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Quizzes > Health & Medicine

Free NHA Practice Test: Exam-Style Questions to Prep Smarter

Quick, free quiz to check your skills with NHA test questions. Instant results.

Editorial: Review CompletedCreated By: Steve PyunUpdated Aug 28, 2025
Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art illustration for NHA practice test quiz on a golden yellow background.

This free NHA practice test helps you check your exam readiness with realistic questions and clear explanations. For targeted practice, try the NHA phlebotomy practice test, sharpen clinical know-how with the NHA CCMA practice test, or review admin skills in the cmaa certification practice test.

What is the normal adult resting heart rate in beats per minute?
120-140 bpm
100-120 bpm
60-100 bpm
40-60 bpm
The normal adult resting heart rate ranges from 60 to 100 beats per minute in a healthy individual. Rates below or above this range may indicate bradycardia or tachycardia, respectively. Always compare with patient history and context for accuracy.
Which gauge needle is most appropriate for routine adult venipuncture?
16 gauge
21 gauge
25 gauge
27 gauge
A 21-gauge needle is commonly used for routine adult venipuncture because it balances patient comfort with efficient blood flow. Larger needles (lower gauge) can cause more discomfort, and smaller needles may hemolyze samples. Selection may vary based on patient veins.
What is the first step in the phlebotomy process?
Apply the tourniquet
Select the needle
Verify patient identity
Label the tube
Verifying patient identity is the critical first step in phlebotomy to ensure that all subsequent procedures and specimens are correctly matched to the patient. This prevents identification errors and enhances patient safety. Always use two identifiers per facility policy.
Which laboratory test measures average blood glucose over the previous three months?
Hemoglobin A1c
Fasting blood glucose
Random blood glucose
Oral glucose tolerance
Hemoglobin A1c reflects average blood glucose levels over the past two to three months by measuring glycation of hemoglobin. It is a key marker in diabetes management. It is not influenced by recent meals.
Which of the following is considered a standard precaution to prevent the transmission of bloodborne pathogens?
Wearing sterile gloves for all procedures
Using personal protective equipment as needed
Disinfecting hands only at the end of shift
Performing all procedures in a biosafety cabinet
Standard precautions require the use of personal protective equipment (PPE) such as gloves, masks, and gowns when exposure to blood or body fluids is anticipated. These measures protect healthcare workers and patients. PPE selection depends on the level of exposure risk.
In which position should a patient lie for an abdominal examination?
Prone with arms extended
Supine with knees slightly bent
Sitting upright
Trendelenburg
The supine position with knees slightly bent relaxes the abdominal muscles, allowing for easier palpation and assessment. It improves patient comfort and accuracy of findings. Other positions may hinder examination.
What color tube top contains EDTA anticoagulant for hematology tests?
Green
Light blue
Lavender
Red
Lavender-top tubes contain EDTA, which chelates calcium to prevent coagulation and preserves cellular morphology for hematology tests. This makes them ideal for complete blood counts. Correct tube selection is crucial for valid results.
What is the normal adult respiratory rate in breaths per minute?
12-20
6-12
28-36
20-28
A normal adult respiratory rate is between 12 and 20 breaths per minute. Rates outside this range may indicate respiratory distress or other disorders. Always correlate with clinical context.
What is the first patient identifier you should use when confirming identity for a blood draw?
Date of admission
Patient room number
Medical record number
Full name
Using the patient's full name, as it appears on the requisition, is the primary identifier in most facilities. It aligns with Joint Commission standards requiring at least two identifiers. Always verify with a second identifier if policy dictates.
Which prefix means 'heart'?
Cardi-
Gastro-
Derm-
Neuro-
The prefix 'cardi-' refers to the heart, as seen in terms like cardiology and myocardial. Correct recognition of medical prefixes aids in understanding terminology.
What does systolic blood pressure measure?
Pressure as heart contracts
Pressure in large arteries only
Pressure in veins
Pressure during heart relaxation
Systolic pressure is the peak pressure in the arteries when the heart contracts and ejects blood. It is the top number in a blood pressure reading. It reflects cardiac output and vascular resistance.
Which personal protective equipment is most important when there is a risk of splashing bodily fluids?
Hair net
Disposable cap
Shoe covers
Protective eyewear or face shield
Protective eyewear or a face shield is essential when there is a risk of splashes to the eyes or face from bodily fluids. This prevents mucous membrane exposure to pathogens. Gloves and gowns are also used but do not protect the eyes.
Which type of test uses reagent strips dipped into urine to detect substances?
Biochemistry panel
Microscopy
Culture
Dipstick urinalysis
Dipstick urinalysis uses reagent strips that change color when dipped into urine to detect substances like glucose, protein, and ketones. It is a CLIA-waived point-of-care test. Results guide further laboratory testing if needed.
How should a used needle be disposed of after venipuncture?
Placed uncapped into a sharps container
Recapped and thrown in regular trash
Stored in a desk drawer
Washed and reused
Used needles must be placed uncapped directly into a puncture-resistant sharps container to prevent needlestick injuries. Recapping needles is discouraged. Proper disposal follows OSHA standards.
What federal regulation protects patient health information privacy?
CLIA
HIPAA
OSHA
FERPA
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) sets national standards for the protection of individually identifiable health information. It applies to healthcare providers, plans, and clearinghouses. Violations can result in significant fines.
Why is capillary blood used for point-of-care glucose testing in diabetic patients?
It has fewer cells
It prevents hemolysis
It is less painful than venipuncture
It reflects arterial glucose levels more accurately
Capillary blood approximates arterial blood more closely, providing more accurate real-time glucose measurements. It is obtained with minimal invasiveness and rapid turnaround. Proper technique is crucial to avoid dilution by interstitial fluid.
What is the purpose of preparing a peripheral blood smear?
Quantify electrolytes
Detect occult blood
Measure blood gas levels
Visualize cellular morphology
A peripheral blood smear allows visualization of red and white blood cell morphology, platelets, and possible parasites. It assists in diagnosing conditions like anemia, leukemia, and infections. Proper smear technique ensures accurate interpretation.
Which lead view is most commonly monitored during a routine ECG?
Lead V6
Lead II
Lead I
Lead aVR
Lead II is often monitored because its view of the heart's electrical activity closely follows the atrial to ventricular conduction pathway. It provides clear P waves and is standard for rhythm interpretation. It's widely used for bedside monitoring.
How often should you change gloves when drawing multiple specimens from the same patient?
Between each specimen collection
You may keep the same gloves throughout
When they lose integrity or become contaminated
Only if contaminated
Gloves should be changed whenever they become contaminated, torn, or compromised to maintain infection control. It is not necessary to change gloves between tubes if no contamination has occurred, provided proper technique is used. Always follow facility policy.
Calculate the correct dose for a child weighing 20 kg if the order is 10 mg/kg of medication.
100 mg
2 mg
120 mg
200 mg
To calculate the dose, multiply the weight (20 kg) by 10 mg/kg, resulting in 200 mg. Weight-based dosing ensures therapeutic effect while minimizing toxicity. Always re-check calculations against reference guidelines.
Which of the following is a CLIA-waived point-of-care test?
Blood culture
Capillary blood glucose
Prothrombin time
Complete blood count
Capillary blood glucose testing is CLIA-waived because it is simple with minimal risk of erroneous results when performed correctly. CLIA-waived tests require less stringent regulatory oversight. Facilities can perform these tests with minimal training.
What is the primary difference between hematocrit and hemoglobin measurements?
Hematocrit measures packed cell volume; hemoglobin measures protein concentration
They are identical tests
Hematocrit measures cell count; hemoglobin measures viscosity
Hemoglobin measures plasma volume
Hematocrit is the percentage of blood volume composed of red blood cells, while hemoglobin measures the concentration of the oxygen-carrying protein within those cells. Both are key components of a CBC but yield different data. Interpretation guides anemia diagnosis.
How is body mass index (BMI) calculated?
Weight (kg) ÷ height (m²)
Weight (lb) ÷ height (in²)
Weight (kg) ÷ height (m)
Height (cm) ÷ weight (kg)
BMI is calculated by dividing weight in kilograms by the square of height in meters (kg/m²). It provides a standardized way to classify underweight, normal weight, overweight, and obesity. Always consider body composition context.
Which instrument is used to measure blood pressure manually?
Pulse oximeter
Sphygmomanometer
Stethoscope alone
Thermometer
A sphygmomanometer, used with a stethoscope, measures blood pressure manually by detecting Korotkoff sounds during cuff deflation. Accurate cuff size and proper technique are vital. Automatic cuffs use similar principles but digital sensors.
In what order should tubes be filled after a blood draw?
Red, light blue, lavender
Light blue, red, green, lavender
Lavender, green, light blue
Green, lavender, light blue
The correct order of draw starts with light blue (coagulation), followed by red (serum), then green (heparin), and finally lavender (EDTA) to prevent cross-contamination of additives. This order preserves specimen integrity. Facility policy may vary slightly.
Which antiseptic solution is preferred for routine blood culture collection?
Hydrogen peroxide
Povidone-iodine
70% isopropyl alcohol alone
Chlorhexidine gluconate
Chlorhexidine gluconate is preferred for blood culture site antisepsis due to its persistent antimicrobial activity and ability to reduce contamination rates. It outperforms alcohol or povidone-iodine alone. Always allow it to dry fully.
What should you do if a blood specimen appears hemolyzed?
Reject and redraw if clinically necessary
Proceed with testing
Centrifuge longer to clear
Note in comment and accept
Hemolysis can alter analyte concentrations and invalidate test results. Specimens that are grossly hemolyzed should be rejected and redrawn if the test is essential. Document the reason for rejection.
What is the primary function of a tourniquet during venipuncture?
Prevent patient movement
Sterilize the puncture site
Dilute the blood sample
Increase venous pressure for easier vein visualization
Applying a tourniquet increases hydrostatic pressure in the veins, making them more prominent and easier to palpate for needle insertion. It should be applied no longer than one minute to avoid hemoconcentration. Release as soon as blood flows.
A pulse oximeter reading of 89% indicates:
Hyperoxia
Mild hypoxia
Significant hypoxia
Normal oxygenation
Oxygen saturation below 90% generally indicates significant hypoxia and requires immediate clinical assessment. Normal SpO2 ranges from 95% to 100%. Values below 90% can compromise tissue oxygenation.
Which coding system is used for reporting outpatient and physician services?
HCPCS Level II
CPT
DRG
ICD-10-CM
Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes are used to report medical, surgical, and diagnostic services provided by physicians and other healthcare professionals in outpatient settings. ICD-10-CM codes are for diagnosis, and DRGs classify hospital inpatient stays.
What does OSHA require to be available for all hazardous chemicals in the workplace?
Handwashing stations
Fire extinguishers
Safety Data Sheets (SDS)
First aid kits
OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard mandates that Safety Data Sheets (SDS) for each hazardous chemical must be maintained and accessible to employees. SDSs provide detailed information on handling, storage, and emergency measures. They must be updated by manufacturers.
What is the key step in maintaining chain of custody for forensic drug testing?
Storing at room temperature
Continuous documentation of specimen handling
Labeling with patient name only
Mixing specimens from same donor
Maintaining chain of custody requires detailed documentation of every individual who handles the specimen, from collection through analysis, to ensure sample integrity and legal defensibility. Any break in the chain can invalidate results.
How do you calculate an intravenous infusion rate in mL/hr if the order is 500 mL over 4 hours?
125 mL/hr
150 mL/hr
100 mL/hr
50 mL/hr
To calculate the infusion rate: divide the total volume (500 mL) by the time (4 hr), yielding 125 mL/hr. However, careful re-calculation shows 500 ÷ 4 = 125, not 100. Ensure precise math.
In cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis, an elevated neutrophil count suggests:
Fungal infection
Viral meningitis
Multiple sclerosis
Bacterial meningitis
A predominance of neutrophils in CSF typically indicates bacterial meningitis. Viral meningitis often shows a lymphocytic pleocytosis. Early differentiation guides urgent treatment.
Which factor can cause cross-reactivity and false positives in immunoassay drug screens?
Use of confirmatory GC-MS
High specificity of antibodies
Structural similarity of substances
Pure sample preparation
Immunoassays may cross-react when a non-target substance has structural similarities to the target drug, leading to false positives. Confirmatory testing with GC-MS is required for definitive results. Awareness of cross-reactants is essential.
Which ECG artifact is caused by patient tremors?
Wandering baseline
Somatic tremor
Broken recording
60-cycle interference
Somatic tremor appears as irregular, fine spikes on the ECG trace due to patient muscle movement or tremors. To correct it, ask the patient to relax muscles and keep still. Proper electrode application also helps.
How is the International Normalized Ratio (INR) calculated for prothrombin time monitoring?
Control PT - Patient PT
(Patient PT ÷ Control PT) ^ ISI
Patient PT + ISI
Patient PT ÷ Control PT
INR is calculated by raising the ratio of patient PT to control PT to the power of the International Sensitivity Index (ISI) of the thromboplastin reagent. This standardizes results across labs. Correct INR is critical for warfarin therapy.
What is the maximum volume for an intradermal injection in adults?
0.5 mL
0.01 mL
1.0 mL
0.1 mL
Intradermal injections should not exceed 0.1 mL to ensure proper formation of a bleb and prevent tissue damage. They are used for tuberculin tests and allergy testing. Larger volumes will diffuse into subcutaneous tissue.
A positive Mantoux tuberculin skin test is indicated by an induration of at least 10 mm in which population?
General healthy adults with no risk factors
BCG-vaccinated only
HIV-positive individuals
Recent contacts of TB cases
An induration of ?10 mm is considered positive in recent contacts of TB cases, healthcare workers, and certain high-risk groups. For HIV-positive individuals, the cutoff is ?5 mm. Interpretation varies with risk factors.
What electrical event does the QRS complex represent on an ECG?
Atrial depolarization
Atrial repolarization
Ventricular depolarization
Ventricular repolarization
The QRS complex corresponds to ventricular depolarization, which triggers ventricular contraction. A normal duration is under 120 milliseconds. Changes in QRS morphology help diagnose conduction abnormalities.
Where is the V1 electrode placed for a 12-lead ECG?
Second intercostal space at right sternal border
Fifth intercostal space at midclavicular line
Sixth intercostal space at left anterior axillary line
Fourth intercostal space at left sternal border
The V1 electrode is placed in the fourth intercostal space at the right sternal border. Proper placement is essential for accurate ECG interpretation. Misplacement can mimic pathologic changes.
Which differential white blood cell type increase is most indicative of allergic response?
Neutrophils
Monocytes
Basophils
Eosinophils
Eosinophils increase in response to allergic reactions and parasitic infections. A higher eosinophil count on a differential can indicate atopic conditions. Other types rise in different contexts.
What is the proper technique to set a micropipette for a 200 µL volume?
Dial to 0020
Dial to 200
Dial to 002
Dial to 020
On a typical 200 µL micropipette, the reading '200' corresponds to 200 µL. Always check the pipette's range and calibration. Incorrect settings cause volume errors.
What causes hemoconcentration when a tourniquet is left on too long?
Increased white blood cell count
Excessive mixing of tube additives
Dilution of blood sample
Fluid shifts from tissues into vessels
Prolonged tourniquet application leads to fluid moving from the intravascular space into tissues, increasing concentration of cells and proteins in the blood. This can skew lab results. Always release tourniquet within one minute.
How do you preserve viral transport medium specimens for respiratory PCR testing?
Store at room temperature indefinitely
Expose to sunlight to inactivate contaminants
Freeze at - 20 °C immediately
Refrigerate at 2 - 8 °C and transport within 72 hours
Respiratory specimens in viral transport medium should be refrigerated at 2 - 8 °C and tested or shipped within 72 hours to maintain viral integrity. Longer storage requires freezing at - 70 °C. Incorrect storage can degrade nucleic acids.
What temperature should glucose samples be stored at before analysis to prevent glycolysis?
4 °C (refrigerated)
- 20 °C
37 °C
Room temperature
Refrigeration at 4 °C slows glycolytic enzymes in blood cells, preserving glucose levels until analysis. Room temperature storage can result in false low readings. For longer storage, plasma should be separated and frozen.
What test principle underlies ABO compatibility testing for blood transfusion?
Spectrophotometry
Molecular sequencing
Agglutination reaction between antigens and antibodies
Enzymatic activity assay
ABO compatibility testing relies on agglutination when red cell antigens bind to corresponding antibodies. Visible clumping indicates incompatibility. It is a critical safety step before transfusion.
Which coagulation test measures the intrinsic and common pathways?
Prothrombin time (PT)
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Bleeding time
Fibrinogen assay
The aPTT test evaluates the intrinsic and common coagulation pathways and is used to monitor heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic and common pathways. Accurate sample collection and processing are essential.
Using the Holliday-Segar method, what is the maintenance fluid rate for a 10 kg child in mL/hr?
80 mL/hr
20 mL/hr
60 mL/hr
40 mL/hr
The Holliday-Segar method prescribes 100 mL/kg for the first 10 kg over 24 hr, equating to 1000 mL/24 hr or about 42 mL/hr. Many protocols round to 20 mL/hr for simplicity. Accurate maintenance calculations are crucial in pediatrics.
A physician orders 0.5 mg of drug X. The vial is labeled 2 mg/mL. How many mL should you administer?
0.5 mL
2.0 mL
1.0 mL
0.25 mL
To find the volume: desired dose (0.5 mg) divided by concentration (2 mg/mL) equals 0.25 mL. Precision in small-volume injections prevents dosing errors. Always double-check math.
Interpret an arterial blood gas with pH 7.29, PaCO2 55 mmHg, HCO3 - 24 mEq/L.
Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
A low pH (acidemia) with elevated PaCO2 and near-normal bicarbonate indicates acute respiratory acidosis due to hypoventilation. Compensation has not yet occurred. Timely intervention to improve ventilation is needed.
Which molecular method detects specific DNA sequences for infectious agents?
Flow cytometry
PCR
ELISA
Western blot
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies target DNA sequences, enabling detection of minute quantities of infectious agents with high sensitivity and specificity. It is widely used in molecular diagnostics. Proper primer design is essential.
A dilution of 1:10 is prepared. How much of the original sample is in the final volume of 100 mL?
5 mL
1 mL
90 mL
10 mL
A 1:10 dilution means 1 part sample plus 9 parts diluent, so in a 100 mL total volume, 10 mL is the original sample. Accurate dilutions are critical for quantitative assays.
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Study Outcomes

  1. Understand NHA Practice Test Structure -

    Gain familiarity with the format and question types on the NHA practice test to navigate the real certification exam confidently.

  2. Apply Test-Taking Strategies -

    Learn effective techniques for approaching multiple-choice questions under timed conditions to boost your performance on the exam.

  3. Analyze Detailed Explanations -

    Review answer rationales for each sample question to uncover common pitfalls and reinforce key medical billing and coding concepts.

  4. Identify Performance Gaps -

    Pinpoint specific content areas where you need improvement, helping you focus your study efforts efficiently.

  5. Boost Certification Confidence -

    Engage with realistic practice questions in a low-stress environment to build self-assurance and reduce test-day anxiety.

Cheat Sheet

  1. ICD-10-CM Coding Guidelines -

    Familiarize yourself with the official ICD-10-CM conventions from the CDC and CMS, including the use of placeholders (X) and valid code structure (3 - 7 characters). Remember that "Excludes1" codes cannot be reported together and "Excludes2" codes may be reported together when both conditions coexist. For example, S72.001A (fracture of unspecified femur, initial encounter) requires the "A" extension to denote initial treatment as per CMS instructions.

  2. CPT & HCPCS Coding Principles -

    Master the five sections of CPT (Evaluation & Management, Anesthesia, Surgery, Radiology, Pathology & Laboratory, Medicine) and HCPCS Level II codes for durable medical equipment. Use the mnemonic "ESSRMP" (E/M, Surgery, Supplies, Radiology, Medicine, Pathology) to recall sections quickly. Always cross-check modifiers (e.g., ‑25, ‑59) against AMA guidelines to ensure accurate reimbursement.

  3. Medical Terminology Mastery -

    Break down terms into prefixes, roots, and suffixes to decode complex words: e.g., "cardi/o" (heart) + "-itis" (inflammation) = carditis. Practice with flashcards or apps from AHIMA to reinforce 100+ high-frequency terms. Use the OPQRST mnemonic (Onset, Provocation, Quality, Region, Severity, Time) to remember key symptom assessment steps.

  4. HIPAA & Compliance Essentials -

    Understand privacy, security, and breach notification rules from HHS to protect patient data. Apply the "Minimum Necessary" rule and use the SPA mnemonic (Security, Privacy, Accountability) when auditing workflows. Regularly review office policies and conduct mock audits to stay exam-ready and compliant.

  5. Billing Cycle & Claims Management -

    Memorize the five steps: Patient Registration, Charge Capture, Claims Submission, Adjudication, and Payment Posting (PRC-A-P). Track key metrics like days in A/R and denial rate to troubleshoot issues quickly. Boost your confidence by practicing with free nha practice test questions that simulate claim edits and real-world scenarios.

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