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Quizzes > Health & Medicine > Diseases & Conditions

Take the Ultimate Cancer Trivia Quiz and Test Your Knowledge

Think you can ace our oncology trivia questions? Start the free cancer awareness quiz now!

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper cut style cancer trivia quiz artwork with ribbon microscope test tubes on dark blue background

This cancer trivia quiz helps you see what you know about oncology basics - symptoms, diagnosis, treatments, and patient care. Play to spot gaps fast and pick up new facts; if you want more practice, try the nursing quiz or go deeper with NCLEX oncology practice.

What is the defining characteristic of cancer cells?
Normal apoptosis
Limited proliferation
Continual, uncontrolled cell division
Contact inhibition
Cancer cells bypass normal regulatory mechanisms and divide uncontrollably, leading to tumor growth. They lose the normal checks on cell cycle progression and apoptosis. This uncontrolled proliferation distinguishes them from healthy cells.
Which of the following is NOT a known risk factor for many cancers?
Excessive UV exposure
Chronic viral infection
Regular physical activity
Tobacco use
Regular physical activity is generally protective against cancer by reducing inflammation and improving immune function. Tobacco, UV exposure, and certain chronic infections are well-established carcinogens. Lifestyle factors can modulate overall cancer risk.
What does the term "metastasis" refer to?
Primary tumor growth
Benign tumor formation
Cell death in a tumor
Spread of cancer to distant sites
Metastasis describes the process by which cancer cells spread from their site of origin to distant organs or tissues. This process involves invasion, intravasation, circulation, extravasation, and colonization. Metastatic disease is a hallmark of malignancy and complicates treatment.
Which screening test is commonly used for early detection of breast cancer?
Colonoscopy
Pap smear
Mammography
Low-dose CT scan
Mammography uses low-dose X-rays to detect early breast changes before they become palpable. Regular screening is recommended for women aged 40 and above to reduce mortality. It remains the standard tool for breast cancer screening.
What does the TNM staging system represent in cancer classification?
Tumor size, Nodes involved, Metastasis
Time, Necrosis, Malignancy
Therapy, Number, Mutation status
Type, Node ratio, Mitotic count
The TNM system categorizes cancers by Tumor size (T), regional lymph Node involvement (N), and distant Metastasis (M). It helps guide treatment planning and prognosis estimation. This standardized approach is used worldwide.
Which of the following substances is classified as a carcinogen?
Oxygen
Asbestos
Vitamin C
Water
Asbestos fibers can cause chronic inflammation and DNA damage, leading to mesothelioma and lung cancer. It is a Group 1 carcinogen according to IARC. Protective regulations have reduced its use but risks remain in older buildings.
What is the most common type of skin cancer?
Melanoma
Kaposi sarcoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma arises from basal cells in the epidermis and accounts for about 80% of all skin cancers. It usually grows slowly and rarely metastasizes. Early detection and treatment typically yield excellent outcomes.
What is an oncogene?
A gene that repairs DNA damage
A normal gene that causes apoptosis
A mutated gene that promotes cancer
A gene that suppresses tumor growth
Oncogenes are mutated or overexpressed versions of normal genes (proto-oncogenes) that drive cell proliferation and survival. Their activation can lead to uncontrolled cell division. Targeting oncogenes is a strategy for precision therapies.
Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is most strongly linked to which cancer?
Cervical cancer
Colorectal cancer
Pancreatic cancer
Liver cancer
High-risk HPV strains, especially HPV-16 and HPV-18, cause nearly all cases of cervical cancer. Persistent infection leads to dysplasia and invasive carcinoma. Vaccination has markedly reduced prevalence.
What is the primary purpose of a tumor biopsy?
To stage metastasis by imaging
To remove all cancerous cells
To obtain tissue for diagnosis
To measure blood tumor markers
A biopsy collects tissue or cells to confirm cancer, determine type, grade, and molecular features. It is essential for accurate diagnosis and treatment planning. Different biopsy methods include needle, excisional, and core techniques.
Which imaging modality uses high-frequency sound waves to visualize tumors?
PET scan
Ultrasound
MRI
CT scan
Ultrasound uses high-frequency sound to produce real-time images, useful for guiding biopsies and evaluating soft tissue masses. It is safe, noninvasive, and radiation-free. It complements other imaging modalities in cancer workup.
Chemotherapy primarily targets which cells?
Immune cells exclusively
Rapidly dividing cells
Dormant cells only
Neurons
Chemotherapeutic agents interfere with cell division by targeting DNA synthesis or mitosis, affecting all rapidly dividing cells. Cancer cells are particularly vulnerable but healthy proliferative tissues like bone marrow and GI mucosa are also impacted. This nonspecificity leads to common side effects.
What does it mean if a tumor is described as "benign"?
It has metastasized
It is highly aggressive
It is cancerous and invasive
It does not spread or invade surrounding tissue
Benign tumors are noncancerous growths that remain localized and typically grow slowly without invading adjacent structures. They rarely pose serious health threats but may require removal if symptomatic. They lack the capacity to metastasize.
Which tumor suppressor gene is known as the "guardian of the genome"?
KRAS
MYC
p53
BRCA1
p53 monitors DNA integrity, halts cell cycle progression, and initiates DNA repair or apoptosis if damage is irreparable. Mutations in TP53 are found in over half of human cancers. Its role is pivotal in preventing malignant transformation.
Which vitamin is also known as ascorbic acid and has been studied for its antioxidant properties in cancer prevention?
Vitamin K
Vitamin D
Vitamin C
Vitamin E
Vitamin C, or ascorbic acid, acts as an antioxidant and is essential for collagen synthesis and immune function. Studies have explored its role in reducing oxidative damage linked to carcinogenesis. Its preventive benefit remains under investigation.
Which biomarker is commonly elevated in prostate cancer screening?
CA-125
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
PSA is a protein produced by prostate tissue and elevated levels can indicate prostate cancer or benign prostatic hyperplasia. It's used for screening and monitoring treatment response. Interpretation considers age and prostate volume.
Which of the following is a targeted therapy that inhibits the BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase in chronic myeloid leukemia?
Paclitaxel
Cyclophosphamide
Doxorubicin
Imatinib
Imatinib selectively inhibits the BCR-ABL fusion protein in CML, blocking downstream signaling and leukemic cell proliferation. It transformed CML from a fatal disease into a manageable condition. Resistance mechanisms can arise, requiring second-generation inhibitors.
What is the most common subtype of non-Hodgkin lymphoma?
Mantle cell lymphoma
Burkitt lymphoma
Follicular lymphoma
Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL) is the most frequent NHL subtype, accounting for about 30 - 40% of cases. It is aggressive but potentially curable with chemoimmunotherapy. Diagnosis relies on histopathology and immunophenotyping.
Which gene mutation is most commonly associated with familial breast and ovarian cancers?
PIK3CA
TP53
KRAS
BRCA1/BRCA2
Germline mutations in BRCA1 and BRCA2 drastically increase lifetime risks of breast and ovarian cancers. They impair DNA repair via homologous recombination. Identification guides risk-reducing strategies.
Which immunotherapy approach uses monoclonal antibodies to block the PD-1/PD-L1 interaction?
Oncolytic virus therapy
Checkpoint inhibition
Cancer vaccine
CAR T-cell therapy
Checkpoint inhibitors such as pembrolizumab block PD-1 on T cells or PD-L1 on tumor cells, restoring anti-tumor immunity. They have shown efficacy in melanoma, lung cancer, and others. Immune-related adverse events require monitoring.
Which cancer is most strongly linked to chronic infection with hepatitis B or C viruses?
Renal cell carcinoma
Pancreatic cancer
Esophageal cancer
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Chronic hepatitis B and C viral infections cause persistent liver inflammation, fibrosis, and cirrhosis, increasing the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma. Vaccination against HBV has reduced incidence. Antiviral therapies can lower risk.
What does "grade" refer to in tumor pathology?
Number of metastatic sites
Degree of cellular differentiation
Patient's age
Size of the tumor
Tumor grade assesses how much cancer cells resemble normal tissue histologically. A high-grade tumor is poorly differentiated and often more aggressive. Grading helps predict behavior and guide therapy.
Which chemotherapy drug class does paclitaxel belong to?
Antimetabolites
Taxanes
Alkylating agents
Topoisomerase inhibitors
Paclitaxel stabilizes microtubules and prevents their disassembly, inhibiting mitosis. It belongs to the taxane class and is used in breast, ovarian, and lung cancers. Neurotoxicity and myelosuppression are key side effects.
Which marker is used to monitor therapy response in ovarian cancer?
CEA
PSA
CA-125
hCG
CA-125 is a glycoprotein elevated in most epithelial ovarian cancers. Serial measurements help assess treatment response and detect recurrence. Its specificity is limited by other conditions that raise levels.
Which radiation therapy technique delivers radiation from multiple angles to concentrate dose on the tumor?
Stereotactic body radiation therapy (SBRT)
Proton therapy
Intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT)
Brachytherapy
IMRT uses computer-controlled linear accelerators to modulate beam intensity and shape, sparing healthy tissue. Multiple beam angles converge to deliver high tumor doses with precision. It is widely used for head and neck, prostate, and other cancers.
PARP inhibitors are particularly effective in tumors with defects in which pathway?
MAPK pathway
Homologous recombination
Mismatch repair
Wnt signaling
Tumors with BRCA1/2 mutations have homologous recombination deficiency. PARP inhibitors trap PARP on single-strand breaks, causing synthetic lethality in HR-deficient cells. They are approved for BRCA-mutant breast and ovarian cancers.
Which cancer has a strong association with Epstein - Barr virus (EBV)?
Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung
Prostate cancer
Burkitt lymphoma
Endemic Burkitt lymphoma is driven by EBV infection and c-MYC translocation. EBV contributes to B-cell proliferation and tumor development. Antiviral immunity and host genetics influence risk.
Which test measures microsatellite instability (MSI) status in tumors?
Immunohistochemistry for HER2
Flow cytometry
ELISA
Next-generation sequencing
NGS platforms can detect insertion/deletion errors in microsatellite regions, defining MSI status. MSI-high tumors, common in Lynch syndrome, respond well to checkpoint inhibitors. Accurate MSI assessment guides therapy.
Which epigenetic alteration is commonly found in cancer cells leading to gene silencing?
RNA editing
MicroRNA overexpression
DNA promoter hypermethylation
Histone acetylation
Hypermethylation of CpG islands in gene promoters can silence tumor suppressor genes in cancer. DNA methyltransferases mediate this epigenetic change. Reversal by demethylating agents is a therapeutic strategy.
In the context of CAR T-cell therapy, what does "CAR" stand for?
Chimeric Antigen Receptor
Cancer-associated Receptor
Cellular Apoptosis Regulator
Cytotoxic Antigen Reactant
CAR T cells are engineered to express a Chimeric Antigen Receptor that recognizes tumor antigens independent of MHC. They combine antigen-binding and T-cell activation domains. CAR T therapies have shown success in B-cell malignancies.
Which pathway is directly inhibited by the drug vemurafenib in melanoma?
PI3K/AKT/mTOR pathway
EGFR signaling
VEGF receptor signaling
BRAF V600E kinase activity
Vemurafenib selectively inhibits the mutated BRAF V600E kinase in melanoma cells, blocking MAPK pathway signaling. This leads to tumor regression in patients with this mutation. Resistance mechanisms involve pathway reactivation.
What is the mechanism of action of bispecific T-cell engager (BiTE) antibodies?
Deliver cytotoxic drugs to tumors
Bridge T cells and tumor cells for cytotoxicity
Activate complement to lyse tumor cells
Block growth factor receptors
BiTEs have dual specificity: one arm binds CD3 on T cells and the other binds a tumor antigen, bringing T cells into close proximity to kill cancer cells. Blinatumomab targets CD19 in B-ALL. Side effects include cytokine release syndrome.
Which cytogenetic abnormality is diagnostic for chronic myeloid leukemia?
Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22)
t(15;17) translocation
t(8;14) translocation
Trisomy 21
The Philadelphia chromosome arises from a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, creating the BCR-ABL fusion gene in CML. This fusion protein has constitutive tyrosine kinase activity driving malignancy. It is targeted by specific inhibitors like imatinib.
Which proteasome inhibitor is FDA-approved for multiple myeloma treatment?
Ixazomib
Bortezomib
Thalidomide
Carfilzomib
Bortezomib reversibly inhibits the 26S proteasome, inducing apoptosis in multiple myeloma cells. It was the first approved proteasome inhibitor and remains a cornerstone of therapy. Peripheral neuropathy and thrombocytopenia are notable side effects.
Which receptor mutation is commonly targeted in non - small cell lung cancer therapy?
HER2 amplification
EGFR activating mutations
ALK translocation
VEGFR mutation
EGFR mutations such as exon 19 deletions or L858R substitution activate the receptor in NSCLC. Tyrosine kinase inhibitors like gefitinib target these mutations. Testing guides personalized treatment.
What is the purpose of liquid biopsy in oncology?
Detection of circulating tumor DNA in blood
Sampling cerebrospinal fluid for cancer cells
Measuring tumor size by imaging
Direct visualization of tumors
Liquid biopsy analyzes circulating tumor DNA or cells from a blood sample to detect mutations, monitor treatment response, and identify resistance. It is minimally invasive and allows dynamic cancer profiling. FDA has approved assays for specific mutations.
Which hematologic malignancy is characterized by Reed - Sternberg cells?
Multiple myeloma
Acute myeloid leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Hodgkin lymphoma
Reed - Sternberg cells are large, abnormal multinucleated B cells seen in Hodgkin lymphoma. Their presence is required for diagnosis. Subtyping influences treatment and prognosis.
Which drug is an anti-angiogenic monoclonal antibody used in colorectal cancer?
Ipilimumab
Trastuzumab
Bevacizumab
Cetuximab
Bevacizumab binds VEGF-A, preventing its interaction with endothelial receptors and inhibiting new blood vessel formation. It is used in metastatic colorectal and other cancers. Side effects include hypertension and bleeding.
Which molecular test is essential for diagnosing chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMML)?
Next-generation sequencing panel
JAK2 V617F mutation assay
FLT3-ITD mutation analysis
BCR-ABL fusion transcript test
NGS panels detect mutations in genes like TET2, SRSF2, ASXL1 that characterize CMML. Diagnosis integrates clinical, morphological, and molecular findings. Distinguishing from other myeloid neoplasms relies on mutation profiles.
Which DNA repair pathway is exploited by platinum-based chemotherapies to induce cell death?
Base excision repair
Nucleotide excision repair
Homologous recombination
Mismatch repair
Platinum agents form DNA crosslinks that are repaired primarily by nucleotide excision repair. When this pathway is overwhelmed or deficient, crosslinks persist, triggering apoptosis. NER gene mutations can influence sensitivity.
Which signaling cascade is directly activated downstream of Ras in many cancers?
Hedgehog pathway
MAPK/ERK pathway
NF-?B pathway
JAK/STAT pathway
Activated Ras recruits RAF, leading to MEK and ERK phosphorylation in the MAPK cascade. This promotes cell proliferation and survival. Aberrant Ras signaling is a driver in many malignancies.
In oncology clinical trials, what does an endpoint of PFS stand for?
Partial Fraction Size
Pharmacokinetic Fraction Study
Progression-Free Survival
Post-Failure Symptom
Progression-free survival measures the length of time during and after treatment when a patient's cancer does not worsen. It is a common secondary or primary endpoint in oncology trials. PFS can be assessed by imaging and clinical criteria.
Which microRNA cluster is frequently dysregulated in the pathogenesis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia?
miR-34 family
let-7 family
miR-21 only
miR-17-92 cluster
The miR-17-92 cluster acts as an oncogene by targeting tumor suppressor transcripts and promoting proliferation. Its overexpression is common in childhood ALL. Inhibiting this cluster is under investigation.
What is the function of the TET2 enzyme in hematopoietic cells?
Histone acetylation
Telomere shortening
DNA hydroxymethylation
RNA splicing
TET2 converts 5-methylcytosine to 5-hydroxymethylcytosine, facilitating DNA demethylation and gene regulation. Mutations in TET2 lead to aberrant methylation patterns in myeloid malignancies. Its loss is associated with clonal hematopoiesis and leukemia risk.
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Study Outcomes

  1. Understand Cancer Biology -

    Understand key concepts of cancer cell growth, tumor biology, and terminology to strengthen your foundational knowledge.

  2. Identify Risk Factors -

    Identify and explain common cancer risk factors and prevention strategies, enhancing your cancer awareness quiz performance.

  3. Analyze Diagnostic Methods -

    Analyze various cancer detection and diagnosis techniques, including imaging, biopsy, and molecular tests, to improve clinical insight.

  4. Describe Treatment Options -

    Describe major cancer treatment modalities such as surgery, chemotherapy, radiation, and immunotherapy, and their roles in patient care.

  5. Apply Knowledge to Quiz Questions -

    Apply your understanding to answer oncology trivia questions accurately and gauge your proficiency in cancer care concepts.

  6. Evaluate Prevention Strategies -

    Evaluate lifestyle modifications and screening recommendations to develop effective cancer prevention and awareness approaches.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Hallmarks of Cancer -

    The six hallmarks defined by Hanahan and Weinberg (Cell, 2011) outline traits like sustaining proliferative signaling and evading growth suppressors. Use the mnemonic "GIRVAD" (Growth, Invasion, Resist death, Vascularization, Avoid suppressors, Deregulate metabolism) to recall each hallmark. Recognizing these core features is essential for acing any oncology trivia questions.

  2. Common Carcinogens & Prevention -

    Environmental factors such as tobacco smoke (benzo[a]pyrene), UV radiation, and HPV infection account for many preventable cancers (WHO). Remember "STOP UV": Sunscreen, Tobacco-free, HPV vaccine, Outreach, Prevent exposure. This tip is handy when preparing for a cancer awareness quiz or a free cancer quiz on prevention.

  3. Cancer Staging & Grading (TNM System) -

    The TNM system by the American Joint Committee on Cancer classifies Tumor size (T), lymph Node involvement (N), and distant Metastasis (M). For example, T2N1M0 indicates a moderate tumor with regional nodal spread but no metastasis. Keep "T-N-M" in order to quickly decode stages during a cancer knowledge test.

  4. Major Treatment Modalities -

    Surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation remain the pillars of cancer therapy (NCCN Guidelines). Recall "SAR" (Surgery - Adjuvant chemo - Radiation) to sequence treatments and know that adjuvant therapy follows surgery to eradicate micrometastases. This framework is often tested in oncology trivia questions about standard regimens like FOLFOX for colorectal cancer.

  5. Emerging Immunotherapies -

    Checkpoint inhibitors (e.g., ipilimumab for CTLA-4, pembrolizumab for PD-1) have revolutionized treatment by reactivating T cells (ASCO). Use "CP4T" (Checkpoint blockers for T-cells) to link drug classes to their targets. Awareness of these agents boosts confidence in any cancer trivia quiz focused on cutting-edge treatments.

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