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Quizzes > Health & Medicine

Pharmacy Quiz: Test Your Medication Knowledge

Quick, free pharmacy trivia to check your skills. Instant results.

Editorial: Review CompletedCreated By: Alejandro MendozaUpdated Aug 27, 2025
Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art pharmacy quiz with pills, test tubes, mortar and pestle, question icons on golden yellow background

This pharmacy quiz helps you check your medication knowledge and spot gaps before a class, exam, or shift. You can also try our drug knowledge quiz for deeper drug facts, work through pharmacy test questions to practice exam-style items, or explore a nursing pharmacology quiz if you support patient care at the bedside. Questions are short, clear, and give instant feedback so you learn fast.

What is the generic name of Tylenol?
Naproxen
Aspirin
Acetaminophen
Ibuprofen
Tylenol is the brand name for acetaminophen, which is an analgesic and antipyretic agent. Acetaminophen works by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis in the central nervous system. It does not have significant anti-inflammatory properties like NSAIDs.
Which vitamin is also known as ascorbic acid?
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
Vitamin D
Vitamin K
Ascorbic acid is the chemical name for Vitamin C, an essential nutrient involved in collagen synthesis and antioxidant protection. Deficiency in Vitamin C leads to scurvy, characterized by bleeding gums and poor wound healing. It must be obtained through diet or supplements.
What does the abbreviation 'OTC' stand for in pharmacy?
Over the Counter
On The Clock
Once The Course
Over The Course
OTC stands for Over the Counter, referring to medications available without a prescription. These drugs are considered safe for use by the general public when used as directed. The FDA regulates OTC labeling and safety.
In prescription terminology, what does 'Rx' denote?
Prescription
Over The Counter
Pharmacodynamics
Pharmacy
The symbol 'Rx' originates from the Latin word 'recipe,' meaning 'take.' It is universally used to denote a medical prescription. Pharmacists use it as the heading on prescription orders.
Which schedule of controlled substances has the highest potential for abuse according to the DEA?
Schedule II
Schedule IV
Schedule I
Schedule III
DEA Schedule I drugs are classified as having no currently accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. Examples include heroin and LSD. These substances are strictly prohibited in most contexts.
Which organization sets official standards for medicines' quality, purity, strength, and consistency in the United States?
Food and Drug Administration
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
World Health Organization
United States Pharmacopeia (USP)
The United States Pharmacopeia (USP) establishes enforceable standards for drugs, dietary supplements, and compounding practices. These standards are recognized by the FDA as official. USP monographs define quality attributes and testing methods.
Which of these is an example of a beta-lactam antibiotic?
Penicillin
Erythromycin
Ciprofloxacin
Tetracycline
Beta-lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin, contain a beta-lactam ring in their structure, which interferes with bacterial cell wall synthesis. Erythromycin is a macrolide, ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone, and tetracycline belongs to the tetracycline class. Resistance mechanisms often target the beta-lactam ring.
What type of pharmacy practice specializes in preparing customized medications for individual patients?
Compounding pharmacy
Retail pharmacy
Clinical pharmacy
Hospital pharmacy
Compounding pharmacies create personalized medication formulations when commercially available products do not meet a patient's needs. They can alter dosage forms, combine ingredients, or remove allergens. Compounding follows USP <795> and <797> standards.
Which route of administration delivers medication directly into the bloodstream?
Subcutaneous
Intramuscular
Intravenous
Oral
Intravenous (IV) administration delivers drugs directly into the venous circulation, providing rapid onset and complete bioavailability. Intramuscular and subcutaneous routes have slower absorption, and oral route undergoes first-pass metabolism. IV is preferred in emergencies.
What is the primary organ responsible for the metabolism of most drugs?
Liver
Pancreas
Kidney
Lung
The liver contains enzymes, especially cytochrome P450s, that metabolize the majority of medications into more water-soluble compounds for excretion. Although the kidney excretes drug metabolites, metabolism primarily occurs in hepatic tissue. Liver impairment can significantly alter drug clearance.
Which enzyme family is primarily involved in phase I drug metabolism?
Cytochrome P450
Lipase
Beta-lactamase
Amylase
Cytochrome P450 enzymes catalyze oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis reactions in phase I metabolism. These reactions introduce or expose functional groups on drug molecules. Other enzymes like amylase and lipase target nutrients, not drugs.
The term 'bioavailability' most accurately refers to:
The intensity of a drug's effect
The fraction of an administered dose reaching systemic circulation
The speed at which a drug is eliminated
The volume in which a drug is distributed
Bioavailability (F) is defined as the proportion of an administered dose that reaches systemic circulation intact. It is a key factor in determining dosing regimens. Factors like first-pass metabolism and formulation affect bioavailability.
Typical isotonicity for intravenous solutions is approximately:
700-800 mOsm/L
100-150 mOsm/L
280-300 mOsm/L
500-600 mOsm/L
Human plasma osmolarity is around 285 mOsm/L, so IV solutions are formulated between 280 - 300 mOsm/L to be isotonic. Solutions outside this range can cause hemolysis or crenation of red blood cells. Maintaining isotonicity is critical for patient safety.
Which controlled substance schedule allows for five refills within six months?
Schedule III
Schedule V
Schedule IV
Schedule II
Schedule III substances may be refilled up to five times within six months after the prescription date. Schedule II drugs have no refills and require new prescriptions. Schedules IV and V have different refill rules.
Which insulin type has an onset of action within 15 minutes?
Lispro
Glargine
Detemir
NPH
Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin analog with an onset of about 10 - 15 minutes. NPH is intermediate-acting, while glargine and detemir are long-acting. Rapid-acting insulins are used at mealtimes to control postprandial glucose.
What sterilization method uses pressurized steam to kill microorganisms?
Dry heat oven
Filtration
UV radiation
Autoclave
An autoclave uses pressurized steam at 121°C (or higher) for a specified time to sterilize heat-resistant equipment and solutions. Filtration and UV radiation do not use heat. Dry heat ovens require higher temperatures and longer cycles.
ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril primarily inhibit which enzyme?
Phosphodiesterase
Cyclooxygenase
Angiotensin-converting enzyme
Monoamine oxidase
ACE inhibitors block the angiotensin-converting enzyme, preventing the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. This leads to vasodilation and reduced blood pressure. They also decrease aldosterone secretion, reducing fluid retention.
In pharmacokinetics, the volume of distribution (Vd) relates to:
The actual blood volume
The kidney filtration rate
The rate of drug absorption
The theoretical volume needed to contain the total drug concentration in plasma
Volume of distribution is a theoretical value that describes how a drug disperses between plasma and tissues. It is calculated by dividing the total amount of drug in the body by the plasma concentration. It does not represent a physical volume.
Phase II biotransformation reactions typically involve:
Hydrolysis
Oxidation
Reduction
Conjugation
Phase II metabolism involves conjugation reactions where endogenous molecules like glucuronic acid or sulfate are attached to drug metabolites, increasing water solubility. Phase I reactions include oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis. Conjugation enhances renal excretion.
Which equation correctly calculates a drug's elimination half-life (t1/2)?
t1/2 = k_el / 0.693
t1/2 = CL / Vd
t1/2 = 0.693 / k_el
t1/2 = Vd × k_el
The elimination half-life is calculated by dividing the natural log of 2 (0.693) by the elimination rate constant (k_el). This describes the time required for plasma concentration to fall by half. The other equations are not correct for half-life calculation.
According to USP <795>, the beyond-use date for nonaqueous formulations should be no later than:
6 months
1 year
Manufacturer's expiration date
30 days
USP <795> specifies that nonaqueous compounded preparations should not be assigned a beyond-use date later than 6 months or the earliest expiration date of any active ingredient, whichever is earlier. This ensures stability and safety. Aqueous formulations have shorter limits. USP <795>
What is the primary goal of intravenous admixture compatibility testing?
To determine drug potency over time
To prevent precipitation or chemical incompatibility in IV solutions
To evaluate oral absorption
To assess patient compliance
Compatibility testing assesses whether drugs mixed in IV solutions will remain stable and free of precipitation or chemical reactions. Incompatibilities can lead to reduced efficacy or harmful particulates. It is a critical safety measure in parenteral therapy.
Genetic polymorphisms in which enzyme can significantly affect warfarin dosing?
UDP-glucuronosyltransferase
CYP1A2
CYP3A4
CYP2C9
Polymorphisms in CYP2C9 can reduce the enzyme's activity, leading to slower warfarin metabolism and increased bleeding risk. Dosing algorithms often incorporate CYP2C9 genotype. VKORC1 variants also influence response.
Which USP standard covers sterile compounding practices?
USP <795>
USP <825>
USP <800>
USP <797>
USP <797> provides enforceable standards for compounding sterile preparations to ensure patient safety and product quality. USP <795> addresses nonsterile compounding, <800> covers hazardous drugs, and <825> focuses on radiopharmaceuticals. Compliance is mandatory in the U.S. USP <797>
In a two-compartment pharmacokinetic model, the alpha phase represents:
Absorption from the GI tract
Drug distribution between central and peripheral compartments
Metabolism in the liver
Drug elimination from the body
In a two-compartment model, the alpha phase (distribution phase) describes the rapid movement of drug from the central (plasma) compartment into peripheral tissues. The beta phase follows, representing elimination. Understanding these phases aids in dosing and pharmacokinetic analysis.
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Study Outcomes

  1. Recall Essential Drug Classifications -

    After completing the quiz, readers will be able to recall and differentiate major drug classes commonly used in pharmacy practice.

  2. Identify Standard Dosages and Measurements -

    Readers will recognize typical dosage ranges and measurement units for various medications, enhancing dosing accuracy.

  3. Interpret Pharmacy Abbreviations and Terminology -

    Participants will become familiar with common pharmacy shorthand and terms to streamline prescription interpretation.

  4. Apply Medication Knowledge to Quick-Think Scenarios -

    The quiz format will help readers practice applying drug and dosage information under time constraints for real-world readiness.

  5. Evaluate Knowledge Strengths and Weaknesses -

    Users will analyze their quiz results to pinpoint areas of robust knowledge and topics that need further review.

  6. Engage in Ongoing Pharmacy Learning -

    Readers will use this fun pharmacy trivia quiz online as a springboard for continuous learning and retention of pharmacy essentials.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Metric System Mastery -

    Pharmacists rely on the metric system for accurate dosing, converting milligrams (mg) to grams (g) by remembering that 1 g = 1000 mg. Practice converting quantities using sample dosages: for example, 250 mg = 0.25 g, ensuring precision in compounding and dispensing (FDA guidelines). A quick trick is to move the decimal three places: mg to g moves left, g to mg moves right.

  2. Drug Name Etymology -

    Many generic names stem from chemical structures; for example, beta-blockers often end in "-olol" (e.g., propranolol), while ACE inhibitors end in "-pril" (e.g., lisinopril). Recognizing these suffixes helps answer fun pharmacy trivia questions and answers quickly (American Pharmacists Association). It's a handy trick when you need to identify drug classes in a hurry.

  3. Ten Rights of Medication Administration -

    The ten rights ensure safe dispensing: patient, drug, dose, route, time, documentation, reason, response, education, and refusal (ISMP). Use the mnemonic "Please Don't Rush Deliveries Today; Remember Every Rx" to lock in each step. Mastering these rights gives you confidence in any pharmacy knowledge quiz or real-world scenario.

  4. Major Prescription Drug Classes -

    According to IMS Health, top prescription classes by volume include antihyperlipidemics (e.g., atorvastatin), antidepressants (e.g., sertraline), ACE inhibitors (e.g., lisinopril), proton-pump inhibitors (e.g., omeprazole), and opioid analgesics (e.g., oxycodone). Knowing their mechanisms - like statins inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase - prepares you for pharmacy quiz questions and answers. Reviewing these common medications cements your mastery for pharmacy trivia challenges.

  5. Cytochrome P450 Isoenzyme Mnemonics -

    Drug metabolism often hinges on CYP450 enzymes; remember the key players CYP3A4, CYP2D6, and CYP2C9. A popular mnemonic is "3A for sex, 2D for ecstasy, 2C for cutie" to recall CYP3A4, CYP2D6, and CYP2C9 (NIH). Mastering these pathways gives you an edge in pharmacy trivia and real-world drug interaction checks.

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