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Air law exam questions: PPL mock exam

Quick, free air law practice exam with instant results.

Editorial: Review CompletedCreated By: Bobbie RichardsUpdated Aug 28, 2025
Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art illustration for PPL Air Law Exam Quiz on teal background

This PPL Air Law quiz helps you practice key rules, spot gaps, and build exam confidence. Strengthen your regs knowledge with the Canadian Aviation Regulations practice test and the cars exam, and sharpen comms and procedures with air traffic control practice. Get instant feedback as you go.

What document must a pilot have on board for every flight?
Weight and Balance Sheet
Aircraft Logbook
Pilot Licence
Passenger Manifest
A pilot is required by air law to carry a valid pilot licence during flight operations to demonstrate certification. The aircraft logbook and weight and balance sheet are important for aircraft operations but are the responsibility of the operator, not the pilot personally. A passenger manifest is not mandatory for PPL operations.
What does ATC stand for?
Air Transportation Center
Aeronautical Telecommunication Circuit
Air Traffic Control
Automatic Traffic Coordination
ATC stands for Air Traffic Control, which is the service provided to regulate and assist aircraft in flight and on the ground. It ensures safe separation and efficient flow of air traffic. Other options are incorrect acronyms.
What is the minimum flight visibility required for VFR operations in Class G airspace by day under EASA rules?
3 km
5 km
1500 m
8 km
Under EASA VMC minima for Class G by day, the minimum horizontal visibility required is 5 km. Pilots must also remain clear of clouds in Class G airspace. This ensures adequate visual separation from other traffic and terrain.
What is the standard transponder code for VFR flights under EASA?
7700
7500
7000
7600
The standard VFR transponder code in EASA member states is 7000. Code 7600 indicates radio failure, 7700 emergency, and 7500 hijack. Using 7000 allows ATC to identify VFR flights on radar.
What does NOTAM stand for?
Notice to Aircraft Maintenance
Notice to Airmen
Notification of Air Movements
Notice to Air Operators
NOTAM stands for Notice to Airmen, an ICAO term for time-critical aeronautical information. It alerts pilots to hazards, airspace restrictions, and other changes. Modern terminology is changing to Notification to Air Missions, but the acronym remains.
When two aircraft are approaching head-on, what action should each pilot take?
Both climb
Both turn left
Both descend
Both turn right
ICAO and EASA rules require both aircraft in a head-on situation to alter course to the right to avoid collision. Turning right standardizes avoidance actions and reduces confusion. Turning left or vertical changes are not prescribed.
Which frequency band is typically used for civil VHF communication?
225 - 400 MHz
2 - 30 MHz
400 - 800 MHz
118 - 137 MHz
The civil aviation VHF band spans from 118.000 MHz to 137.000 MHz for ATC and air-to-air communications. It provides clear line-of-sight transmission. HF (2 - 30 MHz) is used for long-range communications, and UHF (225 - 400 MHz) predominantly by military.
In uncontrolled airspace, who is primarily responsible for maintaining separation from other aircraft?
Flight Information Service
The Pilot
Air Traffic Control
Aerodrome Operator
In uncontrolled (Class G) airspace, there is no ATC separation service. Pilots are responsible for seeing and avoiding other traffic. Flight Information Service only provides advisory information.
Which lighting is mandatory for night flight operations?
Taxi light
Beacon light
Position lights
Landing lights
Position lights (red on left wing, green on right, white on tail) must be displayed from sunset to sunrise. Landing and taxi lights improve visibility but are not strictly mandatory. Beacon lights are required when engines are running but not time-specific.
Which publication provides detailed procedures and rules for aerodromes?
Aerodrome Directory
Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
Flight Supplement
NOTAM Bulletin
The Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) is the primary source for permanent aerodrome procedures and rules. It is published by each state and follows ICAO Annex 15 standards. Flight supplements and directories are secondary references.
What does PPL stand for in aviation?
Professional Pilot Licence
Public Pilot Licence
Private Pilot Licence
Pilot Proficiency Level
PPL stands for Private Pilot Licence, which allows the holder to act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft non-commercially. It is governed by EASA Part-FCL in Europe.Professional or Public Pilot Licence are not official terms.
At what minimum age can you apply for a Private Pilot Licence in Europe?
16 years
21 years
17 years
18 years
The minimum age to hold a PPL is 17 years, although flight training may start at age 16. This requirement is specified in EASA Part-FCL. Younger applicants cannot take the licence exam until reaching 17.
What is the minimum distance from cloud required for VFR in Class C airspace?
1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically
500 m horizontally and 200 ft vertically
1000 m horizontally and 500 ft vertically
Clear of clouds only
Class C VMC minima require pilots to remain at least 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically from clouds. This ensures separation from IFR traffic. The 1000 m and 500 ft option applies in some uncontrolled airspace but not Class C.
What transponder code should be set for radio communication failure?
7700
7500
7000
7600
Squawk code 7600 is used to indicate radio communication failure to ATC. Code 7000 is the VFR code, 7700 denotes emergency, and 7500 indicates unlawful interference. This standard helps ATC anticipate pilot actions.
What is the default transition altitude in the UK when not otherwise specified?
3000 ft
18000 ft
5000 ft
Flight Level 60
The UK default transition altitude is 3000 ft above aerodrome elevation unless published otherwise in the AIP. Above this altitude, pilots switch to standard pressure for flight levels. Flight Level 60 and 18000 ft are not default values in the UK.
What does SERA stand for in European air law?
Standardised European Rules of the Air
Safety Emphasis in Regional Aviation
Standard European Radar Approach
Security Enforcement Regulation Authority
SERA stands for Standardised European Rules of the Air and harmonises flight rules across EASA member states. It is implemented under EU Regulation 923/2012. Other options do not correspond to official acronyms.
In Class D airspace, what separation service is provided?
Full separation to all flights
IFR separation and traffic information to VFR flights
Only providing traffic advisories on request
No separation services
In Class D airspace, ATC provides separation between IFR flights and offers traffic information to VFR flights upon request or when workload permits. Full separation for VFR is not provided. This supports safe mixed operations.
What is indicated by squawk code 7700?
Hijack
Radio failure
Emergency
Military interception
Squawk code 7700 is the universal distress code indicating an emergency. 7500 is for hijack, 7600 for radio failure, and 7777 for military interception. This allows ATC to prioritize assistance.
What is the typical glideslope angle for an ILS approach?
6 degrees
1 degree
3 degrees
4.5 degrees
The standard ILS glideslope is set at approximately 3°. This angle balances descent rate and runway threshold crossing height. Variations are rare and published in approach charts.
Which of the following is not a mandatory document for an aircraft?
Radio licence
Certificate of Airworthiness
Passenger manifest
Registration Certificate
For private operations, a passenger manifest is not mandatory; it may be used for commercial flights. A Certificate of Airworthiness, Registration Certificate, and Radio Licence must be on board. These ensure legal and safe operations.
What does PPR stand for in aerodrome operations?
Public Performance Regulation
Pilot Pre-flight Report
Pre-flight Procedure Review
Prior Permission Required
PPR means Prior Permission Required and indicates that the aerodrome operator must grant permission before arrival. It helps manage traffic at private or constrained fields. It is not a performance review process.
When may a pilot cancel an IFR flight plan?
Only after landing
Only over water
When VMC conditions are established outside controlled airspace
At any point in controlled airspace
An IFR flight plan may be canceled once the aircraft is in VMC and outside controlled airspace so that ATC separation services are no longer required. It cannot be canceled arbitrarily inside controlled areas.
What defines a standard rate turn?
10 degrees per second
3 degrees per second
5 degrees per second
1 degree per second
A standard rate turn is defined as 3° per second, completing a 360° turn in two minutes. This rate standardizes instrument flight procedures. Slower or faster rates are non-standard unless required.
By when must VFR flight plans be activated after departure?
Only upon request by ATC
Within 2 hours
Immediately at takeoff
Within 30 minutes
VFR flight plans should be activated within 30 minutes of the filed departure time, ensuring search and rescue authorities are alerted if no activation occurs. Late activation can delay a SAR response.
Which transponder capability is required to operate in Mode S airspace?
No transponder required
Mode A transponder
Mode C only
Mode S capable transponder
Mode S airspace requires a transponder capable of Mode S, which supports selective addressing and data link features. Mode A/C lacks the selective addressing and altitude reporting required. This enhances surveillance and safety.
What altitude will the altimeter read at aerodrome level when set to QFE?
The transition altitude
Unknown
0 ft
The field elevation
QFE is the atmospheric pressure at the aerodrome reference level; setting QFE on the altimeter makes the altimeter read zero at that elevation. It does not display field elevation above mean sea level.
What does the term "endurance" refer to in flight planning?
Maximum payload capacity
Maximum time the aircraft can remain airborne on available fuel
Maximum distance covered
Fuel consumption rate
Endurance is the total time an aircraft can fly with the fuel on board under specified conditions. It is distinct from range, which is distance. Proper endurance planning ensures safe fuel reserves.
Under what circumstances may an IFR pilot deviate from ATC clearance?
To shorten the route
To avoid a collision or due to another emergency
To avoid turbulence
For better fuel efficiency
ATC clearances must be followed unless deviation is necessary to avoid collision or in other emergency situations. Safety of flight always takes precedence over ATC instructions. Pilots must inform ATC of any deviations as soon as possible.
What frequencies are designated for emergency communications?
123.45 MHz and 126.7 MHz
122.8 MHz and 128.8 MHz
118.0 MHz and 136.0 MHz
121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz
121.500 MHz is the international civilian emergency frequency and 243.000 MHz is the military equivalent. These are monitored by ATC and rescue agencies worldwide. Other frequencies are used for routine communications.
According to the AIP, where is the transition level published?
It is not published
In the aircraft flight manual
In the Aeronautical Information Publication
On NOTAMs only
The transition level is published in the AIP under the en-route navigation procedures. Pilots must consult the AIP for current transition levels. It is not listed in the aircraft flight manual or solely via NOTAMs.
What is the form used to certify complex motor-powered aircraft maintenance?
EASA Form 2
CAA Form E
EASA Form 1
FAA 337
EASA Form 1 is the authorized release certificate for significant maintenance on complex motor-powered aircraft. It details the maintenance performed and certifies airworthiness. Other forms do not apply under EASA Part 145.
What chart scale is typically used for VFR navigation to show aerodromes and landmarks?
1:250,000
1:500,000
1:1,000,000
1:50,000
ICAO VFR navigation charts are usually 1:500 000 scale, balancing detail and coverage for general aviation. Smaller or larger scales are used for terminal or en-route IFR charts. Using 1:50,000 would be overly detailed for VFR navigation.
What is the minimum daytime fuel reserve required for a VFR cross-country flight?
No reserve required
30 minutes at normal cruise
60 minutes at endurance speed
15 minutes at maximum power
Regulations require a minimum fuel reserve of 30 minutes of normal cruise fuel for day VFR flights. This ensures an adequate buffer for unexpected delays. Night VFR reserves are typically longer.
What cross-country flight time must a PPL applicant complete including a solo flight of 270 NM?
10 hours
20 hours
5 hours
2 hours
PPL applicants must log at least 10 hours of cross-country flight time, including a solo flight of at least 270 NM with full-stop landings at two different aerodromes. This ensures adequate navigation experience.
How often must an Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) be tested?
Every 6 months
Every 24 months
Every 12 months
Only after installation
ELTs must be inspected and function-tested every 12 calendar months in accordance with EASA requirements. This ensures reliable operation during an emergency. Semi-annual testing is not required.
In Class E airspace, what separation responsibility does ATC have for VFR flights?
Separation only from IFR flights
None; VFR traffic must maintain own separation
Separation only upon pilot request
Full separation from all traffic
In Class E airspace, ATC separates IFR flights but does not provide separation services to VFR flights. VFR pilots are responsible for see-and-avoid separation. Traffic information may be provided if workload permits.
What is the minimum English language proficiency level required by ICAO for PPL holders?
Level 6 (Expert)
Level 5 (Extended)
Level 3
Level 4 (Operational)
ICAO Annex 1 requires pilots to hold at least Level 4 (Operational) English proficiency to ensure clear and effective communications. This applies to radio telephony and phraseology during international operations. Lower levels do not meet the safety standards set by ICAO.
What is the maximum longitudinal separation minima for RVSM airspace?
10 NM
20 NM
15 NM
5 NM
Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) procedures allow standard longitudinal separation of 10 NM between radar tracks. This reduced spacing increases airspace capacity. 5, 15, and 20 NM are not standard for RVSM.
How is 'night' defined for licensing purposes according to ICAO?
1800 to 0600 local time
Sunset to sunrise
Period when ATC issues night operations
Period between end of evening civil twilight and beginning of morning civil twilight
ICAO defines night as the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the start of morning civil twilight. This definition aligns with ambient light levels for night training and currency. Sunset to sunrise is commonly used but not the ICAO standard.
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Study Outcomes

  1. Understand Core Aviation Regulations -

    Identify and explain the fundamental rules and regulations that govern private pilot operations, ensuring a solid foundation for your PPL Air Law Exam prep.

  2. Analyze Airspace Classifications -

    Differentiate between controlled, uncontrolled, and special use airspace classes, and recognize their operational requirements and restrictions.

  3. Apply Standard Flight Procedures -

    Demonstrate the correct application of flight procedures, including navigation and radio communication protocols, in various airspace scenarios.

  4. Interpret Scenario-Based Air Law Questions -

    Tackle realistic PPL law exam questions by applying regulatory references to solve scenario-driven challenges effectively.

  5. Evaluate Exam Readiness and Knowledge Gaps -

    Assess your strengths and areas for improvement, enabling targeted study strategies for successful air law exam preparation.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Airspace Classification and Requirements -

    Understand the seven classes of airspace (A - G) and their VFR/IFR requirements; for example, Class A is IFR-only, while Class G is uncontrolled (FAA, AIM). Use the mnemonic "All Good Airlines Fly IFR" to recall that A, G, and special Use areas have unique rules. Reviewing these in your PPL Air Law Exam prep ensures you know where you can fly and when to contact ATC.

  2. Right-of-Way Rules and Altitude Strata -

    Memorize the "Overtake, Converging, Head-on" hierarchy: overtaking has priority, then converging and head-on avoidance (ICAO Doc 4444). Also learn semicircular altitude rules (VFR hemispheres: East odd, West even thousands of feet). Practicing these rules in a free PPL air law practice test reinforces correct decision-making in real exam scenarios.

  3. Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Weather Minimums -

    Review cloud clearance and visibility minima for different airspace classes (e.g., 3 SM visibility and 500 ft below clouds in Class G below 1,200 ft AGL per FAA Part 91). Use the phrase "3-152" for 3 SM, 1,000 ft above, 500 ft below, 2,000 ft horizontal as a quick memory aid. This is a staple in private pilot air law quiz questions.

  4. NOTAMs, TFRs, and Preflight Briefings -

    Get comfortable interpreting Notice to Airmen (NOTAMs) and Temporary Flight Restrictions; they often appear in PPL law exam questions. Practice decoding a sample NOTAM, noting the format (Q-line, A-line, B-line, C-line). Integrating this into your air law exam prep helps ensure you catch critical airspace changes before departure.

  5. Communication Procedures and Phraseology -

    Master standard ATC phraseology from FAA AIM or ICAO Doc 9432 - "Cleared for takeoff," "Maintain FL070," etc. Role-play radio calls during your free PPL air law practice test to build fluency and confidence. Clear, concise communication is often tested in PPL Air Law Exam scenarios to mirror real-world cockpit demands.

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