith:” is the standard opening for a formal business letter, using a colon. It demonstrates professionalism and respect. “To Whom It May Concern:” is used if the recipient’s name is unknown but is less personal. Proper formatting follows business correspondence guidelines.
What does informed consent ensure in patient care?
Physician obtains sterilized instruments
Patient understands risks and agrees to treatment
Staff schedules the procedure
Insurance approves procedure
Informed consent means the patient has been educated on the procedure’s nature, benefits, risks, and alternatives and voluntarily agrees. It upholds patient autonomy and legal rights. Without it, performing procedures can be considered battery.
Which entity is directly responsible for HIPAA Privacy Rule compliance?
Pharmacy benefit manager
Covered entity
Office visitor
Patient
Covered entities under HIPAA include healthcare providers, health plans, and healthcare clearinghouses. They must implement administrative, physical, and technical safeguards for protected health information. Business associates also share responsibility via written agreements.
What does EMR stand for?
Electronic Medication Requisition
Electronic Medical Record
Emergency Medical Response
Enhanced Medical Report
An EMR is a digital version of a patient's paper chart within one practice. It contains medical and treatment history specific to that provider. EMRs improve legibility and accessibility but are often not shared outside the practice.
In a patient’s chart, where are laboratory test results typically found?
Billing information
Progress notes
Diagnostic reports section
Referral records
Laboratory and imaging results are stored in the diagnostic reports section for quick access and chronological tracking. Progress notes contain narrative from providers, not raw data. Proper organization ensures clinical staff find results efficiently.
What scheduling method groups similar appointments together?
Stream scheduling
Modified wave
Cluster scheduling
Wave scheduling
Cluster scheduling reserves blocks of time for specific types of appointments, like physicals or injections, improving efficiency. It reduces room and equipment turnover. It works well when appointment types are predictable.
A living will is an example of which of the following?
DNR order
Power of attorney
Advance directive
HIPAA release
A living will is a type of advance directive where patients outline wishes about end-of-life care. It guides providers when the patient can’t communicate. It differs from a durable power of attorney, which appoints someone to make decisions.
What does an Explanation of Benefits (EOB) indicate?
Details how a claim was processed
Referral authorization status
Patient’s hospital discharge summary
Physician’s clinical notes
An EOB outlines what portion of a claim the insurer paid, patient responsibility, and any adjustments. It helps providers verify payment accuracy and patients understand their bills. It is not a bill but a statement of claim processing.
Which code set is used for diagnosis coding in outpatient and physician offices?
ICD-10-CM
DRG
HCPCS Level II
CPT
ICD-10-CM is the International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, Clinical Modification used for diagnosis coding. CPT codes describe medical procedures and services. Accurate ICD-10-CM selection supports medical necessity and reimbursement.
What are Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes used for?
Reporting medical procedures and services
Assigning diagnosis
Hospital room charges
Laboratory test results
CPT codes, maintained by the AMA, standardize reporting of medical procedures and services for billing and statistical purposes. They ensure uniformity across providers and payers. Use of correct CPT codes is essential for proper reimbursement.
Which federal agency enforces workplace safety including bloodborne pathogen standards?
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
National Institutes of Health (NIH)
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
OSHA sets and enforces standards to protect workers from workplace hazards, including the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard. It requires exposure control plans and training. Medical offices must comply to ensure staff safety.
Which insurance model typically requires members to choose a primary care provider and obtain referrals for specialists?
Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)
Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)
Point of Service (POS)
Exclusive Provider Organization (EPO)
HMO plans usually mandate that members select a primary care provider and obtain referrals for specialist care to control costs. PPOs allow out-of-network services without referrals but at higher cost. POS plans blend features of HMO and PPO.
How does an Electronic Health Record (EHR) differ from an EMR?
EMRs contain billing data that EHRs do not
EHRs replace EMRs entirely
EMRs are only used for hospital inpatients
EHRs are designed to be shared across multiple healthcare organizations
EHRs are built to share information among authorized providers across different care settings. EMRs are digital versions of a single practice’s paper charts. The interoperability of EHRs improves care coordination.
Which of the following is considered Protected Health Information (PHI)?
Patient’s birthdate
Clinic’s street address
Staff meeting minutes
Office supply list
A patient’s birthdate is a direct identifier of PHI and is protected under HIPAA. PHI includes any health data linked to an individual’s identity. Clinic addresses alone, if not tied to a patient, are not PHI.
Under what circumstance can patient confidentiality be legally breached?
To prevent serious harm to the patient or others
For nonclinical social media posts
To share popular cases
When staff gossip
HIPAA permits disclosure of PHI without patient authorization to prevent serious threats to health or safety. All other disclosures generally require patient consent. Gossiping or social media sharing is unauthorized and illegal.
What does the 'chain of custody' process ensure for laboratory specimens?
Temperature control only
Patient transport time
Integrity and traceability of the specimen
Billing accuracy
Chain of custody documents each handler of a specimen, ensuring it’s not tampered with. It’s critical in forensic and legal contexts. Proper documentation maintains specimen validity and admissibility.
The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) requires medical offices to provide what?
Automatic wheelchair donations
Reasonable accommodations for disabled patients
Free services for disabled patients
Unrestricted parking
The ADA mandates that healthcare providers make reasonable modifications to policies, practices, and facilities for individuals with disabilities. This includes accessible exam tables and signage. It ensures equal access to care.
Who is considered a third-party payer?
The patient
The physician
A medical supplier
An insurance company
Third-party payers are entities like insurance companies or government programs that pay healthcare claims. They differ from first-party (patient) and second-party (provider). Proper claim submission to them is essential for revenue cycle.
What is the primary purpose of a medical necessity determination?
To schedule appointments
To obtain informed consent
To justify why services should be covered
To order laboratory tests
Medical necessity assesses whether a service is appropriate and supported by evidence-based standards. Insurers use it to approve or deny claims. Documentation must demonstrate necessity for reimbursement.
Which is an acceptable method for correcting an error in a paper medical record?
Erase the entry completely
Use whiteout to cover the mistake
Make a new chart
Draw a single line through the mistake, initial and date
Errors must be corrected by drawing a single line through the entry, then dating and initialing to maintain an audit trail. Whiteout or erasures are prohibited because they obscure original information. Proper corrections preserve record integrity.
At what age is a patient generally considered an adult for medical consent purposes?
21 years
18 years
16 years
13 years
In most states, the age of majority for consenting to medical treatment is 18 years. Minors usually require parental consent except in certain situations like emergency care or mature minor laws. Policies may vary by jurisdiction.
HIPAA Transaction Standards are used primarily for what process?
Patient intake
Paper chart filing
Medical necessity review
Electronic claim submission
HIPAA Transaction Standards define formats for electronic healthcare transactions, including claims, eligibility inquiries, and remittance advices. They promote uniformity and efficiency in administrative workflows. Compliance is required for covered entities.
What is a copayment (copay)?
A deductible waiver
A fixed amount a patient pays at the time of service
The total cost of treatment
The insurer’s payment only
A copayment is a set fee the patient pays out-of-pocket when receiving a service, as defined by the insurance plan. It’s separate from deductibles and coinsurance. Recording copays at check-in improves collections.
Which code set is updated annually by NCHS and CMS for diagnosis coding?
CPT
DRG
HCPCS
ICD-10-CM
ICD-10-CM is revised each October by the National Center for Health Statistics and CMS. These updates include new, revised, and deleted diagnosis codes for accurate reporting. Staying current prevents claim denials.
Under HIPAA, a business associate agreement (BAA) must be what type of document?
Oral understanding
Email only
Written contract
Implied consent
HIPAA requires a written BAA between covered entities and business associates outlining responsibilities for protecting PHI. Verbal agreements do not satisfy the requirement. A valid BAA reduces liability for both parties.
Which claim form is used for institutional billing of hospital services?
CMS-1450A
HCFA-1500
CMS-1500
UB-04
The UB-04 (also known as CMS-1450) is the standard claim form for billing institutional services like hospital inpatient and outpatient care. It differs from the CMS-1500, which is for professional services. Correct form usage ensures proper facility reimbursement.
What is the purpose of the National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI)?
Assign ICD-10 codes
Standardize medical necessity
Prevent improper coding leading to overpayments
Monitor facility staffing
The NCCI was established by CMS to reduce incorrect coding and prevent improper Medicare payments. It includes edits that identify code pairs that should not be billed together. Compliance with NCCI rules is mandatory.
Which office implement is tasked by OIG to detect and prevent fraud and abuse?
HIPAA Privacy Rule
Anti-Kickback Statute
OIG Work Plan
Stark Law
The OIG Work Plan outlines audits, evaluations, and investigations to address fraud, waste, and abuse in federal healthcare programs. It guides providers on areas of high risk. Regular review helps practices strengthen compliance.
When must an Advance Beneficiary Notice of Noncoverage (ABN) be issued?
After the service is rendered
For all lab tests
When a service may not be covered by Medicare
When the patient requests it
An ABN informs Medicare patients that a specific service might not be covered, allowing them to decide whether to proceed and accept financial responsibility. It must be given before service delivery. Failure to issue a valid ABN can result in denied payments.
How many years does CMS require Medicare providers to retain medical records?
10 years
3 years
7 years
5 years
Medicare requires providers to keep patient records for at least five years from the date of service. State laws may impose longer retention periods. Adequate record retention supports audits and continuity of care.
Which HIPAA rule was expanded by the HITECH Act Omnibus Rule?
Stark Law
Privacy and Security Rules
OSHA Bloodborne Pathogen Standard
FDA Medical Device Regulation
The HITECH Act Omnibus Rule strengthened HIPAA Privacy and Security Rules, increased penalties for breaches, and extended obligations to business associates. It improved patient rights to electronic copies of PHI. Compliance updates were required by 2013.
In denials management, what does RFI stand for?
Reason for Inquiry
Request for Information
Receipt for Invoice
Response for Insurance
A Request for Information (RFI) is sent by insurers when additional documentation is needed to process a claim. Responding promptly with correct information can overturn a denial. Tracking RFIs is a key component of revenue cycle management.
Which Meaningful Use requirement in EHR Stage 2 involves patient engagement?
Faxing referrals
Printing lab results
Providing a secure patient portal
Scanning paper charts
Stage 2 Meaningful Use requires providers to give patients secure online access to their health information via a portal. This encourages patient engagement and self-management. Meeting thresholds for portal usage is mandatory.
Payment posting occurs in which part of the revenue cycle?
Medical coding
Patient scheduling
Insurance eligibility
Accounts receivable
Payment posting is the process of entering insurer and patient payments into the accounts receivable ledger. It reconciles expected versus actual payments. Accurate posting is critical for cash flow and reporting.
What does charge capture refer to in a medical practice?
Capturing digital patient photos
Logging staff time
Securing credit card payments
Recording all services and supplies provided
Charge capture is documenting every billable service and supply delivered to patients. It ensures all revenue-generating activities are billed. Accurate capture reduces underbilling and revenue loss.
What is a CPT modifier used for?
To adjust insurance eligibility
To code diagnoses
To file referrals
To indicate a service was altered without changing its definition
Modifiers are two-digit codes appended to CPT codes to describe changes in service or circumstances. They provide additional detail necessary for accurate billing. Improper use can result in claim denials or audits.
Patient no-show follow-up calls primarily help improve what?
Referral volume
EMR installation
Appointment adherence and revenue
Medical coding accuracy
Following up on no-shows can reschedule appointments and reduce lost revenue. It also demonstrates patient-centered service and identifies barriers to attendance. Regular follow-ups improve clinic utilization rates.
What is the main goal of conducting a practice audit?
Update office décor
Remove old records
Train new staff
Ensure regulatory and billing compliance
Practice audits evaluate documentation, coding, billing, and compliance with regulations like HIPAA and CMS rules. They identify potential risks or errors and guide corrective actions. Regular audits protect against fines and revenue loss.
Which process involves tracking referral authorizations from insurers?
Denial management
Charge capture
Appointment matrix
Referral logs
Referral logs document authorization numbers, expiration dates, and insurer details for each referral. They prevent denied claims due to missing or invalid referrals. Logs support follow-up and accurate billing.
Which organization accredits and certifies healthcare organizations to improve quality and patient safety?
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
The Joint Commission
Food and Drug Administration
World Health Organization
The Joint Commission accredits hospitals and other healthcare providers, setting performance standards to ensure safe, high-quality care. Accreditation is recognized by CMS as a condition for Medicare participation. Their surveys drive continuous improvement.
What does the Health Care Quality Improvement Act (HCQIA) primarily address?
Hospital food safety
Insurance premium setting
Medical equipment regulation
Standards for peer review of medical practitioners
HCQIA provides federal immunity to participants in peer review actions if done in good faith, fostering quality improvement. It encourages professional self-regulation by protecting reviewers from lawsuits. It also mandates reporting to the National Practitioner Data Bank.
Which federal act requires the reporting of patient safety events to encourage systemic improvements?
HIPAA Omnibus Rule
Stark Law
Anti-Kickback Statute
Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act
The Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005 established a voluntary reporting system to collect data on patient safety events. It aims to enhance understanding and prevention of errors. Information is protected in Patient Safety Organizations.
What are ICD-10-CM General Equivalence Mappings used for?
Converting EMR formats
Linking CPT to HCPCS
Translating diagnostic terms
Mapping between ICD-9-CM and ICD-10-CM codes
General Equivalence Mappings (GEMs) are crosswalk files that help translate ICD-9-CM codes to ICD-10-CM codes and vice versa. They assist organizations in code conversion and data consistency during the transition. Complete mapping may require manual review for specificity.
In a complex claims denial appeal, what is often the first step?
File a lawsuit immediately
Review insurer's denial reason and gather supporting documentation
Collect patient copay
Discard the claim
Effective appeals begin by understanding the insurer’s stated reason for denial, then compiling clinical notes, EOBs, and policy references to refute the denial. A well-organized appeal letter is more likely to succeed. Escalation may involve peer-to-peer review.
HIPAA breach notifications must be sent to affected individuals within how many days?
120 days
30 days
90 days
60 days
HIPAA’s Breach Notification Rule requires covered entities to notify affected individuals no later than 60 days after discovery of a breach. They must also notify HHS and, in some cases, the media. Timely notification is critical for compliance.
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Study Outcomes

  1. Understand CMAA Test Structure -

    Identify the key domains covered on the cmaa test, including patient data management, scheduling, and billing protocols, to build a solid exam strategy.

  2. Apply Patient Data Management Principles -

    Use best practices for accurate data entry, record keeping, and confidentiality to ensure compliance with healthcare regulations during the certified medical administrative assistant test.

  3. Implement Effective Scheduling Techniques -

    Demonstrate proficiency in appointment setting, resource allocation, and patient flow optimization to master scheduling scenarios on the cmaa certification exam.

  4. Practice Billing and Coding Protocols -

    Execute correct medical billing, coding, and insurance claim processes to strengthen skills needed for the cmaa certification test's financial management section.

  5. Analyze NHA CMAA Practice Test Questions -

    Interpret and solve realistic nha cmaa practice test items to become familiar with question formats and improve problem-solving speed.

  6. Evaluate Exam Readiness and Time Management -

    Assess your performance through timed scoring quizzes and implement time-management strategies to confidently approach the certified medical administrative assistant exam day.

Cheat Sheet

  1. HIPAA Compliance Essentials -

    The CMAA certification exam demands thorough knowledge of HIPAA's privacy and security rules to protect patient information. Use the mnemonic "PRIVACY" - Protect, Restrict, Inform, Verify, Access, Consent, Yearly review - to recall key provisions effortlessly. Official guidance from HHS.gov and NHA materials offers realistic scenarios for your nha cmaa practice test.

  2. Medical Terminology Mastery -

    Familiarity with Greek and Latin prefixes and suffixes is crucial on the certified medical administrative assistant test. Break terms like "tachycardia" into tachy- (fast) and -cardia (heart) to speed comprehension on the cmaa test. Quiz yourself with online flashcards from reputable university medical centers to ensure accuracy.

  3. Appointment Scheduling Strategies -

    Efficient scheduling balances provider availability with patient needs, a key skill assessed on your cmaa certification test. Remember the "Wave, Stream, and Modified Wave" methods: batch booking, continuous flow, or a mix in timed intervals. Practice these models in a free NHA CMAA practice test environment to build real-world confidence.

  4. Billing and Coding Protocols -

    Accurate use of CPT and ICD-10 codes prevents claim denials in both practice and on the cmaa certification exam. Recall that codes starting with Z often relate to preventative care or encounters - an easy mnemonic is "Z for Zest (preventative zest)." Review official manuals from the AMA (CPT) and CDC (ICD-10) with example case studies.

  5. Patient Data Management -

    The cmaa test evaluates your ability to update and audit electronic health records according to industry standards. Use the RUV approach (Record, Update, Verify) as a simple framework for accurate data handling. The NHA's official study guide provides practice scenarios that mimic exam-style questions for thorough preparation.

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