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Quizzes > Health & Medicine

Basic Nursing Quiz: Fundamentals Practice for RNs

Quick, free fundamentals of nursing quiz. Instant results.

Editorial: Review CompletedCreated By: Vahid KazemUpdated Aug 27, 2025
Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art illustration with stethoscope book heart pencil quiz icons on teal background

This basic nursing quiz helps you check core RN fundamentals and spot study gaps fast. Work through short, real-world questions and get instant feedback to guide your next review. After you finish, try the nursing fundamentals quiz or challenge yourself with the fundamentals of nursing quiz 2; if you need care basics, see the basic nursing care practice test.

What is the normal resting heart rate for an adult patient?
100 - 120 beats per minute
40 - 60 beats per minute
60 - 100 beats per minute
120 - 140 beats per minute
The normal adult resting heart rate ranges from 60 to 100 beats per minute in a healthy individual. Rates below 60 may indicate bradycardia, and rates above 100 may indicate tachycardia. Monitoring heart rate is essential for assessing cardiovascular status.
Which range represents a normal adult respiratory rate?
12 - 20 breaths per minute
8 - 12 breaths per minute
20 - 28 breaths per minute
6 - 10 breaths per minute
An adult respiratory rate of 12 - 20 breaths per minute is considered normal. Rates below may indicate respiratory depression; rates above may indicate distress or hyperventilation. Regular assessment helps detect pulmonary issues early.
Which hand hygiene method is most effective for removing most transient microorganisms?
Plain soap and water
Alcohol-based hand rub
Antibacterial soap
Chlorhexidine scrub
Alcohol-based hand rubs are fast-acting and effective against many transient pathogens when hands are not visibly soiled. They require less time than soap and water and reduce bacterial counts well. The CDC recommends alcohol-based rubs for routine decontamination.
What is the correct order for donning personal protective equipment (PPE)?
Gloves, gown, mask, goggles
Goggles, mask, gown, gloves
Mask, gown, gloves, goggles
Gown, mask, goggles, gloves
The correct sequence for donning PPE is gown first, then mask or respirator, goggles or face shield, and finally gloves. This order ensures maximal protection and prevents contamination. Proper donning is crucial in infection control.
Which intervention helps prevent pressure ulcer development in immobile patients?
Repositioning the patient every two hours
Encouraging sitting as long as possible
Massaging red area until it blanches
Using a donut-shaped cushion
Repositioning immobile patients every two hours reduces pressure on bony prominences and helps maintain skin integrity. Donut cushions can restrict circulation, and massaging may damage tissue. Frequent repositioning is standard practice for pressure ulcer prevention.
During the primary survey (ABCDE), what does 'A' stand for?
Age and appearance
Auditory response
Airway with cervical spine protection
Anxiety level
In the ABCDE approach, 'A' stands for airway assessment while protecting the cervical spine. A patent airway is vital for oxygenation and must be addressed first. Failing to secure the airway can lead to hypoxia quickly.
What is considered a normal adult systolic blood pressure range?
140 - 160 mm Hg
90 - 120 mm Hg
120 - 140 mm Hg
60 - 90 mm Hg
A normal adult systolic blood pressure typically falls between 90 and 120 mm Hg. Readings below 90 may indicate hypotension, and readings above 120 may signal hypertension. Regular monitoring helps in early detection of cardiovascular risks.
What does SBAR stand for in effective clinical communication?
Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation
Situation, Briefing, Authorization, Reporting
Subjective, Background, Action, Response
Scope, Benefits, Assessment, Response
SBAR stands for Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation and is a standardized communication tool in healthcare to improve clarity and patient safety. It ensures critical information is conveyed efficiently. This method reduces miscommunication errors.
Which route is fastest for medication absorption?
Intravenous
Intramuscular
Oral
Subcutaneous
The intravenous route delivers medication directly into circulation, providing the fastest onset of action. Other routes like intramuscular or subcutaneous require absorption time. IV administration is critical in emergencies.
What is the term for high body temperature?
Hypothermia
Tachypnea
Bradycardia
Fever
A fever is an elevation in body temperature above the normal range of 36 - 38 °C (96.8 - 100.4 °F). It is often a sign of infection or inflammation. Monitoring fever helps guide treatment decisions.
Why is verifying patient identity before medication administration crucial?
To prevent medication errors and ensure patient safety
To record billing information
To assess nutritional needs
To evaluate mobility status
Verifying patient identity with two identifiers prevents medication errors such as wrong drug or wrong dose. This verification is a Joint Commission accreditation requirement. It is a key safety step in the medication administration process.
Which position helps improve breathing in clients with respiratory distress?
Supine
High Fowler's position
Trendelenburg
Prone
High Fowler's position, where the head of the bed is elevated 60 - 90 degrees, helps expand the chest and improve lung expansion in respiratory distress. It optimizes diaphragm movement. This position is commonly used for dyspneic patients.
What does auscultation refer to in a physical exam?
Listening to body sounds with a stethoscope
Feeling body temperature with hands
Observing patient movement
Measuring blood pressure
Auscultation is the process of listening to internal body sounds, typically using a stethoscope, to assess heart, lung, or bowel sounds. It is a core component of the physical assessment. Proper technique optimizes diagnostic accuracy.
What is the definition of tachycardia?
Heart rate over 100 beats per minute
Respiratory rate over 20 breaths per minute
Blood pressure over 140/90 mm Hg
Heart rate below 60 beats per minute
Tachycardia is defined as a heart rate exceeding 100 beats per minute in an adult. It can be caused by fever, anxiety, dehydration, or cardiac conditions. Identifying tachycardia aids in diagnosing underlying issues.
Which intervention promotes patient comfort and skin integrity when turning a patient in bed?
Pull patient by arms while turning
Slide patient directly on the mattress
Ask patient to push up with feet only
Use a draw sheet to reposition the patient
Using a draw sheet to lift or reposition a patient reduces friction and shear forces on the skin, promoting comfort and preventing pressure injuries. Sliding directly on the mattress can cause skin tears. Safe handling techniques protect patient and staff.
How do you check capillary refill time in an adult?
Observe the color of the lips for refill
Press the skin on the elbow and observe color return
Measure pulse at the wrist for one minute
Press the nail bed until it blanches, release, and note time to return
Capillary refill is assessed by pressing the distal nail bed until it blanches and then timing how long color takes to return. Normal refill is less than 2 seconds. Delays may indicate poor perfusion.
A client's IV infusion is ordered at 1200 mL over 8 hours. What is the hourly flow rate?
180 mL/hour
100 mL/hour
150 mL/hour
200 mL/hour
To calculate hourly IV rate divide total volume by hours: 1200 mL ÷ 8 hours = 150 mL/hour. Accurate flow rates ensure correct fluid delivery and prevent overload or deficit. Use infusion pumps for precision.
Which sign is most consistent with hypovolemia?
Bradycardia and hypertension
Tachycardia and hypertension
Tachycardia and hypotension
Bradycardia and hypotension
Hypovolemia often presents with tachycardia and hypotension as the body attempts to maintain perfusion. Other signs include cool, clammy skin and delayed capillary refill. Early recognition prevents progression to shock.
Which process describes the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane?
Osmosis
Diffusion
Filtration
Active transport
Osmosis is the passive movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from low solute to high solute concentration. It helps regulate fluid balance in cells. Understanding osmosis is key in IV fluid selection.
Which task can a registered nurse delegate to a UAP (Unlicensed Assistive Personnel)?
Administering medication
Measuring and documenting vital signs
Creating a nursing care plan
Performing initial patient assessment
UAPs may measure and record vital signs under RN supervision, a noninvasive task. Assessment, care planning, and medication administration are outside their scope. Proper delegation optimizes team efficiency while ensuring safety.
Which is a common adverse effect of opioid analgesics?
Hypertension
Hyperthermia
Diarrhea
Constipation
Opioids slow gastrointestinal motility and often cause constipation. Patients may need stool softeners or laxatives. Monitoring bowel function is critical during opioid therapy.
Which site has the fastest absorption for subcutaneous insulin?
Upper arm
Thigh
Abdomen
Buttocks
The abdomen provides the most consistent and rapid absorption of subcutaneous insulin. Rotation within the abdomen prevents lipodystrophy. Proper site selection optimizes glycemic control.
What is the purpose of an incentive spirometer?
Improve lung expansion and prevent atelectasis
Administer aerosol medications
Measure airway resistance
Drain pleural fluid
An incentive spirometer encourages deep breathing to expand alveoli and prevent atelectasis, especially postoperatively. Patients inhale slowly to raise the device's piston. Regular use improves respiratory function.
How is a stage II pressure ulcer characterized?
Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone
Deep tissue injury under intact skin
Partial-thickness skin loss involving epidermis and/or dermis
Nonblanchable erythema of intact skin
A stage II pressure ulcer shows partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis, often appearing as an open blister or shallow ulcer. There is no full-thickness tissue loss. Early identification allows for prompt intervention.
Which PaO2 value indicates adequate oxygenation in arterial blood gas results?
40 - 59 mm Hg
80 - 100 mm Hg
60 - 79 mm Hg
20 - 39 mm Hg
An arterial PaO2 of 80 - 100 mm Hg is considered normal and indicates sufficient oxygenation. Values below 80 suggest hypoxemia. Regular ABG analysis guides oxygen therapy.
Which strategy best reduces medication administration errors?
Skipping double checks on high-risk meds
Relying solely on memory for dosing
Using barcode medication administration systems
Administering medications without checking patient ID
Barcode medication administration systems scan patient ID and medication to ensure a match, significantly reducing errors. Checking identifiers and following the "five rights" also promote safety. Technology adds an extra verification layer.
What is the preferred site for an intramuscular injection in adults?
Ventrogluteal site
Deltoid site for large volumes
Dorsogluteal site
Vastus lateralis for volumes over 5 mL
The ventrogluteal site is preferred for IM injections because it is free of major nerves and blood vessels and suitable for larger volumes. The dorsogluteal site carries risk of sciatic nerve injury. Safe site selection reduces complications.
Which ECG change is an early sign of hyperkalemia?
Peaked T waves
U waves
Flattened T waves
Prolonged PR interval
Hyperkalemia typically presents initially with peaked, narrow-based T waves on ECG. As levels rise, QRS widening and arrhythmias may occur. Early detection is critical to prevent cardiac arrest.
When should you perform a complete bed bath for a hospitalized patient?
When the patient requests assistance
Only for incontinent patients
Only after surgery
When the patient is completely dependent
Complete bed baths are indicated for patients unable to independently bathe due to illness, injury, or mobility limitations. Partial baths can be offered when the patient can assist. Regular bathing promotes hygiene and comfort.
Which acronym describes pupillary response assessment?
ABCDEF
LRQTU
PERRLA
ABCDE
PERRLA stands for Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light and Accommodation, a standard assessment of cranial nerve II and III function. It helps detect neurological impairments. Regular checks monitor changes.
Which arterial blood gas results indicate metabolic acidosis?
pH 7.50, HCO?? 32 mEq/L
pH 7.55, HCO?? 28 mEq/L
pH 7.40, PaCO? 40 mm Hg
pH 7.30, HCO?? 18 mEq/L
Metabolic acidosis presents with a low pH (<7.35) and low bicarbonate (<22 mEq/L). A pH of 7.30 and HCO?? of 18 mEq/L are consistent with this condition. Identifying acid-base disorders guides treatment like bicarbonate administration.
Which IV fluid is isotonic to plasma?
0.45% Normal Saline
0.9% Normal Saline
5% Dextrose in Water
3% Normal Saline
0.9% Normal Saline has an osmolarity similar to plasma and is considered isotonic, making it suitable for volume expansion. Hypotonic fluids have lower osmolarity. Hypertonic solutions draw fluid from cells.
How do you assess for 2+ pitting edema?
No visible depression but swelling present
6 mm depression lasting >60 seconds
4 mm depression that rebounds in 10 - 15 seconds
1 mm depression that rebounds immediately
2+ pitting edema is defined by a 4 mm depression that rebounds within 10 - 15 seconds. This grading helps quantify fluid accumulation. Proper assessment guides management of fluid balance.
Which ECG finding suggests myocardial ischemia?
U waves
Short PR interval
Tall P waves
ST segment depression
ST segment depression is a classic ECG sign of myocardial ischemia. It indicates subendocardial injury. Early detection via ECG leads to prompt intervention.
In pain assessment, what does the 'P' in PQRST stand for?
Pressure
Position
Provocation or palliation
Pattern
In PQRST pain assessment, 'P' refers to Provocation/Palliation - what makes the pain worse or better. It helps identify pain triggers and relief measures. Comprehensive assessment improves pain management.
Before starting a blood transfusion, which baseline assessment is essential?
Vital signs including temperature
Deep tendon reflexes
Hearing acuity
Visual field test
Obtaining baseline vital signs, especially temperature, is crucial before a transfusion to detect any transfusion reaction. Changes during the transfusion alert the nurse to immediate action. Other baseline assessments are not directly relevant.
Which cranial nerve is tested by having the patient shrug their shoulders?
Facial nerve (VII)
Accessory nerve (XI)
Vagus nerve (X)
Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
Shoulder shrug tests the spinal accessory nerve (XI), which innervates the trapezius muscle. Assessing strength and symmetry confirms nerve integrity. Dysfunction can indicate neck or brainstem pathology.
Which symptom is characteristic of fat embolism syndrome?
Petechial rash on chest
Cold, pale extremities
Hyporeflexia
Bradycardia
A petechial rash on the chest, neck, or axillae is a hallmark sign of fat embolism syndrome, often following long bone fractures. Respiratory distress and neurologic changes also occur. Early recognition is vital.
Which feature distinguishes delirium from dementia?
Dementia has hallucinations
Delirium is slowly progressive
Dementia has rapid onset
Delirium has acute onset and fluctuating course
Delirium is characterized by acute onset and fluctuating levels of consciousness, whereas dementia develops gradually and is usually irreversible. Differentiation guides appropriate treatment.
Which intervention is priority for a patient in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
Give subcutaneous insulin only
Restrict fluids to prevent overload
Provide oral hypoglycemics
Administer IV fluids and insulin as ordered
DKA management requires prompt IV fluid resuscitation to correct dehydration and IV insulin to reduce hyperglycemia and ketoacid production. Subcutaneous insulin and oral agents are insufficient.
What is the goal of a root cause analysis in nursing?
Identify underlying causes of adverse events
Reduce staffing levels
Evaluate patient satisfaction
Assign blame to staff
Root cause analysis aims to uncover systemic issues leading to errors or adverse events, not to assign individual blame. It promotes process improvements and patient safety.
Which step is essential when inserting an indwelling urinary catheter to prevent infection?
Clean catheter with antiseptic afterward
Use sterile technique throughout the procedure
Allow patient to move catheter tip during insertion
Attach drainage bag before insertion
Sterile technique during catheter insertion minimizes introduction of pathogens into the urinary tract and reduces CAUTI risk. Maintaining a closed system is also critical. Post-procedure cleaning alone is insufficient.
What indicates correct function of a chest tube water-seal drainage system?
Frothy liquid in the suction chamber
Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber
No fluid in collection chamber
Tidaling in the water-seal chamber
Tidaling, or fluctuation of fluid level in the water-seal chamber with breathing, indicates patency of the pleural space and proper function. Continuous bubbling suggests an air leak. Monitoring ensures effective drainage.
Which complication is most likely with continuous enteral feeding?
Decubitus ulcer
Aspiration pneumonia
Deep vein thrombosis
Pressure ulcer
Continuous enteral feeding increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia if gastric contents reflux and are aspirated. Elevating the head of bed and verifying tube placement mitigate this risk.
What does an elevated central venous pressure (CVP) reading indicate?
Metabolic acidosis
Pulmonary embolism
Hypovolemia
Fluid volume overload or right heart failure
An elevated CVP usually indicates increased right atrial pressure due to fluid overload or right ventricular failure. Low CVP suggests hypovolemia. Monitoring CVP guides fluid management in critically ill patients.
Which ECG rhythm shows regular narrow QRS complexes at a rate of 160 bpm with no P waves?
Atrial fibrillation
Sinus tachycardia
Ventricular tachycardia
Supraventricular tachycardia
Supraventricular tachycardia presents as a regular narrow-complex tachycardia often above 150 bpm with absent or buried P waves. It originates above the ventricles. Prompt vagal maneuvers or pharmacologic therapy may be required.
A patient has pH 7.50, PaCO? 30 mm Hg, and HCO?? 24 mEq/L. What is the primary disorder?
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic acidosis
An elevated pH (>7.45) with low PaCO? (<35 mm Hg) and normal HCO?? indicates respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation. The kidneys have not yet compensated. Identifying the primary disorder guides therapy.
When titrating a norepinephrine infusion, which parameter is most critical to monitor?
Oxygen saturation only
Mean arterial pressure (MAP)
Heart rate only
Urine output only
Norepinephrine is titrated to achieve target mean arterial pressure, ensuring adequate organ perfusion. While heart rate, urine output, and SpO? are important, MAP is the primary endpoint. Continuous monitoring ensures safe dosing.
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Study Outcomes

  1. Understand Core Fundamentals of Nursing Practice -

    Recall and explain essential principles of Fundamentals of Nursing Practice - such as patient hygiene, mobility, and communication - to reinforce foundational RN knowledge.

  2. Apply Patient Assessment Techniques -

    Use systematic approaches to assess vital signs and patient status, ensuring accurate data collection and interpretation during clinical practice.

  3. Analyze Clinical Decision-Making Scenarios -

    Evaluate situational judgment questions on the Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz to strengthen critical thinking and prioritization skills.

  4. Demonstrate Knowledge of Safety and Infection Control -

    Identify and implement standard precautions and safety protocols to reduce infection risks and promote patient well-being.

  5. Interpret Documentation and Reporting Standards -

    Distinguish proper charting methods and handoff communication to maintain accurate records and continuity of care.

  6. Identify Targeted Study Areas -

    Review basic nursing quiz results to pinpoint strengths and areas for improvement, guiding focused preparation before clinical rotations.

Cheat Sheet

  1. ABC Assessment (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) -

    Always prioritize Airway before Breathing and Circulation, using the mnemonic "A-B-C" to guide rapid assessment. This sequence is a cornerstone in both the nursing fundamentals quiz and real-world practice, ensuring you address life-threatening issues first. Mastery of ABC will boost your confidence during emergency scenarios and on your RN fundamentals practice test.

  2. Dosage Calculations and the "D/H × V" Formula -

    Use the formula Dose Desired ÷ Dose on Hand × Volume on Hand (D/H × V) to accurately calculate medication dosages. For example, if you need 250 mg from a vial labeled 500 mg/2 mL, compute (250 ÷ 500) × 2 mL = 1 mL. This calculation is frequently tested on a basic nursing quiz, so practicing with flashcards can solidify your skills.

  3. Infection Control and Standard Precautions -

    Adopt Standard Precautions - hand hygiene, PPE, and safe sharps handling - to prevent healthcare”associated infections. Remember the mnemonic "Wash, Wear, Warn" (wash hands, wear gloves, warn of spill) when studying for the nursing fundamentals quiz. These guidelines from the CDC are essential for safe patient care and appear regularly on the Fundamentals of Nursing Practice exam.

  4. Normal Adult Vital Signs Ranges -

    Familiarize yourself with these benchmarks: temperature 36 - 38 °C, heart rate 60 - 100 bpm, respiratory rate 12 - 20 breaths/min, and blood pressure 90/60 - 120/80 mmHg. Knowing these norms is crucial for pattern recognition on both clinical rotations and the Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz. Flashing patient scenarios with abnormal vitals helps reinforce when to intervene.

  5. Delegation and the Five Rights -

    Apply the Five Rights of Delegation - Right Task, Circumstance, Person, Direction/Communication, and Supervision/Evaluation - to assign duties safely. A simple phrase like "Task Can Pass Due Supervision" can help you recall each right during an RN fundamentals practice test. Adhering to these principles promotes teamwork and legal accountability in care delivery.

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