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Quizzes > Science

ATC test: practice real-world air traffic control decisions

Quick, free ATC practice test with instant results.

Editorial: Review CompletedCreated By: Danny LeonUpdated Aug 28, 2025
Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art illustration for ATC assessment test quiz on a coral background

This quiz helps you sharpen decisions for the ATC test - sequencing traffic, setting separation, and making clear calls. Get instant feedback as you work through realistic scenarios. Want more practice beyond this set? Try air traffic control practice to review rules and procedures, and explore aviation test questions to strengthen your broader aviation knowledge.

What does the radio phrase "Wilco" signify?
Willing to comply if needed
Will comply
Will call you
Continuously monitor
"Wilco" is the contraction of "will comply" in standard ATC phraseology, indicating the pilot has understood and will follow the instructions received. It removes ambiguity by confirming intent rather than repeating the entire instruction. It is distinct from "Roger," which only acknowledges receipt.
In aviation meteorology, what does "CAVOK" mean?
Ceiling and Visibility OK
Visibility and Obstructions Known
Clouds at Visual Operations Key
Ceiling Above VFR Only
CAVOK is an abbreviation for "Ceiling And Visibility OK," meaning visibility is 10 km or more, no clouds below 5,000 ft, and no significant weather. It simplifies METAR and TAF reports for clear conditions. Knowing CAVOK helps controllers and pilots quickly assess VFR or IFR requirements.
Which altimeter pressure setting provides altitude above mean sea level?
QNH
QFE
QFF
QNE
QNH is the altimeter setting that, when set, displays altitude above mean sea level. Pilots use QNH to ensure standardized altitude references across an airspace. QFE gives height above the airfield, while QNE is the standard 1013.25 hPa setting at or above the transition altitude.
What is the standard rate of turn in degrees per second used by ATC for heading changes?
2° per second
5° per second
3° per second
1.5° per second
A standard rate turn is defined as 3° per second, resulting in a 360° turn in two minutes. This uniform rate helps controllers predict aircraft heading changes for radar vectoring without needing aircraft-specific performance data. It is internationally standardized under ICAO.
What is the standard VFR transponder code in most European airspaces?
7000
7600
7700
7500
In most European countries, the standard VFR squawk code is 7000, indicating an aircraft operating under Visual Flight Rules. This code alerts ATC that the flight is VFR and simplifies radar identification in non-controlled airspace. Emergency or abnormal situations use different codes.
What does the phrase "Cleared as filed" indicate when issued by ATC?
The flight may proceed following its original flight plan without changes
The flight plan is accepted with modifications
The flight must file a new flight plan
The flight is cleared for an immediate climb
"Cleared as filed" means ATC approves the pilot's filed flight plan route, altitude, and speed without amendments. It allows pilots to depart or climb according to their original plan, saving time on departure clearances. If modifications are necessary, ATC will specify "as filed except…".
According to the ICAO phonetic alphabet, how is the letter "F" transmitted?
Foxtrot
Flash
Falcon
Foxtail
The ICAO phonetic alphabet uses unique words to represent letters unambiguously over radio. "F" is "Foxtrot." This reduces miscommunication, especially around similar-sounding letters. Pilots and controllers worldwide follow this standard.
Which transponder code is used to indicate a hijacking situation?
7600
7500
7700
7000
The squawk code 7500 is reserved internationally to signal unlawful interference or hijacking. ATC monitoring this code will initiate security protocols and specialized coordination. It differs from 7600 (radio failure) and 7700 (general emergency).
What transponder code should be set to indicate radio communication failure?
7700
7500
7600
7000
Squawk code 7600 is used to declare radio failure. ATC responds by using procedural separation or predetermined procedures for lost communications. Pilots follow the lost comms procedures outlined in ICAO and FAA regulations.
Which transponder code indicates a general emergency?
7700
7500
7600
7777
Squawk code 7700 signifies any general emergency. It alerts all ATC sectors that the flight is in distress and may require priority handling and assistance. This code overrides any other set code until cleared by ATC.
What is the correct holding pattern entry if an aircraft approaches the fix from the 030° bearing to hold on the outbound 330° course?
Parallel entry
Teardrop entry
Direct entry
No entry required
With an outbound course of 330°, the inbound course is 150°. Approaching from 030°, the angle between bearing and inbound course is 120°, which falls in the parallel entry sector (>110°). The parallel entry procedure is then used.
What does the phrase "Point out" mean in ATC transfers?
The aircraft must point its nose at the traffic
Providing traffic information without transferring control
Complete transfer of control
Pilot must report position to the next controller
"Point out" is used when ATC provides traffic information to another sector or controller but does not transfer control responsibility. It ensures situational awareness between controllers for conflict avoidance. A formal handover is required to transfer control.
What is the required time to fly outbound legs in a holding pattern at or below 14,000 feet?
1.5 minutes
1 minute
30 seconds
2 minutes
Holding legs at or below 14,000 ft are timed at 1 minute inbound, not outbound. Correction: many regulations state outbound legs at 1 minute. Standard timing ensures predictable separation and fuel calculations are consistent. Above 14,000 ft, legs are timed at 1.5 minutes.
What is the minimum vertical separation standard between FL290 and FL410 in non-RVSM airspace?
2,000 ft
3,000 ft
1,500 ft
1,000 ft
Non-RVSM airspace above FL290 requires 2,000 ft vertical separation to account for altimeter variations at high altitudes. This ensures safety when RVSM equipment isn't certified. In RVSM-certified airspace, separation is reduced to 1,000 ft.
In RVSM airspace between FL290 and FL410, what minimum vertical separation is used?
1,000 ft
3,000 ft
1,500 ft
2,000 ft
RVSM (Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum) allows 1,000 ft vertical separation between FL290 and FL410 for certified aircraft. This increases airspace capacity while maintaining safety standards. Aircraft require specific altimetry and autopilot performance to operate in RVSM.
How many seconds does it take to complete a 30° turn at a standard rate?
10 seconds
20 seconds
5 seconds
30 seconds
At a standard rate of 3° per second, a 30° turn requires 10 seconds (30° ÷ 3°/sec). Controllers use this to estimate vectoring time and headings for radar vectors. Pilots use their turn coordinator to maintain this rate.
When issuing a climb to FL100 in non-radar control, what phraseology should be used to ensure the flight level is maintained?
Climb to FL100, report level
Climb and maintain FL100
Climb to FL100, maintain
Climb FL100, hold
"Climb and maintain FL100" conforms to standard ICAO and FAA phraseology when no radar is available. It clearly instructs the pilot to climb to FL100 and hold that altitude. Alternatives can introduce ambiguity or imply reporting requirements.
According to ICAO wake turbulence separation minima, how many nautical miles should a small aircraft follow behind a heavy aircraft on final approach?
2 NM
6 NM
8 NM
4 NM
ICAO prescribes 6 NM separation for a small aircraft following a heavy on final approach to avoid hazardous wake turbulence. Heavier aircraft generate stronger vortices, requiring increased spacing. Controllers apply these minima when issuing landing clearances.
A METAR reports "VRB04KT". What does this indicate?
Variable visibility restricted to 400 meters
Approach lights variable within 04 knots
Winds from vortex 4 KT
Variable wind at 4 kt
In METAR language, "VRB04KT" means the wind direction is variable and the speed is 4 knots. No fixed wind bearing is given because the variation exceeds certain thresholds. Pilots and controllers use this to plan approaches and departures.
If an aircraft is on heading 090° and experiences a 20 kt wind from 180°, what approximate wind correction angle should be applied at 120 kt true airspeed?
20° left
15° right
10° right
5° left
Wind from 180° is a crosswind from the right when heading 090°. Using WCA ? arcsin(20/120) yields about 10°. The pilot must correct right to counteract drift downwind. Calculations like this are essential for precise vector following.
Under IFR, what is the primary purpose of a STAR (Standard Terminal Arrival Route)?
Assign holding patterns at destination
Provide a predetermined IFR arrival route integrating en route structure with approach phase
Provide departure routing
Simplify clearance delivery
A STAR provides a published arrival route that transitions IFR flights from en route to the initial approach fix or terminal area, reducing controller workload and standardizing traffic flows. It includes waypoints, altitudes, and speeds. Pilots must file STARs where available.
What is the minimum safe altitude to clear obstacles by 1,000 feet within 25 NM of a VOR in non-mountainous regions?
MSA 2,000 ft above airport elevation
MSA 500 ft above highest obstacle
MSA based on QNH
MSA 1,000 ft above highest obstacle
The Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) provides 1,000 ft obstacle clearance within 25 NM of a VOR (in non-mountainous areas) above the highest terrain or obstacle. It's depicted on terminal procedure charts for emergency reference. It does not guarantee navigation signal coverage.
In radar vectoring, what intercept angle is typically used for final approach courses?
45°
10°
30°
90°
A 30° intercept angle is commonly used to join the final approach course, balancing time to stabilize on final with minimal overshoot. Too steep an angle requires more correction and can disrupt the approach flow. Controllers tailor vectors to traffic and weather.
Two aircraft are on reciprocal headings at 30 NM apart. If each is flying 480 kt groundspeed towards each other, what is their closing speed in knots?
960 kt
240 kt
480 kt
720 kt
Reciprocal tracks at equal speeds result in closure rate equal to the sum of both groundspeeds: 480 kt + 480 kt = 960 kt. Controllers must be aware of closure rates to ensure adequate separation. It directly affects time to CPA (Closest Point of Approach).
In RVSM operations, which procedure must a pilot follow to ensure altitude-keeping performance meets standards?
Report altitude deviations larger than 500 ft
Maintain vertical speed below 1,000 fpm
Squawk 7500 after passing FL290
Use standby altimeter only
RVSM requires pilots to report any altitude deviation exceeding ±200 ft, but many procedures reference alert at 500 ft. This ensures corrective action before the 1,000 ft separation limit is compromised. Aircraft altimetry systems must be approved and monitored.
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Study Outcomes

  1. Apply NATO Phonetic Alphabet -

    Demonstrate accurate use of the phonetic alphabet to ensure clear, unambiguous communication in ATC scenarios.

  2. Interpret Airspace Rules -

    Identify and apply relevant airspace classifications and regulations to maintain safety and compliance during an ATC assessment test.

  3. Manage Real-Time Traffic -

    Execute effective sequencing and separation techniques under time pressure, mirroring the challenges of an air traffic controller practice test.

  4. Demonstrate Communication Precision -

    Use concise phraseology and structured transmissions to reduce misunderstandings and improve operational efficiency.

  5. Analyze Conflict Resolution -

    Assess potential traffic conflicts and select the best deconfliction strategies to ensure safe aircraft operations.

  6. Evaluate Personal ATC Proficiency -

    Review quiz results and identify strengths and areas for improvement to guide your ATC test prep effectively.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Phonetic Alphabet Fluency -

    Memorize the ICAO phonetic alphabet to ensure flawless communication; for example, "Alpha, Bravo, Charlie…" helps prevent misheard callsigns in the ATC assessment test. Use the mnemonic "A Better Choice Delivers Excellent Flight Guidance" to recall the first five letters. Regular drills with flashcards or ATC practice test apps solidify this foundation (source: ICAO Doc 9432).

  2. Standard Radio Phraseology -

    Master the FAA's and ICAO's prescribed phraseology (e.g., "Cleared for takeoff," "Maintain FL350") to convey clear, concise instructions. Practicing sample transmissions from FAA JO 7110.65 will boost your confidence during an air traffic skills assessment practice test free sessions. Remember the template: call sign + instruction + altitude/speed + runway or frequency for consistent clarity (source: FAA).

  3. Airspace Classification & Separation -

    Review Classes A through G airspace rules, including VFR/IFR requirements and altitude limits - Class A is all IFR, Classes B - E vary by region. A handy tip: "A Bunch of Crazy Flyers Enjoying Good Ham" can help you remember order A - G. Simulate scenarios in an atc practice test to apply separation minima (3 NM laterally in radar control, 1,000 ft vertically) from FAA Order JO 7110.65.

  4. Conflict Detection & Resolution -

    Understand lateral and vertical separation standards and use conflict probes in simulation tools to detect potential altitude or heading conflicts early. Apply the "3 - 6 - 1000 Rule" (3 NM, 6 NM, 1,000 ft) when deciding if a conflict exists in non-radar or procedural environments. Practice resolving a traffic conflict by issuing timely vectors and altitude changes in an atc test prep scenario (source: Eurocontrol).

  5. Instrument Procedures & Weather Minima -

    Familiarize yourself with ILS, VOR, RNAV approach plates and required visibility/ceiling minima for each procedure to handle diverse weather conditions. Use Jeppesen chart samples for realistic practice in your air traffic controller practice test sessions. Remember "500 - 1-3 Rule" (500 ft ceiling, 1 mile visibility, 300 ft approach segment) as a quick-weather-check mnemonic (source: FAA AIM).

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