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Quizzes > Health & Medicine > Human Anatomy & Medicine

Fundamentals of Nursing Practice Quiz - See How Much You Know!

Ready to conquer nursing fundamentals? Dive into practice questions and boost your test prep now!

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art illustration of nursing quiz elements stethoscope book heart on golden yellow background.

This Fundamentals of Nursing quiz helps you practice core concepts and basic clinical skills so you can spot gaps before the exam. Work through realistic, NCLEX‑style questions at your own pace, or build speed with a timer - start the quiz or try the timed test.

What is the normal range for adult resting heart rate?
40 - 60 beats per minute
50 - 90 beats per minute
60 - 100 beats per minute
100 - 120 beats per minute
The average adult resting heart rate ranges from 60 to 100 beats per minute. Values above or below this range may indicate underlying cardiac or systemic issues. Regular monitoring helps detect early changes in a patient's cardiovascular status.
At what temperature should a nurse consider a fever in an adult?
Greater than 38°C (100.4°F)
Greater than 36°C (96.8°F)
Greater than 39°C (102.2°F)
Greater than 37°C (98.6°F)
A fever in adults is defined as a body temperature exceeding 38°C (100.4°F). This threshold helps clinicians identify potential infections or inflammatory processes. Fever management strategies are applied once this level is reached.
What is the primary purpose of hand hygiene in nursing practice?
To document patient contact
To check vital signs
To prevent the transmission of pathogens
To moisturize the skin
Hand hygiene is the single most effective measure to prevent health care-associated infections by reducing pathogen transmission. It interrupts the chain of infection at the nurse - patient interface. Compliance with WHO hand hygiene guidelines is essential in all clinical settings.
Which position is best to promote lung expansion in a patient with respiratory distress?
Prone position
High Fowler's position
Supine position
Trendelenburg position
High Fowler's position (head of bed elevated 60 - 90 degrees) maximizes chest expansion, facilitating easier breathing and improved oxygenation. It decreases pressure on the diaphragm and allows gravity to assist lung expansion. This position is commonly used for patients in respiratory distress.
What is the correct sequence of donning basic personal protective equipment (PPE)?
Hand hygiene, gown, mask, gloves
Gloves, gown, mask, hand hygiene
Mask, gown, gloves, goggles
Gown, hand hygiene, gloves, mask
The recommended order for donning PPE is hand hygiene first, followed by gown, mask (or respirator), and finally gloves to ensure full coverage and prevent contamination. This sequence adheres to CDC guidelines for standard precautions. Proper donning reduces the risk of pathogen transmission.
Which measurement is most appropriate to assess central perfusion?
Pulse oximetry
Temperature
Respiratory rate
Blood pressure
Blood pressure reflects the force of blood against arterial walls and is a key indicator of central perfusion. Adequate perfusion depends on sufficient cardiac output and vascular tone. Other vital signs assess respiratory or oxygenation status but do not directly measure perfusion.
What does the acronym SBAR stand for in clinical communication?
Situation, Benefits, Action, Result
Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation
Symptom, Background, Action, Record
Sign, Behavior, Action, Response
SBAR stands for Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation. It provides a structured method for clear, concise communication among health care providers. Its use reduces miscommunication and improves patient safety.
Which organ is primarily responsible for metabolizing most medications?
Kidney
Liver
Lungs
Pancreas
The liver contains enzymes of the cytochrome P450 system that metabolize the majority of medications. Hepatic metabolism transforms drugs into more water-soluble forms for excretion. Impaired liver function can alter drug clearance.
What is the normal adult respiratory rate?
12 - 20 breaths per minute
5 - 10 breaths per minute
20 - 30 breaths per minute
8 - 12 breaths per minute
An adult's normal respiratory rate ranges between 12 and 20 breaths per minute. Rates outside this range may indicate respiratory distress, metabolic issues, or other pathologies. Regular assessment helps detect early respiratory compromise.
Which action is highest priority when a patient feels faint and dizzy?
Obtain an ECG
Encourage the patient to ambulate
Lower the patient to a supine position and elevate legs
Administer oxygen immediately
If a patient feels faint, lowering them to supine and elevating the legs promotes cerebral perfusion and reduces risk of injury from falls. This immediate action helps restore blood flow to the brain. Further assessments follow after stabilizing the patient.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five rights of medication administration?
Right dose
Right time
Right documentation
Right patient
The traditional five rights are right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, and right time. Documentation is a critical step but not one of the classic five rights. Some models add a sixth right for documentation.
What nursing process step involves collecting subjective and objective data?
Implementation
Diagnosis
Assessment
Planning
Assessment is the first step in the nursing process where subjective (patient-reported) and objective (measurable) data are gathered. This information forms the basis for clinical judgments. Accurate assessment ensures correct problem identification.
Which IV solution is considered isotonic?
5% dextrose in water
0.9% normal saline
0.45% normal saline
3% saline
0.9% normal saline has an osmolarity similar to plasma and is considered isotonic. It expands intravascular volume without shifting fluid between compartments. Hypotonic or hypertonic solutions have different clinical indications.
What is the minimum acceptable urine output per hour in an adult?
100 mL per hour
30 mL per hour
50 mL per hour
10 mL per hour
A urine output of at least 30 mL per hour indicates adequate renal perfusion and function in adults. Lower values may signal hypovolemia or renal impairment. Hourly monitoring is essential in critical care.
What is the most reliable method of verifying a patient's identity before administering medication?
Ask the patient to state name and date of birth and verify ID bracelet
Ask the patient's roommate
Verify chart room number
Check room door sign
The two-patient identifier standard involves asking for the patient's name and date of birth while checking their ID bracelet to prevent errors. This method aligns with Joint Commission requirements. Alternative approaches are less reliable.
Which gauge needle is typically used for intramuscular injections in adults?
23 gauge
16 gauge
30 gauge
18 gauge
A 23-gauge needle is commonly used for adult intramuscular injections to balance flow rate and patient comfort. Thicker needles (lower gauge) can cause more pain, while very thin needles may impede medication flow. Choose length based on patient size.
Which vitamin is essential for collagen synthesis and wound healing?
Vitamin D
Vitamin B12
Vitamin K
Vitamin C
Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) is crucial for collagen synthesis, which supports wound healing and tissue repair. Deficiency can lead to impaired wound closure and scurvy. Nutritional assessment includes evaluating vitamin C intake.
What pH value indicates a neutral solution on the blood gas scale?
6.8
7.4
7.8
7.0
A pH of 7.0 is considered neutral on the logarithmic pH scale. Blood normally ranges from 7.35 to 7.45; values below indicate acidosis, above indicate alkalosis. Understanding pH is key to interpreting ABGs.
During wound assessment, what does sanguineous drainage indicate?
Presence of fresh bleeding
Infection by bacteria
Clear serum fluid
Presence of pus
Sanguineous drainage appears red due to the presence of fresh blood from newly disrupted vessels. It is common in deep partial-thickness wounds. Monitoring color and volume helps detect hemorrhage.
Which nursing intervention can an LPN perform under RN supervision?
Perform initial patient assessment
Develop a care plan
Administer oral medications
Delegate nursing diagnoses
Under RN supervision, LPNs may administer oral medications as part of their scope of practice. RNs retain responsibility for assessment, planning, and evaluation. Delegation must comply with state nurse practice acts.
An ABG shows pH 7.32, PaCO2 50 mmHg, HCO3 - 24 mEq/L. What is the primary acid-base imbalance?
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
A low pH (<7.35) with elevated PaCO2 indicates respiratory acidosis due to CO2 retention. Normal HCO3 - suggests the kidneys have not yet compensated. Identifying the primary disturbance guides corrective interventions.
In which scenario are droplet precautions required in addition to standard precautions?
Measles
Influenza infection
Varicella infection
Tuberculosis
Influenza spreads via large respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Droplet precautions include wearing a surgical mask within 3 feet of the patient. Airborne precautions are needed for varicella, TB, and measles.
What is the preferred IM injection site for an adult when large volumes are required?
Deltoid site
Ventrogluteal site
Vastus lateralis site
Dorsogluteal site
The ventrogluteal site offers thick muscle mass away from major nerves and vessels, ideal for large-volume IM injections. It reduces risk of sciatic nerve injury compared to dorsogluteal. Deltoid is used for small volumes only.
Which lab finding is most consistent with dehydration?
Elevated hematocrit
Low creatinine
Low sodium
Elevated PaO2
Dehydration concentrates blood components, raising hematocrit above normal levels. Sodium may rise or fall depending on type of fluid loss. Elevated hematocrit is a reliable indicator of intravascular volume depletion.
Which scale is used to assess a patient's level of consciousness in trauma?
Norton Scale
Braden Scale
Glasgow Coma Scale
APGAR Score
The Glasgow Coma Scale evaluates eye, verbal, and motor responses to assess consciousness after head injury. Scores range from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (fully alert). It guides clinical decisions about airway protection and neurological monitoring.
What needle length is generally recommended for IM injections in an obese adult?
2.5 inches
3.5 inches
0.5 inch
1.5 inches
An obese adult often requires a 1.5-inch needle to ensure the medication reaches muscle tissue. Shorter needles risk subcutaneous deposition, reducing efficacy. Needle length selection depends on body mass and injection site.
For a full-code patient, what is the nurse's first action when cardiac arrest is recognized?
Obtain a 12-lead ECG
Activate the emergency response system and begin CPR
Administer IV epinephrine
Check blood gas levels
Immediate activation of the emergency response system and starting high-quality CPR are the first steps in the resuscitation algorithm for cardiac arrest. Early defibrillation follows if indicated. Delays reduce survival chances.
Which statement demonstrates correct sterile technique when opening a sterile field?
Hold the drape below waist level
Allow the drape to contact nonsterile surfaces
Flip the package toward yourself
Touch only the outside 1-inch border of the drape
Only the outer 1-inch margin of a sterile drape is considered nonsterile; touching any other area contaminates the field. The drape should be held above waist level to maintain sterility. Proper handling prevents contamination.
What is the normal range for central venous pressure (CVP) in adults?
2 - 8 mmHg
10 - 15 mmHg
8 - 12 mmHg
0 - 2 mmHg
Central venous pressure normally ranges from 2 to 8 mmHg, reflecting right atrial pressure and fluid status. CVP elevations can indicate fluid overload or right heart failure. Low CVP suggests hypovolemia.
Which nursing intervention most effectively reduces the risk of pressure injury in immobile patients?
Apply hydrating lotion once daily
Use warm water for cleansing
Limit protein intake
Reposition every 2 hours
Repositioning immobile patients every two hours relieves pressure on vulnerable areas, promoting circulation and preventing skin breakdown. Hydration and nutrition are important but repositioning is the cornerstone of prevention.
An ABG result shows pH 7.48, PaCO2 30 mmHg, HCO3 - 24 mEq/L. What is the primary disturbance?
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
A pH above 7.45 with low PaCO2 indicates respiratory alkalosis caused by hyperventilation. Normal HCO3 - suggests no metabolic compensation yet. Prompt identification guides ventilatory management.
A competent adult refuses a life-saving blood transfusion. Which ethical principle must the nurse uphold?
Autonomy
Justice
Nonmaleficence
Beneficence
Autonomy respects a patient's right to make informed decisions about their own health care, even if they refuse life-saving treatment. Beneficence and nonmaleficence focus on doing good and avoiding harm but cannot override a competent adult's choice.
Which level of evidence provides the strongest support for evidence-based nursing practice?
Expert opinion
Systematic review or meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials
Cohort studies
Case-control studies
Systematic reviews or meta-analyses of randomized controlled trials synthesize multiple high-quality studies to provide the strongest evidence. They minimize bias and increase statistical power. Other study designs offer lower levels of evidence.
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Study Outcomes

  1. Understand Core Nursing Principles -

    Gain a clear grasp of fundamental nursing concepts such as patient assessment, safety protocols, and care prioritization as covered in the fundamentals of nursing quiz.

  2. Apply Clinical Decision-Making -

    Use case-based scenarios to practice critical thinking and make informed care decisions aligned with best practices in nursing fundamentals practice questions.

  3. Analyze NCLEX-Style Questions -

    Develop strategies for interpreting and answering NCLEX fundamentals questions accurately, improving your confidence with similar exam items.

  4. Identify Knowledge Gaps -

    Pinpoint specific areas where additional review is needed by reviewing your quiz performance and understanding common pitfalls.

  5. Strengthen Test-Taking Skills -

    Enhance your approach to timed and untimed assessments, refining techniques like elimination and prioritization for practice quiz nursing fundamentals.

  6. Reinforce Key Concepts -

    Consolidate essential information on nursing fundamentals review questions to boost retention and prepare for real-world clinical applications.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Nursing Process (ADPIE) -

    In the fundamentals of nursing quiz, mastering the ADPIE framework - Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation - helps you tackle nursing fundamentals practice test questions with confidence. Use the mnemonic "ADPIE" to remember each step and practice applying it to sample patient scenarios, such as assessing vital signs or evaluating care outcomes. This approach is backed by the American Nurses Association as the cornerstone of safe, evidence-based care.

  2. Priority Setting: ABCs -

    The ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) provide a clear, evidence-based hierarchy for critical interventions in urgent situations. For example, always ensure a patent airway before supporting breathing with oxygen or assessing circulation via pulse and blood pressure checks. This method is widely taught in ANCC and AHA guidelines to quickly identify life-threatening issues.

  3. Infection Control & Standard Precautions -

    Review the five moments for hand hygiene defined by the World Health Organization and practice correct donning and doffing of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE). Understanding when to apply transmission-based precautions (contact, droplet, airborne) ensures you protect both patients and yourself. These protocols are supported by CDC guidelines and appear frequently in NCLEX fundamentals questions.

  4. Medication Administration Basics -

    Combine the "Five Rights" (right patient, drug, dose, route, time) with the dosage calculation formula: (Desired dose ÷ Available dose) × Volume to solve medication questions accurately. For instance, if you need 150 mg and have 50 mg tablets, (150 mg ÷ 50 mg) × 1 tablet = 3 tablets. Mastering this formula streamlines answers on medication-calculation sections of practice quizzes.

  5. Effective Communication & SBAR -

    The SBAR technique (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) structures handoffs and interprofessional updates, reducing errors by up to 60% according to the Joint Commission. Practice crafting concise SBAR reports for mock cases - e.g., "S: Patient with sudden dyspnea; B: History of COPD; A: SpO₂ 88%; R: Request nebulizer treatment." This tool enhances clarity in any nursing fundamentals review questions.

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