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Quizzes > Business & Finance > Business & Industry

Take the Environmental Health & Safety Compliance Quiz Now!

Test Your Workplace Safety Skills with Our EHS Compliance Quiz

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art style illustration of an EHS quiz with environmental health and safety icons on sky blue background

This EHS quiz helps you check your grasp of environmental health and safety rules, common hazards, and compliance steps. Use it to spot gaps before an exam or audit, sharpen on‑the‑job skills, or warm up with the quick environmental science warm‑up .

What does OSHA stand for?
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Occupational Safety and Hazard Agency
Occupational Standards and Health Association
Office of Safety and Hazard Administration
OSHA is a federal agency of the U.S. Department of Labor established by the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 to ensure safe and healthy working conditions. It develops and enforces regulations for workplace safety. OSHA provides training, outreach, education, and assistance to employers and workers.
Which item is considered personal protective equipment (PPE)?
Safety glasses
Emergency exit sign
First aid kit
Fire extinguisher
Personal protective equipment (PPE) includes gear worn to minimize exposure to hazards, such as chemical splash or flying debris. Safety glasses specifically protect the eyes from impact and chemical injuries. Employers must assess workplace hazards and provide appropriate PPE.
What information is provided in a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?
Employee training schedules
Marketing specifications
Workplace emergency contact list
Details on chemical hazards and safe handling procedures
A Safety Data Sheet (SDS) is a document that provides detailed information about a chemical, its hazards, safe handling, storage, and emergency measures. It is required by the GHS and OSHA Hazard Communication Standard. SDSs enable employers and workers to understand risks and protective actions.
Which class of fire extinguisher is used for electrical fires?
Class C
Class B
Class A
Class D
Class C fire extinguishers are specifically designed for electrical fires involving energized electrical equipment. Using the wrong extinguisher class on electrical fires risks electrocution. Class A, B, and D extinguishers are intended for ordinary combustibles, flammable liquids, and metals, respectively.
Which color is commonly used for caution signs?
Blue
Green
Yellow
Red
Yellow is universally used for caution signs to warn of potential hazards that could cause minor or moderate injuries. Red indicates prohibition or fire-related hazards, green marks safety equipment or exits, and blue is typically informational. Standardizing sign colors improves workplace safety communication.
What is the primary purpose of lockout/tagout procedures?
To train employees on first aid
To schedule maintenance tasks
To isolate energy sources and prevent unexpected equipment startup
To control chemical spills
Lockout/tagout (LOTO) procedures are designed to ensure that machines are properly shut off and cannot be restarted before maintenance or servicing is complete. This process isolates hazardous energy sources and prevents accidental energization. Proper LOTO compliance significantly reduces the risk of serious injury or death.
Which of the following best defines ergonomics?
A method for environmental cleanup
A system for controlling document revisions
The study of designing tasks and workspaces to fit human capabilities
A health record-keeping process
Ergonomics is the science of designing jobs, equipment, and workplaces to fit the physical and cognitive abilities of workers. Proper ergonomic design reduces strain and the risk of musculoskeletal disorders. It involves analyzing tasks and optimizing tools and workstations.
What is the first step in a risk assessment?
Training employees
Monitoring controls
Implementing controls
Hazard identification
The initial step in any risk assessment is to identify hazards that could potentially cause harm. Once hazards are recognized, their risks can be evaluated, and appropriate controls can be implemented. Skipping hazard identification undermines the entire risk management process.
Which of these is a common workplace hazard?
Budget cuts
Slip, trip, and fall hazards
Office gossip
Meeting delays
Slip, trip, and fall hazards are among the most frequent causes of workplace injuries. They can arise from wet floors, uneven surfaces, or obstructed walkways. Recognizing and mitigating these hazards prevents many common injuries.
Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) values for airborne contaminants are legally enforceable standards set by which organization?
Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
World Health Organization (WHO)
OSHA establishes PELs as legally enforceable limits on the amount or concentration of a substance in the air. These standards protect workers from exposure to harmful chemicals or physical agents. Employers must monitor and control exposures to meet PEL requirements.
Which of the following best defines a confined space?
An enclosed or partially enclosed space not designed for continuous occupancy
A cafeteria area
An office cubicle
A large open warehouse
A confined space has restricted entry or exit and is not intended for continuous worker occupancy. These spaces can pose hazards like oxygen deficiency, toxic atmospheres, or engulfment. Special entry permits and safety procedures are often required.
What is the main purpose of spill containment dikes and berms?
To mark hazardous areas
To store raw materials
To support heavy equipment
To prevent spilled materials from spreading into the environment
Containment dikes and berms are barriers designed to hold spilled chemicals and prevent them from migrating into soil, waterways, or drainage systems. They are a critical component of spill prevention and response planning. Proper containment minimizes environmental damage and regulatory liability.
In the hierarchy of hazard controls, which method is considered most effective?
Elimination
Engineering controls
Personal protective equipment (PPE)
Administrative controls
Elimination involves completely removing the hazard from the workplace, making it the most effective control measure. Substitution, engineering controls, administrative actions, and PPE follow in descending effectiveness. Starting at the top of the hierarchy yields the greatest risk reduction.
The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) primarily regulates which of the following?
Water quality
Air quality standards
Hazardous waste management
Pesticide registration
RCRA governs the generation, transportation, treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous waste in the U.S. It aims to protect human health and the environment from dangerous waste streams. The law also promotes recycling and waste minimization.
According to OSHA, what is the maximum permissible noise exposure level (in decibels) over an 8-hour time-weighted average without hearing protection?
85 dBA
95 dBA
90 dBA
100 dBA
OSHA's PEL for noise exposure is 90 decibels (A-weighted) averaged over an 8-hour workday. Exposures above this limit require hearing conservation measures and protective equipment. The action level for initiating hearing conservation programs is 85 dBA.
What does the acronym TLV stand for in occupational health?
Time Limited Volume
Total Load Value
Threshold Limit Value
Toxic Lethal Volume
Threshold Limit Value (TLV) is a guideline established by the ACGIH that represents the level to which it is believed a worker can be exposed day after day without adverse health effects. TLVs are widely referenced but not legally enforceable unless adopted by regulatory agencies. They cover airborne chemical exposures and physical agents.
What is the primary goal of an EHS audit?
To develop marketing strategies
To increase production output
To recruit new employees
To evaluate compliance with environmental, health, and safety regulations
An EHS audit systematically reviews processes, policies, and records to ensure regulatory compliance and identify opportunities for improvement. It helps organizations manage risks, reduce liabilities, and enhance environmental and safety performance. Findings are used to correct deficiencies and prevent future incidents.
What type of incidents must be recorded in the OSHA 300 Log?
Production delays
Quality defects
Customer complaints
Work-related injuries and illnesses
The OSHA 300 Log is used to record work-related injuries and illnesses that meet specific criteria for severity and recordability. It tracks data on cases, helps identify trends, and supports prevention efforts. Employers must maintain this log annually and make it available to employees.
The HAZWOPER standard covers operations involving which of the following?
Electrical inspections
Cleanup of hazardous substances and emergency response
Noise monitoring
Highway construction
HAZWOPER (Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response) applies to cleanup operations, treatment, storage, disposal of hazardous substances, and emergency response to hazardous releases. It sets training, medical surveillance, and safety requirements. The standard aims to protect workers from chemical hazards.
The Hazard Communication Standard (HAZCOM) requires employers to do what?
Mandate annual drug testing
Inform and train employees about chemical hazards
Provide company uniforms
Schedule equipment maintenance
The HAZCOM Standard, also known as the 'Right-to-Know' law, requires employers to evaluate chemical hazards and communicate them to workers through labels, Safety Data Sheets, and training. This empowers employees to handle chemicals safely. It is aligned with the GHS classification and labeling.
The National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) are established under which federal law?
Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA)
Clean Water Act
Clean Air Act
National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)
The Clean Air Act authorizes the EPA to set NAAQS for pollutants considered harmful to public health and the environment. These standards define allowable concentrations of air pollutants like ozone and particulate matter. States develop plans to achieve and maintain NAAQS.
In qualitative risk assessments, risk is often calculated as the product of what two factors?
Frequency and duration
Speed and distance
Cost and time
Likelihood and severity
Qualitative risk assessments approximate risk by evaluating the likelihood of an event and the severity of its impact. Multiplying or mapping these two dimensions helps prioritize hazards for control. This approach is widely used when numerical data are limited.
Under EPA regulations, hazardous waste listed under the F-list (F001-F005) typically includes wastes from which source?
Spent solvents from common manufacturing processes
Pesticides
Radioactive materials
Medical waste
The F-list identifies wastes from non-specific sources, primarily spent solvents from industries like degreasing and surface coating. These wastes are considered hazardous due to toxicity, ignitability, corrosivity, or reactivity. Generators must handle them per RCRA requirements.
According to the Globally Harmonized System (GHS), which section of an SDS provides information on toxicological effects?
Section 6 (Accidental Release Measures)
Section 15 (Regulatory Information)
Section 11 (Toxicological Information)
Section 3 (Composition/Information on Ingredients)
Under GHS, Section 11 of the SDS details toxicological information, including routes of exposure, symptoms, acute and chronic effects, and numerical toxicity data. This helps employers assess health risks and implement controls. Accurate SDSs protect workers handling chemicals.
In safety management, the "Three E's" stand for what?
Engineering, Education, and Enforcement
Exploration, Expansion, and Extraction
Enlistment, Evaluation, and Execution
Environment, Energy, and Economy
The Three E's of safety are Engineering controls, Education and training, and Enforcement of policies. Engineering removes or reduces hazards, education informs workers, and enforcement ensures compliance. Together they create a robust safety culture.
What is the function of a flame arrestor in ventilation systems?
To prevent flames from traveling back through gas lines
To humidify air
To filter particulates
To increase airflow
A flame arrestor is a device that stops flame propagation by quenching the flame front, preventing ignition of flammable gases downstream. It is critical in systems handling volatile vapors or during emergency shutdowns. Proper installation protects equipment and personnel.
What term describes the gradual accumulation of chemicals in living organisms over time?
Bioremediation
Bioaccumulation
Biomagnification
Biodegradation
Bioaccumulation refers to the buildup of chemicals, such as pesticides or heavy metals, in an organism's tissues over its lifetime. It differs from biomagnification, which is the increase in concentration up the food chain. Understanding bioaccumulation helps assess long-term ecological and health risks.
Which hazard analysis method uses a bowtie diagram to illustrate risk pathways and controls?
Job Safety Analysis
Bowtie analysis
Fault Tree Analysis
Failure Mode and Effects Analysis
Bowtie analysis is a visual risk assessment tool that depicts how hazards can lead to top events and the barriers in place to prevent or mitigate consequences. It combines fault tree and event tree logic in a single diagram. This method enhances clarity of risk pathways and control measures.
What distinguishes a TLV-STEL from a TLV-TWA?
STEL is the short-term exposure limit over 15 minutes while TWA is the time-weighted average over 8 hours
STEL is a weekly limit and TWA is a yearly limit
STEL applies only to liquids and TWA applies only to gases
STEL measures maximum physical load and TWA measures chemical concentration
TLV-STEL (Short-Term Exposure Limit) defines the acceptable exposure over a 15-minute period, not to be exceeded even if the 8-hour TWA is within limits. TLV-TWA (Time-Weighted Average) is the average exposure over a normal 8-hour workday. Both values help manage short- and long-term exposure risks.
Under the Clean Air Act, what is a State Implementation Plan (SIP)?
A national inventory of industrial emissions
A federal funding program for pollution control
A state-level plan outlining how air quality standards will be achieved and maintained
An emergency response plan for chemical spills
A State Implementation Plan (SIP) is a comprehensive strategy prepared by a state to demonstrate how it will attain and maintain National Ambient Air Quality Standards. SIPs include regulatory measures, emissions inventories, and enforcement mechanisms. The EPA must approve each SIP.
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Study Outcomes

  1. Understand EHS Regulations -

    Identify key environmental health and safety standards from OSHA, EPA, and other regulatory bodies to build a solid foundation for passing the ehs test.

  2. Apply Hazard Identification Techniques -

    Use systematic methods to recognize workplace hazards, assess associated risks, and prioritize mitigation efforts effectively.

  3. Analyze Compliance Scenarios -

    Evaluate real-world examples presented in the safety compliance quiz and determine the most appropriate corrective actions to maintain compliance.

  4. Evaluate Control Measures -

    Compare various engineering, administrative, and personal protective strategies to select optimal solutions for reducing environmental and safety risks.

  5. Demonstrate EHS Compliance Skills -

    Leverage feedback from the ehs compliance test to reinforce best practices, track progress, and improve overall performance.

  6. Recall Workplace Safety Best Practices -

    Summarize essential steps for maintaining a safe and compliant work environment after completing the workplace safety quiz.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Hierarchy of Controls -

    The hierarchy of controls prioritizes hazard elimination, substitution, engineering controls, administrative actions, and personal protective equipment to minimize workplace risks. Use the mnemonic "Please Engineer Admin PPE" (P-E-A-P) to recall the order, and refer to OSHA's official guidelines for examples of each control level. Understanding this sequence is crucial for any ehs test or safety compliance quiz scenario.

  2. Hazard Communication and GHS Pictograms -

    Under OSHA 1910.1200 and the UN's Globally Harmonized System (GHS), there are nine standardized hazard pictograms conveying chemical dangers. A handy phrase, "Flames and skulls say FATAL," helps remember flammable and toxic symbol designs, and EPA website examples show proper label layouts. Mastering these symbols boosts your confidence on any environmental health quiz.

  3. Exposure Limits and TWA Calculation -

    Familiarize yourself with Threshold Limit Values (TLVs) from ACGIH and Permissible Exposure Limits (PELs) from OSHA to assess airborne contaminant risks. Use the TWA formula, TWA = (C1T1 + C2T2 + … + CnTn)/8 hours, to calculate worker exposure over a shift; NIOSH publishes real-world examples. Accurate calculations are a must for any ehs compliance test challenge.

  4. Risk Assessment Matrix -

    A risk assessment matrix plots the severity and likelihood of a hazard to prioritize mitigation efforts; common scales range from 1 (low) to 5 (high). Refer to ISO 31000 for a sample 5×5 matrix, and remember "S × L = R" to compute Risk = Severity × Likelihood quickly. This structured approach is a cornerstone of workplace safety quizzes and professional audits.

  5. Emergency Response Planning -

    Implementing an Incident Command System (ICS) according to FEMA standards ensures organized, rapid response to spills, fires, or medical emergencies. Drill regularly using tabletop exercises from NFPA 450 to reinforce roles and communication paths. Being prepared for emergencies will give you an edge on any workplace safety quiz.

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