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Quizzes > Health & Medicine > Human Anatomy & Medicine

Ready to Ace Your AST Practice Test?

Tackle our free AST practice exam: 250 questions to conquer your AST exam

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art illustration for AST practice test quiz on teal background

This AST practice test helps you prepare for the exam with 250 free questions on basic science, perioperative care, and intraoperative management. Work through realistic scenarios in airway management, aseptic technique, and pharmacology to spot gaps before test day; you can also review a CST practice set and more anesthesia technician questions.

What is the normal range for adult arterial blood pH?
7.0 - 7.2
6.8 - 7.0
7.35 - 7.45
7.5 - 7.6
The normal arterial blood pH reflects tight regulation between respiratory and metabolic systems. A pH between 7.35 and 7.45 is considered physiologic norm for adults. Deviations indicate acidosis or alkalosis and require clinical evaluation.
Which vitamin is essential for hepatic synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X?
Vitamin A
Vitamin D
Vitamin E
Vitamin K
Vitamin K serves as a cofactor for gamma-glutamyl carboxylase, which activates clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver. Deficiency leads to bleeding diatheses. Monitoring prothrombin time can help detect this deficiency.
What is the primary rationale behind preoperative fasting guidelines?
To reduce postoperative pain
To decrease surgical site infections
To lower risk of pulmonary aspiration
To improve wound healing
Preoperative fasting is intended to minimize gastric volume and acidity, thereby reducing the likelihood of aspiration pneumonitis during anesthesia induction. Adherence to fasting guidelines improves patient safety. Fasting times vary for solids and clear liquids.
The ASA Physical Status Classification system is primarily used to assess what aspect of a patient?
Postoperative pain control needs
Risk of surgical site infection
Intraoperative anesthetic dosage
Preoperative systemic health
The American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) classification describes a patient's overall preoperative health status, ranging from healthy (ASA I) to moribund (ASA V). It helps predict perioperative risks and guides anesthetic planning. The system does not directly indicate surgical complexity.
Which electrolyte is predominantly found within the intracellular fluid compartment?
Potassium
Calcium
Sodium
Chloride
Potassium is the major intracellular cation and plays a critical role in membrane potential and cellular function. Sodium is primarily extracellular. Abnormal potassium levels significantly impact cardiac and neuromuscular activity.
Which intravenous catheter gauge is most commonly used for adult surgical patients requiring blood transfusion?
24 gauge
14 gauge
22 gauge
18 gauge
An 18-gauge intravenous catheter is commonly used in adult surgical patients because it allows adequate flow rates for blood transfusion and fluid administration. Larger gauge numbers (e.g., 22G) restrict flow, while smaller numbers (e.g., 14G) are reserved for rapid resuscitation. Proper catheter size reduces transfusion time and complications.
Succinylcholine is classified as which type of neuromuscular blocking agent?
Competitive inhibitor
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
Non-depolarizing agent
Depolarizing agent
Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker that mimics acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, causing sustained depolarization and muscle relaxation. It has a rapid onset and short duration, making it useful for rapid sequence intubation. Side effects include hyperkalemia and malignant hyperthermia risk.
Maintaining intraoperative normothermia reduces the risk of which postoperative complication?
Deep vein thrombosis
Surgical site infection
Pulmonary embolism
Anastomotic leak
Intraoperative hypothermia impairs immune function and wound healing, increasing the risk of surgical site infections. Normothermia helps maintain normal coagulation and metabolic processes. Active warming techniques are recommended to prevent hypothermia in surgical patients.
On capnography, the plateau phase (Phase III) primarily represents the exhalation of which gas?
Oxygen
Alveolar carbon dioxide
Nitrogen
Argon
Phase III of the capnography waveform, the alveolar plateau, reflects the exhalation of carbon dioxide from alveolar gas. Accurate interpretation of this phase helps assess ventilation and perfusion status. Deviations may indicate respiratory or cardiovascular issues.
Which blood component is primarily transfused to improve oxygen-carrying capacity in acute hemorrhage?
Platelets
Packed red blood cells
Fresh frozen plasma
Cryoprecipitate
Packed red blood cells are transfused to increase hemoglobin concentration and improve oxygen delivery during acute blood loss. Other components address coagulation or platelet deficiencies. Transfusion decisions depend on hemodynamics and hemoglobin levels.
The Mallampati classification is used to assess which aspect of airway management?
Likelihood of laryngospasm
Mask seal adequacy
Ease of bag-mask ventilation
Visibility of oropharyngeal structures
The Mallampati classification evaluates the visibility of the soft palate, uvula, and tonsillar pillars when the tongue is protruded, predicting the difficulty of intubation. A higher Mallampati score correlates with more challenging airway management. It is a quick bedside assessment tool.
What is the primary responsibility of a surgical technologist in the operating room?
Making the surgical incision
Administering anesthesia
Maintaining the sterile field and passing instruments
Monitoring vital signs
Surgical technologists maintain the sterile field, prepare instruments and supplies, and assist surgeons by passing instruments during procedures. They ensure that surgical asepsis is upheld throughout the operation. They do not perform anesthesia tasks.
Which gas is most commonly used for insufflation during laparoscopic surgery?
Nitrogen
Oxygen
Carbon dioxide
Helium
Carbon dioxide is used for laparoscopic insufflation because it is non-flammable, highly soluble in blood, and easily eliminated via respiration. It reduces the risk of gas embolism compared to other gases. Insufflation pressures are carefully monitored to avoid complications.
What is the average normal core body temperature in adults?
35°C
39°C
37°C
41°C
The average normal core body temperature in adults is approximately 37°C (98.6°F). Small variations occur due to circadian rhythm and measurement site. Persistent deviations may indicate pathology.
The blink reflex to corneal stimulation primarily assesses which cranial nerve function?
Abducens nerve
Facial nerve
Oculomotor nerve
Trigeminal nerve
The blink reflex involves afferent input via the trigeminal nerve (V) but efferent response through the facial nerve (VII) to produce eyelid closure. Clinically, corneal reflex testing assesses the facial nerve's motor function. Absence indicates possible nerve damage.
Which device is commonly used to measure surgical blood loss intraoperatively?
ECG monitor
Spectrometer
Suction canister volume measurement
Capnograph
Estimating blood loss during surgery often involves measuring the volume collected in suction canisters and weighing sponges (gravimetric method). Suction canister measurement provides a quickly obtainable gross estimate of intraoperative blood loss. Combining methods enhances accuracy.
In the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, pH is related to bicarbonate and which other component?
Carbon dioxide tension
Chloride concentration
Oxygen tension
Sodium concentration
The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation (pH = pKa + log([HCO3-]/(0.03 × PaCO2))) relates blood pH to bicarbonate concentration and partial pressure of carbon dioxide. It is fundamental to understanding acid-base homeostasis. Changes in either component produce acidosis or alkalosis.
Which inhalational anesthetic agent is most commonly associated with malignant hyperthermia in susceptible individuals?
Sevoflurane
Desflurane
Nitrous oxide
Halothane
Halothane and certain other volatile anesthetics can trigger malignant hyperthermia in genetically susceptible patients through uncontrolled calcium release in skeletal muscle. Early signs include hypercarbia and muscular rigidity. Dantrolene is the treatment of choice.
A drop in end-tidal CO2 during surgery may indicate which of the following?
Increased cardiac output
Hypoventilation
Hyperthermia
Pulmonary embolism
A sudden decrease in end-tidal CO2 can signal a drop in pulmonary perfusion such as in pulmonary embolism or hypotension. It may also occur with decreased cardiac output. Other causes include circuit disconnection or obstruction.
Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with administration of large-volume normal saline infusion?
Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
Hypocalcemia
Hyperkalemia
Metabolic alkalosis
Excessive infusion of 0.9% normal saline can lead to a hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis due to high chloride load relative to bicarbonate. The increased chloride decreases the strong ion difference, lowering plasma pH. Balanced crystalloids are preferred to minimize this effect.
During laparoscopic insufflation, which physiologic effect is most likely with increased intra-abdominal pressure?
Improved pulmonary compliance
Reduced cardiac output
Decreased systemic vascular resistance
Increased venous return
Increased intra-abdominal pressure during pneumoperitoneum can decrease venous return and cardiac output by compressing the inferior vena cava. It also raises systemic vascular resistance and reduces pulmonary compliance. Monitoring hemodynamics is critical.
Which local anesthetic has the longest duration of action when used for peripheral nerve blocks?
Lidocaine
Bupivacaine
Procaine
Chloroprocaine
Bupivacaine is a long-acting amide local anesthetic commonly used for peripheral nerve blocks due to its prolonged sensory and motor block duration. Lidocaine and chloroprocaine act faster but have shorter durations. Procaine is an ester with intermediate duration.
Which laboratory finding suggests a mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis?
pH 7.25, PaCO2 60 mmHg, HCO3- 16 mEq/L
pH 7.25, PaCO2 60 mmHg, HCO3- 26 mEq/L
pH 7.35, PaCO2 30 mmHg, HCO3- 16 mEq/L
pH 7.25, PaCO2 40 mmHg, HCO3- 16 mEq/L
A pH of 7.25 indicates acidemia. Elevated PaCO2 (60 mmHg) suggests respiratory acidosis, and low bicarbonate (16 mEq/L) indicates metabolic acidosis. Both primary disturbances are present, confirming mixed acidosis.
Which opioid antagonist is used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose intraoperatively?
Physostigmine
Flumazenil
Naloxone
Atropine
Naloxone is a competitive opioid receptor antagonist that reverses the respiratory depression and analgesia produced by opioids. It has a rapid onset and short duration, requiring careful monitoring for re-narcotization. Flumazenil counters benzodiazepines, not opioids.
Which acid-base disturbance is indicated by a pH of 7.50 and a PaCO2 of 30 mmHg?
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
A pH above 7.45 indicates alkalemia. A low PaCO2 of 30 mmHg indicates a primary respiratory cause. This combination is consistent with respiratory alkalosis, often from hyperventilation.
Which physiologic mechanism primarily regulates short-term blood pressure changes?
Atrial natriuretic peptide
Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
Baroreceptor reflex
Antidiuretic hormone
The baroreceptor reflex in the carotid sinus and aortic arch provides rapid regulation of blood pressure through autonomic adjustments in heart rate and vessel tone. Hormonal systems act more slowly. Baroreflex changes occur within seconds.
During anesthesia, a patient develops peaked T-waves on ECG. This finding is most consistent with which electrolyte disturbance?
Hyperkalemia
Hypokalemia
Hypocalcemia
Hypernatremia
Peaked (tented) T-waves on ECG are a hallmark of hyperkalemia, reflecting altered myocardial repolarization. Other signs include widened QRS complexes if severe. Prompt recognition and treatment are critical to prevent cardiac arrest.
Which local anesthetic systemic toxicity symptom is considered most life-threatening?
Tinnitus
Cardiac arrhythmias
Seizures
CNS excitement
While CNS symptoms (e.g., seizures) often precede toxicity, cardiac arrhythmias and cardiovascular collapse represent the most life-threatening manifestations of local anesthetic systemic toxicity. Early recognition and lipid emulsion therapy improve outcomes.
Which monitoring parameter indicates adequate neuromuscular blockade reversal?
TOF ratio ?0.4
End-tidal anesthetic concentration <0.3 MAC
Train-of-four ratio ?0.9
Heart rate <60 bpm
A train-of-four (TOF) ratio of 0.9 or greater indicates sufficient recovery from neuromuscular blockade, reducing the risk of residual paralysis. Ratios below 0.7 correlate with clinical weakness. Quantitative monitoring is preferred.
Which intraoperative fluid is iso-oncotic and contains albumin?
Albumin 5% solution
Normal saline
5% dextrose in water
Lactated Ringer's
Albumin 5% solution is an iso-oncotic colloid that expands intravascular volume by maintaining oncotic pressure. Crystalloids distribute more freely into interstitial space. Colloids may reduce overall fluid requirements.
Which perioperative measure has the strongest evidence to prevent postoperative nausea and vomiting?
Intraoperative ketamine
Postoperative opioids
Preoperative fasting
Prophylactic IV ondansetron
Prophylactic administration of 5-HT3 antagonists like ondansetron has robust evidence for reducing postoperative nausea and vomiting. Combining antiemetics can further enhance prophylaxis. Opioids may worsen nausea.
Which vessel must be identified and preserved during a radical mastectomy to prevent lymphedema?
Axillary vein
Thoracodorsal artery
Long thoracic nerve
Lymphatic channels in axilla
Preservation of axillary lymphatic channels can reduce the risk of postoperative lymphedema in breast surgery. The long thoracic nerve is important for scapular function but not directly for lymphedema. Radical mastectomy often disrupts lymphatics leading to swelling.
Which hemodynamic parameter reflects left ventricular preload most accurately?
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
Systemic vascular resistance
Central venous pressure
Mean arterial pressure
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure approximates left atrial pressure, reflecting left ventricular preload. Central venous pressure estimates right-sided preload. Accurate preload assessment guides fluid management.
During cardiopulmonary bypass, hypothermia reduces metabolic demand by approximately how much per degree Celsius drop in core temperature?
5%
10%
12%
7%
Each 1°C decrease in core temperature reduces metabolic rate by about 7%, a principle exploited during cardiopulmonary bypass and deep hypothermic circulatory arrest. This reduction protects organs during ischemia. Precise temperature management is critical.
Which receptor subtype mediates bronchoconstriction when activated?
M3 muscarinic
Dopamine D1
Beta-2 adrenergic
Alpha-1 adrenergic
Activation of M3 muscarinic receptors on bronchial smooth muscle causes bronchoconstriction via parasympathetic pathways. Beta-2 activation induces bronchodilation. Anticholinergics block M3 to relieve bronchospasm.
Which laboratory marker rises first in response to acute blood loss?
Hematocrit
Lactate
Hemoglobin
Platelet count
Elevations in serum lactate occur early in hypovolemia and tissue hypoperfusion due to anaerobic metabolism. Hemoglobin and hematocrit changes lag behind due to interstitial fluid shift. Lactate is a sensitive marker for acute blood loss severity.
Which is the most appropriate initial vasopressor to treat spinal anesthesia - induced hypotension?
Norepinephrine
Dopamine
Epinephrine
Phenylephrine
Phenylephrine, a pure alpha-1 agonist, is commonly used to counteract vasodilation and hypotension induced by spinal anesthesia without increasing heart rate. It restores vascular tone effectively. Ephedrine is an alternative but may cause tachycardia.
When using a pulse oximeter, the measured SpO2 can be falsely elevated in the presence of which condition?
Methemoglobinemia
Carbon monoxide poisoning
Severe anemia
Hypercarbia
Pulse oximetry estimates oxygen saturation based on light absorption at two wavelengths; carboxyhemoglobin from CO poisoning absorbs similarly to oxyhemoglobin, leading to falsely high SpO2 readings. Methemoglobinemia causes SpO2 readings near 85%. Anemia and hypercarbia do not directly affect light absorption in this way.
In the context of massive transfusion protocols, what ratio of plasma to packed red blood cells is recommended to reduce coagulopathy?
2:1
1:3
1:2
1:1
A 1:1 ratio of plasma to packed red blood cells in massive transfusion protocols helps maintain coagulation factors and reduces dilutional coagulopathy. Studies show improved outcomes with balanced ratios. Early activation of massive transfusion is critical.
Which cardioprotective agent is often added to cardioplegia solution to reduce intracellular calcium overload?
Calcium chloride
Sodium bicarbonate
Potassium
Magnesium
Magnesium acts as a calcium antagonist, reducing intracellular calcium influx during myocardial arrest. It helps preserve cardiac function during cardiopulmonary bypass. Potassium induces arrest but does not prevent calcium overload.
Which monitoring device provides continuous cardiac output measurement without pulmonary artery catheterization?
Standard ECG
Pulse oximeter
Esophageal Doppler
Non-invasive blood pressure cuff
Esophageal Doppler monitors blood flow velocity in the descending aorta, allowing continuous estimation of cardiac output non-invasively. It is less invasive than a pulmonary artery catheter. Proper probe positioning is required for accurate data.
Which of the following is the most reliable indicator of intravascular volume status during surgery?
Central venous pressure
Urine output
Mean arterial pressure
Stroke volume variation
Stroke volume variation, measured via dynamic monitoring (e.g., pulse contour analysis), predicts fluid responsiveness better than static parameters like CVP or MAP. Variations >13% suggest preload responsiveness. Clinical use improves fluid management.
Which acid-base disturbance can be caused by hyperchloremic normal saline administration?
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Large volumes of normal saline increase plasma chloride, reducing bicarbonate via a strong ion difference mechanism, leading to hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis. Balanced crystalloids minimize this risk. Monitoring electrolytes guides fluid choice.
Which parameter is most specific for myocardial ischemia on intraoperative ECG monitoring?
ST-segment depression
T-wave inversion
QT prolongation
PR interval prolongation
ST-segment depression (horizontal or downsloping) is a specific sign of subendocardial ischemia on ECG monitoring. T-wave inversion can be non-specific and seen in various settings. Continuous ECG surveillance detects ischemia early.
Which neuromuscular blocker is commonly reversed by neostigmine and glycopyrrolate at the end of surgery?
Rocuronium
Propofol
Ketamine
Succinylcholine
Rocuronium is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker that is typically reversed with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors like neostigmine, administered with an anticholinergic such as glycopyrrolate to counter muscarinic side effects. Succinylcholine is not reversed by neostigmine.
Which is the most common pathogen causing surgical site infections following clean-contaminated procedures?
Escherichia coli
Enterococcus faecalis
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus aureus remains the most common cause of surgical site infections, especially in clean-contaminated procedures. MRSA strains are of increasing concern. Appropriate perioperative antibiotic prophylaxis reduces infection rates.
During acute hemorrhage, which physiologic response is the earliest to maintain blood pressure?
ADH release
Activation of RAAS
Increase in erythropoietin
Baroreceptor-mediated tachycardia
Baroreceptor reflex increases heart rate and constricts arterioles within seconds to maintain blood pressure during acute hemorrhage. Hormonal mechanisms follow more gradually. Early tachycardia is a sensitive sign of hypovolemia.
Which intravenous anesthetic agent provides analgesia and amnesia but minimal respiratory depression at low doses?
Ketamine
Fentanyl
Propofol
Midazolam
Ketamine provides dissociative anesthesia with profound analgesia and amnesia, often preserving respiratory drive and airway reflexes at low doses. It increases sympathetic tone and can raise heart rate and blood pressure. It is useful in hemodynamically unstable patients.
Which parameter is essential to monitor while using nitrous oxide in the operating room?
Blood glucose
Vitamin B12 levels
Ambient N2O concentration
Serum cholinesterase
Monitoring ambient nitrous oxide levels in the OR prevents staff overexposure, which can have chronic hematologic and neurologic effects. Scavenging systems help maintain safe concentrations. Direct patient parameters are less impacted acutely.
Which factor most significantly affects the speed at which alveolar concentration (FA) of an inhaled anesthetic approaches inspired concentration (FI)?
Oil-gas partition coefficient
Minute ventilation
Cardiac output
Blood-gas partition coefficient
The blood-gas partition coefficient (solubility) determines how readily an anesthetic dissolves in blood. Agents with low solubility reach equilibrium faster, resulting in quicker changes in alveolar and thus brain concentration. Cardiac output and ventilation also influence uptake but to a lesser degree.
Which of the following antibiotics is time-dependent in its bactericidal activity?
Gentamicin
Daptomycin
Vancomycin
Ciprofloxacin
Vancomycin's effectiveness correlates with the duration the plasma concentration remains above the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC). Gentamicin and other aminoglycosides are concentration-dependent. Understanding pharmacodynamics guides dosing regimens.
Which surgical position poses the greatest risk for brachial plexus injury if arms are abducted excessively?
Prone position
Lithotomy position
Lateral decubitus position
Trendelenburg position
In Trendelenburg position, excessive arm abduction beyond 90 degrees can stretch the brachial plexus due to gravitational forces. Proper padding and arm placement reduce neuropathy risk. Positioning protocols are essential.
Which parameter is used to calculate the alveolar gas equation?
Heart rate
Serum sodium
Urine output
Atmospheric pressure
The alveolar gas equation (PAO2 = FiO2(Patm - PH2O) - PaCO2/R) uses atmospheric pressure, water vapor pressure, inspired oxygen fraction, arterial CO2, and respiratory quotient. It estimates alveolar oxygen partial pressure. Accurate values are essential for gas exchange assessment.
What is the first-line treatment and recommended initial dose for malignant hyperthermia?
Diazepam 5 mg IV
Dantrolene 2.5 mg/kg IV
Propofol infusion 2 mg/kg/h
Halothane discontinuation alone
The first-line treatment for malignant hyperthermia is intravenous dantrolene sodium at an initial dose of 2.5 mg/kg, repeated as needed until symptoms abate. Dantrolene stabilizes calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Concurrent measures include cooling and supportive care.
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Study Outcomes

  1. Understand Basic Sciences Principles -

    Gain a solid grasp of anatomy, physiology, pharmacology, and pathophysiology concepts as they appear on the AST practice test, ensuring you can confidently answer fundamental science questions.

  2. Apply Perioperative Care Guidelines -

    Learn to integrate preoperative assessment, patient preparation, and safety protocols into your decision-making process, mirroring the scenarios encountered on the AST exam.

  3. Implement Intraoperative Management Strategies -

    Practice selecting appropriate monitoring techniques, equipment usage, and intervention protocols to manage intraoperative challenges effectively.

  4. Analyze Performance and Identify Knowledge Gaps -

    Use detailed feedback from 250 practice questions to pinpoint weak areas, track your progress, and focus your study on topics that need improvement.

  5. Simulate Real Exam Conditions -

    Experience timed, exam-style questioning to build familiarity with the AST practice exam format and pacing, reducing test-day anxiety.

  6. Build Confidence and Test-Taking Skills -

    Develop effective strategies for reading questions, eliminating incorrect options, and managing your time to maximize your score on the AST certification exam.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Local Anesthetic Classification & Metabolism -

    Understand the two main classes of local anesthetics - amides (e.g., lidocaine, bupivacaine) and esters (e.g., procaine) - and their metabolic pathways in the liver or by plasma cholinesterase, respectively (Goodman & Gilman's, 13th ed.). Remember the mnemonic "I before E except after Amide" to recall that amides contain two "I"s. Reviewing these distinctions on your AST practice test will help you predict onset, duration, and toxicity profiles.

  2. Henderson-Hasselbalch Equation for Acid - Base Balance -

    Mastering pH = pKa + log([A - ]/[HA]) is key for interpreting arterial blood gases; this formula is highlighted in many physiology texts (Guyton & Hall, 14th ed.). A handy trick is "pHaKa" to remind you that pH and pKa are paired. Applying this on AST practice questions will sharpen your skills for acid - base perioperative scenarios.

  3. ASA Physical Status Classification -

    Familiarize yourself with the ASA I - VI scale to stratify surgical risk, as outlined by the American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA). Use the phrase "Healthy, Mild, Severe, Emergency, Moribund, Donor" to recall each category. Accurately assigning ASA status on your AST practice exam improves perioperative planning and patient safety.

  4. Maintenance Fluid Calculation: 4-2-1 Rule -

    Use the classic 4 mL/kg for first 10 kg, 2 mL/kg for next 10 kg, 1 mL/kg for remaining body weight to estimate hourly maintenance IV fluids (Pediatric Advanced Life Support guidelines). For example, a 70 kg adult receives 4×10 + 2×10 + 1×50 = 90 mL/hr. Practicing this on AST practice questions ensures precise intraoperative hydration management.

  5. End-Tidal CO₂ Monitoring & Norms -

    Know that normal ETCO₂ ranges from 35 - 45 mm Hg and use capnography waveforms to detect hypoventilation, circuit leaks, or airway obstruction (AAGBI Standards). The rhyme "High flat line, check your pipeline; low spike, ventilate right" helps recall common alarms. Testing this on your ast practice test reinforces vigilant intraoperative monitoring.

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