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Quizzes > Health & Medicine

Pharmacy Board Exam Questions: Practice Quiz

Quick, free quiz with pharmacy test questions. Instant results and explanations.

Editorial: Review CompletedCreated By: Onno M. BerfeloUpdated Aug 24, 2025
Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art illustration for Pharmacy Board Exam quiz on a golden yellow background

Use this quiz to practice pharmacy board exam questions under test-like timing and see where to improve. Build skills across calculations, law, and clinical judgment with instant feedback, and explore the PTCB practice exam, drug knowledge quiz, and mpje practice questions for targeted practice. Start now and track progress with clear explanations.

What term describes the official nonproprietary name of a drug?
Generic name
Patent name
Brand name
Chemical name
The generic name is the nonproprietary name assigned by official bodies and is used universally to identify the active ingredient of a drug. Brand names are proprietary and chosen by manufacturers. Chemical names describe molecular structure, while patent names are legal designations.
A drug classified as Schedule II under the Controlled Substances Act is characterized by:
No accepted medical use and high abuse potential
Over-the-counter status
Low potential for abuse and no dependence risk
High potential for abuse but with accepted medical use
Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse which may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence, but they also have accepted medical uses. Schedule I drugs have no accepted medical use, while lower schedules have decreasing abuse potential.
Which route of administration is most appropriate for insulin therapy?
Inhalation
Transdermal patch
Subcutaneous injection
Oral tablet
Insulin is a peptide hormone that would be degraded in the gastrointestinal tract if taken orally, so subcutaneous injection is used for systemic absorption. Transdermal and inhalation forms are not standard for insulin therapy.
Which of the following best defines bioavailability?
The fraction of administered dose reaching systemic circulation unchanged
The protein binding percentage of a drug
The rate at which a drug is eliminated
The volume in which a drug is distributed
Bioavailability is defined as the fraction of an administered dose of a drug that reaches the systemic circulation in an unchanged form. It does not refer to elimination, volume of distribution, or protein binding.
The half-life of a drug is best described as:
Time to be absorbed completely
Time to eliminate 100% of the drug
Time to reach maximum concentration
Time required for plasma concentration to decrease by 50%
Half-life (t½) is the time required for the plasma concentration of a drug to reduce by half. It does not refer to absorption or complete elimination.
A common adverse effect associated with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is:
Hyperglycemia
Gastrointestinal upset
Bradycardia
Dry cough
NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, which can disrupt protective gastric mucosa leading to gastrointestinal irritation or ulceration. Dry cough is more typical of ACE inhibitors, bradycardia and hyperglycemia are not common NSAID effects.
Which pH would be closest to the physiological pH of blood?
3.2
7.4
9.8
5.0
Physiological blood pH is tightly regulated around 7.4. Values of pH 5.0, 3.2, or 9.8 are inconsistent with normal human blood and indicate severe acidosis or alkalosis.
How many 500 mg tablets are required to provide a total dose of 2 g?
4 tablets
6 tablets
2 tablets
8 tablets
A total of 2 g equals 2000 mg. Dividing 2000 mg by 500 mg per tablet gives 4 tablets required.
Using the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, which ionization state predominates for a weak acid drug with pKa 4.5 at pH 7.5?
Non-ionized form predominates
Ionized form predominates
Cannot determine without pKb
Equal ionized and non-ionized
For a weak acid (pKa 4.5) at pH 7.5, the pH is above pKa, so the deprotonated (ionized) form predominates.
Therapeutic drug monitoring is most critical for which of the following antibiotics?
Ciprofloxacin
Gentamicin
Amoxicillin
Azithromycin
Gentamicin has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring of serum levels to avoid toxicity, especially nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. Other listed antibiotics have wider margins of safety.
A drug with a large volume of distribution (Vd) likely exhibits which characteristic?
Rapid renal elimination
Extensive tissue distribution
High plasma protein binding only
Low lipid solubility
A large Vd indicates that a significant amount of drug distributes into tissues rather than staying in plasma. High protein binding or elimination do not directly result in large Vd.
Which vitamin deficiency can lead to decreased warfarin effect and coagulopathy?
Vitamin B12
Vitamin D
Vitamin K
Vitamin C
Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. Deficiency can reduce warfarin effectiveness and lead to bleeding disorders.
How many refills are permitted for a Schedule III controlled substance in a six-month period?
Unlimited refills
1 refill
No refills
5 refills
Schedule III and IV substances may be refilled up to five times within six months after the date on which the prescription was written.
Using the Mosteller formula, what is the body surface area (BSA) for a patient 1.70 m tall and 65 kg in weight? (BSA (m²)=?[(height (cm)×weight (kg))/3600])
1.72 m²
0.85 m²
1.20 m²
2.10 m²
Convert height to cm (170 cm). Multiply 170×65=11050; divide by 3600 gives ~3.069; square root is ~1.75 m² (approx 1.72).
To achieve a steady-state concentration (Css) of 10 mg/L with a clearance of 2 L/h, what infusion rate is required?
12 mg/h
20 mg/h
5 mg/h
50 mg/h
Infusion rate = Css × Clearance = 10 mg/L × 2 L/h = 20 mg/h. This maintains steady concentration.
A patient who is a CYP2D6 poor metabolizer taking codeine will likely experience:
Reduced analgesic effect
No change in effect
Increased opiate toxicity
Enhanced conversion to morphine
Codeine is converted to morphine by CYP2D6. Poor metabolizers have reduced conversion, leading to diminished analgesia.
Which excipient is primarily used as a disintegrant in tablet formulations?
Talc
Croscarmellose sodium
Magnesium stearate
Colloidal silica
Croscarmellose sodium absorbs water quickly, causing tablets to swell and disintegrate. Magnesium stearate and talc are lubricants, while colloidal silica is a glidant.
In parenteral preparations, the main purpose of a buffer system is to:
Maintain pH stability
Increase osmolality
Act as a preservative
Enhance solubility of lipophilic drugs
Buffers maintain the pH of a solution within a narrow range to ensure drug stability and compatibility with tissues. They are not primarily for solubility of lipophilic drugs or preservation.
High-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) is commonly used in pharmacy to:
Quantify drug purity and concentration
Measure tablet hardness
Assess dissolution time in tablets
Determine microbial contamination
HPLC separates and quantifies components in a mixture, making it ideal for assessing drug purity and concentration. Tablet hardness and dissolution are measured by other instruments.
Which phase of a clinical trial primarily assesses drug safety in healthy volunteers?
Phase II
Phase I
Phase III
Phase IV
Phase I trials focus on safety, tolerability, pharmacokinetics, and pharmacodynamics in a small group of healthy volunteers. Phase II and III involve patient efficacy, while Phase IV is post-marketing surveillance.
Pharmacovigilance primarily involves:
Compounding sterile products
Monitoring and evaluating adverse drug reactions
Designing dosage forms
Developing new drug molecules
Pharmacovigilance is the practice of detecting, assessing, understanding, and preventing adverse effects of pharmaceuticals. It does not involve drug development or compounding directly.
Checkpoint inhibitor monoclonal antibodies, such as nivolumab, exert anticancer effects by:
Blocking PD-1 on T cells to enhance immune response against tumors
Inhibiting angiogenesis in the tumor microenvironment
Directly inducing DNA damage in cancer cells
Enhancing renal clearance of tumor antigens
Nivolumab binds to PD-1 receptors on T cells, preventing interaction with PD-L1 and restoring T cell activity against cancer cells. This mechanism enhances the body's immune response rather than directly damaging DNA.
Liposomal drug delivery systems improve pharmacotherapy primarily by:
Enhancing drug stability and targeted delivery
Reducing drug molecular weight
Increasing drug volatility
Accelerating immediate renal excretion
Liposomal formulations encapsulate drugs in lipid bilayers, improving stability, reducing toxicity, and enabling targeted delivery to specific tissues. They do not increase volatility or alter molecular weight.
Which regulatory pathway allows a manufacturer to seek approval for a biosimilar product?
Pre-IND Meeting Request
New Drug Application (NDA)
ANDA (Abbreviated New Drug Application)
Abbreviated Biologics License Application (aBLA)
Biosimilars are approved via an Abbreviated Biologics License Application (aBLA) under the Biologics Price Competition and Innovation Act. ANDA is for generics of small molecules, and NDA is for new drugs.
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Study Outcomes

  1. Apply Core Pharmacy Concepts -

    Use practice questions to reinforce understanding of pharmacology, pharmaceutics, and pharmacy practice fundamentals critical for board exams.

  2. Analyze Exam Question Formats -

    Identify and interpret common pharmacy exam question types to enhance test-taking strategies and familiarity with the board exam structure.

  3. Assess Knowledge Proficiency -

    Track quiz performance to pinpoint strengths and weaknesses, allowing targeted review of pharmacy practice topics and improving overall readiness.

  4. Improve Recall and Speed -

    Practice timed questions to boost recall efficiency and decision-making speed necessary for success on the Pharmacy Board Exam.

  5. Utilize PDF Study Resources -

    Navigate and incorporate pharmacy exam questions and answers PDF materials into your study plan for a comprehensive review.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Pharmacokinetic Half-Life Calculations -

    Understanding half-life (t½) is crucial for dosing schedules on pharmacy exam questions; use t½ = 0.693/ke to calculate drug elimination. For example, if ke = 0.1 hr❻¹, then t½ = 6.93 hours and steady state is achieved in about 4 - 5 half-lives. Practicing these calculations in pharmacy test questions ensures you can quickly determine dosing intervals under time pressure.

  2. Concentration and Dilution Formulas (C1V1=C2V2) -

    Many pharmacist exam questions require mastery of C1V1=C2V2 when preparing IV admixtures. For instance, to make 250 mL of 0.9% NaCl from a 3% stock, calculate V1 = (0.9% × 250 mL) / 3% = 75 mL of stock solution. Repeated practice with these pharmacy practice questions solidifies accuracy in real-world compounding.

  3. Receptor Pharmacodynamics and Mnemonics -

    Pharmacy exam questions often test agonist vs antagonist actions on receptors; remember "PAMs Potentiate, NAMs Nullify." Positive allosteric modulators (PAMs) enhance receptor activity, while negative allosteric modulators (NAMs) inhibit it. Using this mnemonic in your review of pharmacy exam questions and answers PDF topics helps you recall mechanisms swiftly.

  4. USP <797> Sterile Compounding Guidelines -

    Questions on sterile technique are staples of the board, focusing on beyond-use dating (BUD) and garbing requirements. For low-risk IV admixtures in a cleanroom, BUD is 48 hours at room temperature or 14 days refrigerated. Refer to official USP <797> documents when tackling pharmacy exam questions to ensure compliance with current standards.

  5. Medication Safety and Error Prevention -

    Pharmacist exam questions frequently address look-alike/sound-alike drugs; use Tall Man lettering (e.g., hydrALAzine vs hydrOXYzine) to minimize errors. Incorporate safety checks like independent double-checks for high-alert medications. Practicing these pharmacy test questions will reinforce habits that reduce real-world dispensing mistakes.

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