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Quizzes > Computers & Technology > Computers & IT

CompTIA A+ 1001 Practice Quiz: Test Your IT Expertise

Ready to tackle A+ 1001 exam questions? Dive in and boost your prep!

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art illustration for CompTIA A 1001 practice test quiz on a golden yellow background

This CompTIA A+ 1001 practice test helps you check exam readiness and spot gaps fast with 50+ expert questions. Work through realistic items on hardware, devices, networking, and troubleshooting so you can focus your study where it counts. If you want a quick refresher first, review the A+ Part 1 basics .

Which component uses NVRAM to store BIOS settings when the system is powered off?
Optical drive
CMOS battery
Heat sink
Power supply
The CMOS battery provides power to the NVRAM where BIOS settings are stored when the computer is off. Without it, the system loses date and hardware configuration. It's critical for maintaining firmware settings.
What interface uses a 7-pin data cable and 15-pin power connector for storage devices?
IDE
USB
SATA
Molex
SATA uses a 7-pin data cable plus a separate 15-pin power connector for storage devices. IDE uses a wide ribbon cable instead, and Molex is a four-pin peripheral power connector. SATA also supports hot-swapping and faster throughput.
Which port type commonly supplies 5V DC to external devices such as phones and flash drives?
DisplayPort
HDMI
PS/2
USB
USB ports supply 5V DC power to connected peripherals like phones and flash drives. HDMI and DisplayPort carry video and audio signals without providing dedicated DC power at 5V. PS/2 ports are for keyboards and mice only.
What material is commonly applied between a CPU and its heat sink to improve thermal conductivity?
Epoxy resin
Silicone sealant
Thermal paste
Lubricant oil
Thermal paste is formulated to fill micro-gaps between the CPU heat spreader and heat sink for better heat transfer. Lubricant oil and sealants are not suitable, and epoxy resin would harden and damage components. Correct application prevents overheating.
Which type of memory is volatile and typically used for a computer's main system memory?
DRAM
Flash
EEPROM
ROM
DRAM (Dynamic RAM) is volatile and requires constant power to retain data, making it ideal for main system memory. ROM, EEPROM, and Flash are non-volatile and used for firmware or storage. DRAM offers fast access times at relatively low cost.
Which RAID level mirrors data across two disks to provide redundancy?
RAID 5
RAID 1
RAID 10
RAID 0
RAID 1 mirrors the same data on two disks for fault tolerance. RAID 0 stripes data for performance without redundancy, RAID 5 uses parity across three or more disks, and RAID 10 combines mirroring and striping. RAID 1 is simplest for mirroring.
What is the default subnet mask for a Class C IPv4 network?
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.0.0.0
255.255.255.255
A Class C IPv4 network uses a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, allowing for 256 addresses per network. Class A and B use 255.0.0.0 and 255.255.0.0 respectively. 255.255.255.255 is the broadcast address.
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for logical addressing and routing?
Transport layer
Presentation layer
Data Link layer
Network layer
The Network layer (Layer 3) handles logical addressing (such as IP addresses) and routing between networks. The Data Link layer manages physical addressing (MAC), the Transport layer handles segmentation, and the Presentation layer deals with data formatting. Routers operate at Layer 3.
Which tool is used to crimp RJ-45 connectors onto Ethernet cables?
Cable tester
Wire stripper
Punch down tool
Crimper
A crimper is designed to attach RJ-45 connectors to the ends of Ethernet cables by crimping the connector pins into the wires. Wire strippers remove insulation, punch down tools insert wires into patch panels, and cable testers verify connectivity. Each has a specific function.
Which expansion slot provides the highest bandwidth for a modern graphics card?
PCIe x16
AGP
PCI
PCIe x1
PCIe x16 slots offer the highest bandwidth and are designed for high-performance graphics cards. AGP is an older standard, PCIe x1 provides minimal bandwidth for low-speed devices, and PCI is legacy. Modern motherboards primarily use PCIe x16 for GPUs.
Which connector is used for analog video signals on older monitors?
DVI
VGA
HDMI
DisplayPort
VGA connectors transmit analog video signals and were common on older monitors. DVI can carry digital and analog (DVI-I), while HDMI and DisplayPort are solely digital interfaces. VGA has 15 pins arranged in three rows.
What does POST stand for in computer startup processes?
Power-Off Secure-Tune
Platform Output System Trial
Power-On Self-Test
Peripheral Operation System Test
POST stands for Power-On Self-Test, a diagnostic testing sequence executed by the BIOS to verify hardware integrity before booting an operating system. It checks memory, CPU, storage, and other components. Failure codes help identify issues.
Which mobile synchronization protocol is used by many clients to sync email with Microsoft Exchange servers?
POP3
IMAP
SMTP
ActiveSync
Microsoft ActiveSync is a mobile synchronization protocol for syncing email, contacts, and calendars with Exchange servers. POP3 and IMAP retrieve email only, and SMTP is used to send email. ActiveSync provides real-time two-way sync.
Which wireless standard operates at 5 GHz and can support up to 1.3 Gbps under optimal conditions?
802.11n
802.11ac
802.11g
802.11b
802.11ac operates in the 5 GHz band and can reach up to 1.3 Gbps with multiple spatial streams. 802.11n supports both 2.4 and 5 GHz but typically lower speeds. 802.11b and g operate at 2.4 GHz with much lower throughput.
Which command in Windows displays the current TCP/IP network configuration for all adapters?
netstat
ifconfig
tracert
ipconfig
The ipconfig command displays network configuration details for all network adapters on Windows. ifconfig is the equivalent command on Unix/Linux. netstat shows active connections, and tracert traces the path to a destination.
What is the primary function of the power supply unit in a personal computer?
Store BIOS firmware
Format storage devices
Convert AC to DC
Regulate network traffic
The power supply unit converts AC voltage from the wall outlet into regulated DC voltages required by computer components. It does not store firmware or manage network traffic, and it doesn't handle storage device formatting. Reliable power is essential for system stability.
Which solid-state drive interface offers the highest throughput by connecting directly to the PCIe bus?
SATA III
NVMe over M.2
SAS
USB 3.0
NVMe runs over the PCIe bus (often via an M.2 slot), providing significantly higher throughput and lower latency than SATA III. SAS can be fast but still lags behind PCIe-based NVMe. USB 3.0 is external and slower.
In Windows, which utility is used to view and manage disk partitions and volumes?
Device Manager
Disk Cleanup
Disk Defragmenter
Disk Management
Disk Management provides a graphical interface for creating, formatting, and resizing partitions and volumes. Device Manager handles hardware drivers. Disk Cleanup removes unnecessary files, and Disk Defragmenter organizes fragmented data.
Which Windows file system supports file encryption, permissions, and large volume sizes?
FAT32
NTFS
EXT4
exFAT
NTFS supports file encryption (EFS), detailed permissions, journaling, and large volume sizes. FAT32 has a 4 GB file size limit, exFAT is optimized for flash drives, and EXT4 is native to Linux. NTFS is the modern Windows default.
Which protocol provides encrypted command-line access to network devices?
SSH
HTTP
FTP
Telnet
SSH (Secure Shell) provides encrypted remote command-line sessions. Telnet is unencrypted and insecure. FTP is for file transfers, and HTTP is for web traffic. SSH is the standard for secure network management.
Which Linux utility provides a real-time view of CPU and memory usage?
top
chmod
uname
df
The top utility displays real-time CPU, memory, and process usage in Linux. df reports disk space, uname shows system information, and chmod changes file permissions. top is essential for performance monitoring.
Which Windows feature allows you to run lightweight, isolated desktop environments?
Virtual Memory
BitLocker
Hyper-V
Windows Sandbox
Windows Sandbox provides a disposable, isolated desktop environment for safely running untrusted applications. Hyper-V is a full virtualization platform, Virtual Memory uses disk space as RAM, and BitLocker encrypts drives. Sandbox offers quick isolation.
Which authentication protocol uses tickets provided by a Key Distribution Center?
LDAP
RADIUS
Kerberos
NTLM
Kerberos uses a Key Distribution Center (KDC) to issue time-stamped tickets for authentication. LDAP is an access protocol for directory services, RADIUS is a remote authentication service, and NTLM is a challenge-response protocol. Kerberos is common in Windows domains.
Which IPv6 address type is designated for global internet routing, similar to public IPv4 addresses?
Link-local
Multicast
Global unicast
Unique local
Global unicast addresses in IPv6 are globally routable and similar in purpose to public IPv4 addresses. Link-local addresses are for local network segments only, unique local addresses are like private IPv4, and multicast addresses identify multiple destinations.
What is the first step in the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?
Implement solution
Identify the problem
Establish a theory of cause
Test the theory
The first step is to identify the problem by gathering information and symptoms. Establishing a theory, testing it, and implementing a solution follow. Proper diagnostics depend on accurate initial identification.
Which encryption method is commonly used for full-device encryption on Android devices?
TKIP
WEP
SSL
FDE
Full-Disk Encryption (FDE) encrypts the entire device storage on Android, protecting data at rest. WEP and TKIP are WLAN encryption protocols, and SSL secures web traffic. Modern Android devices often use FDE or File-Based Encryption (FBE).
Which protocol is most often used to set up VoIP calls and communicates over UDP port 5060?
SIP
RTP
SSH
SNMP
SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) establishes, modifies, and terminates VoIP sessions typically using UDP port 5060. RTP carries the actual media streams. SSH and SNMP are unrelated to voice communications.
Which network troubleshooting tool uses ICMP echo requests to test basic network connectivity?
traceroute
nslookup
ping
netstat
ping sends ICMP echo requests to a target host and waits for replies to test connectivity and latency. traceroute maps the route path, netstat shows network connections, and nslookup queries DNS records. ping is the simplest connectivity test.
Which type of battery is non-rechargeable and commonly used in consumer electronics?
Alkaline
Nickel-metal hydride
Lithium-ion
Nickel-cadmium
Alkaline batteries are non-rechargeable and used in devices like remotes and toys. Nickel-cadmium and nickel-metal hydride are rechargeable, while lithium-ion is rechargeable and common in mobile devices. Alkaline chemistry is disposable.
Which Windows command-line tool displays a list of installed services and their status?
tasklist
netstat
sc query
ipconfig
The sc query command lists all Windows services and their current status. tasklist shows running processes, netstat displays network connections, and ipconfig shows IP configurations. sc is specific to service control.
Which type of hypervisor runs directly on the host's hardware without requiring a host operating system?
Type 2
Hosted
Emulation
Type 1
Type 1 hypervisors run directly on hardware (bare-metal) for better performance and isolation. Type 2 hypervisors run on top of a host OS. Hosted and emulation refer to different virtualization methods. Examples include VMware ESXi and Microsoft Hyper-V.
Which Linux command shows the routing table and current network routes?
top
ip route
dmesg
lsblk
The ip route command displays the IPv4 routing table and network paths in Linux. lsblk lists block devices, top shows system processes, and dmesg prints kernel messages. ip route is part of the iproute2 suite.
Which UEFI feature verifies the integrity of boot components to prevent unauthorized code from running?
Fast Boot
Secure Boot
Wake-on-LAN
Legacy Boot
Secure Boot ensures that only signed, trusted bootloaders and OS components are executed during startup. Fast Boot skips some initialization steps, Legacy Boot uses BIOS emulation, and Wake-on-LAN powers on systems via network. Secure Boot enhances platform security.
In CPU virtualization, what does Intel VT-x or AMD-V refer to?
Motherboard chipset features
Hardware extensions for virtualization
GPU instruction sets
Power management modes
Intel VT-x and AMD-V are CPU hardware virtualization extensions that improve performance and isolation for virtual machines. They are not motherboard chipset features, GPU instructions, or power management modes. Enabling them in BIOS/UEFI is required for virtualization.
Which IPv6 notation compresses one or more consecutive groups of zeros?
:0:
::
00:
:::
The :: notation replaces a consecutive sequence of zero groups in IPv6 addresses with a double colon, but only once per address. :0: is not valid shorthand, and ::: is illegal. Proper zero compression simplifies lengthy addresses.
Which Power over Ethernet standard provides up to 60 watts per port?
802.3az (EEE)
802.3u (Fast Ethernet)
802.3at (PoE+)
802.3af (PoE)
802.3at, also known as PoE+, delivers up to 30W per port under the original spec but modern enhancements can provide more. 802.3af provides 15.4W, 802.3az is Energy Efficient Ethernet, and 802.3u defines Fast Ethernet. PoE+ supports more power-hungry devices.
Which Windows command repairs the boot configuration data (BCD) store?
sfc /scannow
bcdedit
bootrec /fixmbr
chkdsk
bcdedit is used to view and modify the Boot Configuration Data (BCD) store. bootrec /fixmbr repairs the master boot record, chkdsk checks disks for errors, and sfc /scannow scans system files. bcdedit is essential for BCD management.
Which RAID level stripes data and distributes parity across three or more disks?
RAID 0
RAID 1
RAID 6
RAID 5
RAID 5 stripes data and parity information across all member disks, requiring at least three drives. RAID 0 provides striping without parity, RAID 1 mirrors without striping, and RAID 6 adds a second parity block for extra fault tolerance. RAID 5 balances performance and redundancy.
Which cable type uses a magnesium oxide powder insulator and supports high bandwidth over short distances?
Coaxial
Cat 5e
Thunderbolt
Fiber
Thunderbolt cables use advanced shielding and high-quality materials to carry PCIe and DisplayPort signals at very high bandwidth over short distances. Cat 5e and coax are lower bandwidth, and fiber uses glass strands. Thunderbolt combines data and video in one link.
Which virtualization networking mode allows a VM to appear as a separate host on the physical network?
NAT
Bridged
Host-only
Internal
Bridged networking connects the VM directly to the physical network as if it has its own NIC, receiving an IP from the same DHCP server. NAT uses the host's IP, host-only creates a private network, and internal confines communication between VMs. Bridged is for full network access.
Which Linux command changes file and directory ownership?
chmod
chown
passwd
chgrp
chown changes the owner (and optionally the group) of files and directories. chmod modifies file permissions, chgrp changes only the group, and passwd updates user passwords. chown requires root privileges for system files.
What is the default gateway used for in an IP network?
Assigning IP addresses
Resolving domain names
Filtering traffic
Forwarding packets to other networks
A default gateway forwards packets destined for other networks to routers. DNS resolution is done by DNS servers, IP addresses are assigned by DHCP, and traffic filtering is handled by firewalls. The gateway directs outbound traffic.
Which memory technology uses multiple bits per cell to increase density at the cost of speed and endurance?
MLC flash
DDR4
SLC flash
SRAM
MLC (Multi-Level Cell) flash stores multiple bits per cell to increase capacity but is slower and has lower write endurance. SLC stores one bit per cell, offering better performance. DDR4 and SRAM are volatile RAM technologies, not flash storage.
In the context of mobile device synchronization, what does OTA configuration stand for?
Over-The-Air
On-The-Adapter
Over-The-Application
On-Tag-Attestation
OTA stands for Over-The-Air configuration, allowing mobile devices to receive settings such as email profiles or security policies remotely. It does not refer to adapters or application-based processes. OTA streamlines large-scale device management.
Which Windows registry hive contains information about installed hardware and drivers?
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT
HKEY_CURRENT_USER
HKEY_USERS
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE holds system-wide configuration data, including hardware settings and installed drivers. HKEY_CURRENT_USER stores settings for the active user, HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT relates to file associations, and HKEY_USERS contains profiles for all users.
What is the primary purpose of S.M.A.R.T. monitoring in hard drives?
Encrypt data
Improve read/write speeds
Manage disk partitions
Predict drive failure
S.M.A.R.T. (Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology) monitors drive health metrics to predict potential failures. It does not enhance performance, encrypt data, or manage partitions. Administrators can act on early warnings to prevent data loss.
Which Linux command-line utility changes file permissions using octal notation?
chmod
passwd
chgrp
chown
chmod changes file or directory permissions using symbolic or octal notation. chown changes ownership, chgrp changes group ownership, and passwd modifies user passwords. chmod is essential for permission management.
What is the maximum cable length for 1000BASE-T Ethernet before a repeater or switch is needed?
500 meters
2 kilometers
100 meters
185 meters
1000BASE-T specifies a maximum segment length of 100 meters for Cat 5e/Cat 6 cabling without repeaters. Ethernet standards for longer distances use fiber or repeaters. Exceeding 100 meters risks signal degradation.
Which BCD (Boot Configuration Data) repair option rebuilds the entire store in Windows?
bcdedit /export
bootrec /fixmbr
bootrec /rebuildbcd
chkdsk /r
The bootrec /rebuildbcd command scans for Windows installations and rebuilds the BCD store from scratch. /fixmbr repairs the master boot record, bcdedit /export saves the store, and chkdsk checks disk errors. Rebuilding helps resolve boot configuration corruption.
In Active Directory, which tool is used to join a Windows client to a domain?
DNS Manager
System Properties > Computer Name
Active Directory Users and Computers
Group Policy Editor
You join a Windows client to a domain via System Properties > Computer Name by specifying the domain name and credentials. Active Directory Users and Computers manages users and groups, Group Policy Editor edits policies, and DNS Manager handles DNS settings. Domain join occurs in system settings.
Which BIOS feature allows a system to resume from a powered-off state when a scheduled time is reached?
Fast Boot
PXE boot
RTC alarm
Wake-on-LAN
The RTC (Real-Time Clock) alarm feature in BIOS can power on the system at a scheduled time. Wake-on-LAN powers on via network, Fast Boot speeds startup, and PXE boot is network-based OS loading. RTC alarms are used for unattended startups.
Which utility would you use to migrate user profiles and data during a Windows OS upgrade?
Services.msc
MSCONFIG
User State Migration Tool
System File Checker
The User State Migration Tool (USMT) migrates user accounts, files, and settings in large-scale Windows deployments. MSCONFIG configures boot options, SFC scans system files, and Services.msc manages services. USMT is designed for state migration.
When troubleshooting a UEFI-based system that fails to boot, which log file provides detailed boot-time error events?
C:\Windows\Boot.log
C:\Windows\System32\drivers.txt
C:\Windows\Panther\setupact.log
C:\Windows\Logs\CBS\CBS.log
The setupact.log under C:\Windows\Panther contains detailed logs for UEFI and Windows setup operations, including failure details. Boot.log shows bootloader events, CBS.log logs component store operations, and drivers.txt is not a standard log file. Panther logs are critical for installation issues.
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Study Outcomes

  1. Hardware Troubleshooting Skills -

    Apply core hardware knowledge to identify and resolve PC component issues often featured in CompTIA A+ 1001 practice test questions.

  2. OS Configuration Proficiency -

    Analyze operating system installation and configuration tasks across Windows, macOS, and Linux to master A+ 1001 exam questions.

  3. IT Support Scenario Analysis -

    Troubleshoot common user and system support challenges using best practices emphasized in A+ 1001 test prep.

  4. Networking Diagnostics -

    Interpret networking concepts and protocols to diagnose connectivity problems presented in the CompTIA A+ quiz format.

  5. Security and Maintenance Implementation -

    Implement foundational security principles and routine maintenance tasks to safeguard and optimize systems.

  6. Exam Readiness Assessment -

    Evaluate your performance through instant feedback, track progress, and boost confidence for the CompTIA A+ certification exam.

Cheat Sheet

  1. CPU architectures and socket compatibility -

    Review Intel vs. AMD architectures and socket types (e.g., LGA1151 vs. AM4), noting how Thermal Design Power (TDP) impacts cooler selection. When tackling CompTIA A+ 1001 practice test questions on CPU upgrades, pair a 65W TDP CPU with an air cooler rated ≥65W. As per CompTIA official objectives, ensure the motherboard chipset supports your CPU's generation.

  2. Memory modules: Types, speeds, and channels -

    Differentiate between DDR3, DDR4, and DDR5 DIMMs and understand terms like CAS latency (CL) and module speed (e.g., DDR4-3200 = 3200 MT/s). Calculate theoretical throughput: MT/s × 8 bytes = MB/s per channel (for DDR4-3200: 3200×8=25,600 MB/s). Follow JEDEC standards to choose dual-channel kits for optimal performance in your A+ 1001 exam prep.

  3. Storage solutions and RAID levels -

    Compare HDDs, SATA SSDs, and NVMe drives for speed and form factor, noting NVMe can exceed 3,500 MB/s per manufacturer specs (e.g., Samsung 970 EVO). Learn RAID levels 0 (striping), 1 (mirroring), 5 (striped parity), and 10 (striped + mirrored) with a mnemonic "RPM 510" to remember redundancy and performance tradeoffs. Refer to university IT department RAID deployment guides to match solutions to business needs.

  4. Networking fundamentals: IP addressing and subnetting -

    Master IPv4 vs. IPv6 notation and subnet masks, using the mnemonic "128-64-32-16-8-4-2-1" for VLAN subnet calculations. Practice binary-to-decimal conversions (e.g., 255.255.255.0 = /24) and recall that DHCP automates IP assignments while DNS resolves names. Use Cisco's and CompTIA's networking objectives to solidify these concepts for the A+ 1001 test prep.

  5. Operating system installation and CLI tools -

    Differentiate installation methods for Windows, Linux, and macOS, including UEFI vs. BIOS boot modes and partition styles (GPT vs. MBR). Memorize key CLI commands: Windows ipconfig /all, Linux ifconfig or ip addr show, and diskpart to manage volumes. Refer to the official Microsoft Docs and Linux Foundation guides to brush up on commands for your CompTIA A+ quiz.

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