Module Cardio-MI

A detailed illustration of a human heart with anatomical labels, surrounded by kidney images, depicting the connection between cardiovascular health and chronic kidney disease.

Cardiovascular Health and CKD Quiz

Test your knowledge on the intricate relationship between cardiovascular health and chronic kidney disease with our comprehensive quiz designed for healthcare professionals and students.

Key Features:

  • 64 Thought-Provoking Questions
  • Multiple Choice Format
  • Deep Dive into Cardiology and Nephrology
64 Questions16 MinutesCreated by CaringDoctor472
A 66-year-old man with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is referred for office evaluation after a recent admission for an acute coronary syndrome. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning chronic kidney disease (CKD) and cardiovascular disease?
Patients with CKD are at increased risk of bleeding but decreased risk of thrombotic events when compared with normal individuals.
The outcomes of patients with CKD who present with acute coronary syndromes are similar to those of patients with normal renal function.
Renal dysfunction is the most significant independent predictor of mortality of patients in coronary care units.
Patients with CKD who present to the hospital with chest pain comprise a relatively low-risk group of acute coronary syndromes, with a cardiac event rate of < 5% at 30days.
Uremia is associated with enhanced platelet aggregation.
An 80-year-old woman is admitted with acute pulmonary edema on a background of progressive shortness of breath with exertional chest pain for 6 months. She has a history of renal impairment with an eGFR of 40 mL/min. She is initially commenced on IV furosemide with good effect. An echocardiogram reveals LVEF 40% with severe aortic stenosis (AS) with an estimated valve area of 0.7 cm2. What would you do next?
Add a beta-blocker
Perform angiography with a view to aortic valve replacement (AVR)/ transcatheter aortic valve implantation
Add an ACE inhibitor
Implant a CRT-D
Add a beta-blocker, Perform angiography with a view to aortic valve replacement (AVR)/ transcatheter aortic valve implantation
You get a phone call from the heart failure nurse specialist regarding a patient followed up in clinic for titration of medication. He has dilated cardiomyopathy with an EF of 30%. His most recent BP is 110/60 mmHg with heart rate 60 bpm. He is currently on bisoprolol 7.5 mg od and ramipril 5 mg od. His renal function test results have been phoned through to the specialist nurse: Na 136 mmol/L, K 5.5 mmol/L, urea 13 mmol/L, creatinine 270 μmol/L. (Baseline before titration of ACE inhibitor: Na 138 mmol/L, K 4.8 mmol/L, urea 8 mmol/L, creatinine 180 μmol/L.) What would be your advice?
Continue current medication and recheck U&E at 1 week
Stop ramipril and recheck U&E at 1 week
Add spironolactone and recheck U&E at 1 week
Halve dose of ramipril and recheck U&E at 1 week
Ž� Stop all medication and recheck U&E at 1 week
A 57-year-old woman with known heart failure and EF 42% is reviewed in clinic. She is breathless on walking up one flight of stairs or half a mile on the flat. On examination, her BP is 130/90 mmHg and her heart rate is 75 bpm (SR, ECG QRS < 120 ms). Her chest is clear to auscultation. There are no signs of fluid overload. Her current medication is carvedilol 25 mg bd, furosemide 40 mg od, and digoxin 62.5 micrograms od. Her recent renal function tests are Na 141 mmol/L, K 5.1 mmol/L, urea 13.5 mmol/L, and creatinine 236 μmol/L. She has not previously tolerated an ACE inhibitor or spironolactone because of deteriorating renal function and hyperkalemia. What would you do next?
Add hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate (H-ISDN)
Add candesartan
Add eplerenone
Add furosemide
Add ivabradine
A 65-year-old hypertensive non-diabetic has an eGFR < 40. Screening tests showed microalbuminuria and a normal renal ultrasound. Which class of antihypertensive medication should you start?
ACE inhibitor
Beta-blocker
Calcium-channel blocker
Thiazide diuretic
Angiotensin receptor blocker
A 52 year-old woman has been treated for several years with amlodipine and lisinopril for what has been presumed to be primary hypertension. She is seen by her GP having complained of persistent left loin pain. Her BP is 150/95 mmHg. She is tender in the left loin and both kidneys appear to be enlarged. On urine dipstick testing, there is microscopic haematuria. Which of the following is likely to be the most appropriate investigation at this point?
Urinary tract ultrasound
Abdominal and pelvic computed tomography (CT) scan
Microscopy of the urine (microbial and cytological)
Renal biopsy
Intravenous urogram
A 65-year-old diabetic with a creatinine of 1.6 was started on an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor for hypertension and presents to the emergency room with weakness. His other medications include a statin for hypercholesterolemia, a beta blocker and spironolactone for congestive heart failure, insulin for diabetes, and aspirin. Laboratory examinations include: K: 7.2 meq/L, Creatinine: 1.8, Glucose: 400 mg/dL, CPK: 400 IU/L. If this patient has a widened QRS on ECG, the first drug given is
Intravenous sodium bicarbonate
Intravenous calcium gluconate
Intravenous insulin
Polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
Furosemide (Lasilix)
An 80-year-old man presents with dyspnea and is found to have CHF caused by systolic dysfunction. He also has mild renal insufficiency, with a creatinine level of 1.4. Which of the following statements is true regarding ACE inhibitor therapy in this patient?
It is contraindicated because of his age
It is contraindicated because of his renal insufficiency
Angiotensin II receptor blockers are preferred for CHF in elderly patients
ACE inhibitor therapy can be started, provided it is accompanied by careful monitoring of his creatinine and potassium levels
ACE inhibitor therapy can be started but must be discontinued if his creatinine level rises above its current level
An 82-year-old woman with HTN and chronic renal failure (serum creatinine 3.5 mg/dL) is referred to you for the management of PAF. She has no other risk factors for coronary atherosclerosis and has wellpreserved ventricular function. Her ECG is essentially normal, with a QTcinterval of 400 msec. Which of the following drugs will be suitable for her rhythm management?
Sotalol 120 mg BID
Dofetilide 500 mcg BID
Amiodarone 200mg QD
Procainamide 1 gm TID
Propafenone 150 mg TID
A patient with renal failure (creatinine, 3.4 mg/dL) and thrombocytopenia (platelet count, 35,000mm3) presents to you with a pericardial effusion. He is hemodynamically stable. You are concerned about a paracardiac malignancy and would like to characterize the pericardial effusion further. What would be the best method of evaluating this possibility?
TEE
EBCT
MRI
Pericardial tap
TTE
An 80-year-old woman is admitted with acute pulmonary edema on a background of progressive shortness of breath with exertional chest pain for 6 months. She has a history of renal impairment with​​ an eGFR of 40 mL/min. She is initially commenced on IVfurosemide with good effect. An echocardiogram reveals LVEF 40% with severe aortic stenosis (AS) with an estimated valve area of 0.7 cm2. What would you do next?
Add a beta-blocker
Perform angiography with a view to aortic valve replacement (AVR)/transcatheter aortic valve implantation
Add an ACE inhibitor
Implant a CRT-D
Add a beta-blocker, Perform angiography with a view to aortic valve replacement (AVR)/transcatheter
Quelle est la proposition suivant qui est correcte concernant la cardiopathie dilatée post-partum?
Son tableau clinique est pareil à celui d’une insuffisance cardiaque
La cardiopathie dilatée post-partum survient 1 an après l’accouchement
La cardiopathie dilatée post-partum a un mauvais pronostic
L’échocardiographie montre un VG non dilaté avec bonne fraction d’éjection du VG
Son complication la plus fréquente est une péricardite
Un homme âgé de 26 ans sans antécédent particulier, est suivi par son médecin traitant depuis 6 mois pour spondylarthrite ankylosante débutante. Le motif de la consultation actuelle est une dyspnée d'effort rapidement progressive depuis quelques semaines avec des crises douloureuses rétrosternales constrictives survenant tantôt à l'effort, tantôt au repos la nuit. Auscultation : souffle holodiastolique intense, prédominant le long du bord gauche du sternum. La tension artérielle est à 120/50mmHg. Le pouls radial est très nettement perçu. Quelle est la valvulopathie dont est atteint ce patient?
Insuffisance aortique
Tétralogie de Fallot
Insuffisance mitrale
Communication inter-auriculaire
Communication inter-ventriculaire
Une femme de 62 ans, est atteinte d'une polyarthrite rhumatoïde séropositive diagnostiquée il y a huit ans. Quelle est la complication cardiaque la plus fréquente de cette maladie ?
Hypertrophie du ventricule gauche
Dissection aortique
Péricardite
Rétrécissement aortique
Rétrécissement mitral
Concernant la vascularite, quelle proposition qui est correcte?
Takayasu survient souvent chez une femme > 50 ans avec l’asymétrie tensionnelle
Horton survient chez un sujet < 30 ans avec asymétrie tensionnelle
Kawasaki survient normalement chez un enfant > 15 ans avec complication anévrismale des coronaires au long cours
Takayasu survient souvent chez une femme < 30 ans avec l’hypertension artérielle
Horton survient chez un sujet < 30 ans avec l’hypertension artérielle
Concernant le syndrome des anti-phospholipides, quelle proposition qui est correcte?
Le syndrome des anti-phospholipides est caractérisé par la thrombose artérielle et/ou veineuse
Le syndrome des anti-phospholipides survient plutôt chez l’homme
Le syndrome des anti-phospholipides survient chez la femme plus de 60 ans
Le syndrome des anti-phospholipides est une maladie contagieuse
Il n’y a pas de traitement spécifique pour la thrombose veineuse
Quelle est la complication cardiaque la plus fréquente de l’ rhumatisme articulaire aigu ?
Rétrécissement mitral
CIA
PCA
Sténose pulmonaire
Rétrécissement aortique
Femme enceinte de 4 semaines d’aménorrhée présente une embolie pulmonaire nécessitant une anticoagulation. Quelle thérapeutique préconisez-vous?
Sintrom
Thrombolytique
Aspirine + clopidogrel
Sintrom + HBPM
HBPM
Femme enceinte de 32 semaines d’aménorrhée présente sa TA : 160/90mmHg avec protéinurie : 2g/24h. Quel est le traitement antihypertenseur qui est le plus approprié dans cette situation ?
Inhibiteur de l’enzyme de conversion
Antagoniste de rénine angiotensine II
Inhibiteur calcique
Furosémide
Spironolactone
Quelle est la proposition suivant qui est correcte concernant l’ rhumatisme articulaire aigu ?
RAA survient le plus souvent à l’âge de 5-15ans
RAA survient le plus souvent à l’âge de 3-5ans
Il n’existe pas de traitement préventif pour la complication cardiaque
20% de RAA donne une complication cardiaque
PCA est la plus fréquente de la complication cardiaque
Un homme de 42 ans est hospitalisé pour dyspnée d'effort depuis 3 mois qui s'est rapidement aggravée la semaine passée. Cet homme n'a pas d'antécédents pathologiques notables en dehors d'une cyphoscoliose importante. Il mesure 1 m 81 et pèse 62 kilos (sa mère était également très grande). Auscultation : souffle diastolique en écharpe 4/6, crépitant 1/3 inférieur. Hyperpulsatilité artérielle périphérique, TA = 130/50 mmHg, pouls = 98/mn Absence d’OMI ni de TVJ. Quel diagnostic clinique évoquez-vous ?
Insuffisance cardiaque gauche/IA
Insuffisance cardiaque droite/IA
OAP/poussée hypertensive
Insuffisance cardiaque/RM
Embolie pulmonaire
Quelle est la proposition suivant qui est correcte concernant la dysfonction érectile?
La prévalence de la dysfonction érectile ne dépend pas de l’âge
La dysfonction érectile n’a pas de relation avec le diabète
La prévalence de la dysfonction érectile augmente avec l’âge
La dysfonction érectile survient le plus souvent chez l’adolescence
La dysfonction érectile n’est pas de marqueur de la maladie cardio-vasculaire asymptomatique
Quelle est la contre-indication majeure de la grossesse chez la femme ayant une cardiopathie ?
Petite CIV
CIA cyanogène
RM non serré
IM modérée asymptomatique
Insuffisance aortique minime
Concernant l’hypertension au cours de la grossesse, quelle proposition qui est correcte?
L’hypertension au cours de la grossesse survient avant les 20 semaines d’aménorrhée
L’hypertension au cours de la grossesse survient après les 20 semaines d’aménorrhée
L’hypertension au cours de la grossesse survient après les 20 semaines d’aménorrhée avec toujours la protéinurie
L’hypertension au cours de la grossesse survient avant les 20 semaines d’aménorrhée sans protéinurie
L’hypertension au cours de la grossesse survient avant les 20 semaines d’aménorrhée avec toujours la protéinurie
Concernant l’arythmie au cours de la grossesse, quelle proposition qui est correcte?
Le choc électrique externe est contre-indiqué
Il y a une contre-indication absolue de l’adénosine
Sotalol n’est pas dangereux
Cordarone n’est pas dangereux
Digoxine ne peut pas être utilisé
Concernant la toxicité cardiaque induite par la chimiothérapie, quelle proposition qui est correcte?
La complication la plus souvent est la valvulopathie
Il n’y a pas de traitement pour l’insuffisance cardiaque causée par la chimiothérapie
La chimiothérapie n’est pas dangereuse pour chez le patient ayant une valvulopathie significative
La chimiothérapie n’est pas dangereuse pour le cœur quelle que soit la dose de la chimiothérapie
L’incidence de l’insuffisance cardiaque dépend de la dose de l’anthracyclines
La complication cardiaque causée par l’anthracycline est la plus fréquente :
Bloc auriculo-ventriculaire
Hypertension artérielle
Péricardite
Insuffisance cardiaque
Embolie pulmonaire
L’ECG chez le patient ayant une amylose cardiaque montre le plus souvent:
BAV III
TV
Microvoltage
FA
Torsade de point
La complication cardiaque la plus souvent rencontrée chez le patient ayant une spondylarthrite ankylosante est :
Insuffisance aortique
Rétrécissement mitral
Myocardite
FA
IDM
Concernant l’HIV, quelle proposition qui est correcte?
Insuffisance cardiaque droite causée le plus souvent par l’hypertension pulmonaire
Insuffisance cardiaque droite causée le plus souvent par rétrécissement mitral
Myocardite la plus souvent rencontrée avec CD4 >400/mm3
Pas d’augmentation du risque cardio-vasculaires en comparant avec le sujet immunocompétent
Toute est correcte
Concernant le diabète sucré, quelle proposition qui est correcte?
Pas d’augmentation d’agrégation plaquettaire
Relation significative entre le diabète et l’hypertension artérielle
Pas de dysfonction endothéliale
Bétabloquant est le traitement de choix dans l’HTA avec le diabète
Toute est correcte
La manifestation clinique de RAA se manifeste par :
Atteinte pulmonaire
Atteinte articulaire
Chute de cheveux
HTA
Toute est correcte
Quel est l’examen paraclinique le plus approprié pour rechercher une cardite de RAA ?
ASLO
VS
ECG
Echocardiographie
Toute est correcte
Quelle est le traitement de prévention secondaire de RAA ?
AINS
Antibiotique
Antiagrégant plaquettaire
Corticoïde
Antalgique
Quelle est la complication causée par l’hypertension pulmonaire chez le HIV ?
BPCO
HTA
IDM
Dissection aortique
Insuffisance cardiaque droite
Which of the following lipid-lowering agents may worsen glycemic control in patients with borderline fasting hyperglycemia?
Simvastatin
Atorvastatin
Niacin
Gemfibrozil
None of the above
A 62-year-old tycoon in Kampot presents for physical examination. He is completely asymptomatic and leads a relatively sedentary life style, playing golf twice per week. His past medical history is significant for chronic mild HTN and hyperlipidemia, and he is overweight. He does have a positive family history for early CAD in his father. His current medications include hydroclorothiazide. On physical examination he is found to have a BP of 150/90 mmHg and a HR of 82 bpm. JVP is normal. Carotid upstrokes are normal without bruits. The lungs are clear to auscultation. The heart has a regular rate and rhythm. S1 and S2 are normal. An S4 is present. No murmurs are appreciated. The apical impulse is in normal location and of normal quality. The abdomen is soft with no masses or bruits. The extremities have no clubbing, cyanosis, or edema, and the peripheral pulses are normal. Chest X-ray is unremarkable. The resting ECG is normal. His total cholesterol is 252 mg/dL, LDL cholesterol 142 mg/dL, HDL 38 mg/dL, TG 160 mg/dL. The next best step is:
Coronary angiography
TMET to diagnose the presence of CAD
Begin therapy with antihypertensive, cholesterol-lowering medications, and aspirin therapy
Imaging stress test to define the presence of CAD
Resting echocardiography to define LV systolic function
Lipid-lowering agents:
Are effective for reducing long-term mortality, even in patients with advanced CAD
Should not be used early in the post-infarction period
May paradoxically increase mortality in patients with low levels of HDL cholesterol
Were frequently stopped because of congestive hepatitis in trials among patients with a history of heart failure
Should not be start immediately in an acute MI
58-year-old woman is being treated for chronic suppression of a ventricular arrhythmia. After 2 months of pharmacotherapy, she complains about feeling tired all the time. Examination reveals a resting heart rate of 10b/min lower than her previous rate. Her skin is cool and clammy. Laboratory test results indicate low thyroxine and elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone levels. Which of the following agents is most likely to have caused these signs and symptoms?
Amiodarone
Procainamide
Verapamil
Quinidine
Metoprolol
Guidelines for the use of a statin in hypertension include the following, except:
Following a stroke
Type 2 diabetic diagnosed 11 years previously
Primary prevention with a CVD risk of 25%
Target levels of LDL <2 mmol/L and total cholesterol <4 mmol/L
Primary prevention in an 80-year-old
A 57-year-old woman with a medical history of uncontrolled diabetes, hyperlipidemia, and smoking is being seen at 2-month follow-up after recent hospitalization for anterior STEMI. She reports feeling well and is back to her normal routine without symptoms. Physical exam reveals a blood pressure of 137/75 mmHg and a heart rate of 73 bpm. The remainder of her exam is unremarkable. Blood work shows total cholesterol of 273 mg/dL, LDL 162 mg/dL, HDL 39 mg/dL, and triglycerides of 358 mg/dL. Her HgA1c is 9.8%. Echocardiogram reveals an EF of 35%. Her medications include aspirin 81 mg daily, clopidogrel 75 mg daily, carvedilol 6.25 mg twice daily, lisinopril 20 mg daily, metformin 500 mg twice daily, and pravastatin 40 mg daily. Which of the following interventions would be the most impactful with regard to her long-term cardiovascular morbidity and mortality?
Smoking cessation
High-dose atorvastatin for optimal lipid control
Implantation of an ICD
Optimizing diabetic medical regimen for improved glycemic control
Titrating carvedilol and lisinopril higher as tolerated
An 83-year-old man with a medical history of coronary artery disease with three-vessel CABG, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia presents to the emergency department with lightheadedness and chest pain radiating down his left arm. The pain began approximately 2 hours ago and has progressively worsened throughout the day. He took one sublingual nitroglycerin at home that did not seem to help. He reports having several episodes of loose, dark stools earlier in the day. He appears to be in moderate distress. Pertinent findings on exam include a blood pressure of 94/52 mmHg, heart rate of 116 bpm, and oxygen saturation of 97%. His neck veins are flat. There is a left carotid bruit present. Lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac exam reveals a regular tachycardia with a soft systolic murmur at the right upper sterna border. There is mild epigastric tenderness on abdominal palpation. His extremities are cool to touch; there is no edema. A stat ECG is performed and shows sinus tachycardia with 2-mm ST depressions across the precordium. Currently, the patient reports an urge to defecate. What is the next best step?
Obtain stat cardiac biomarkers
Administer aspirin, heparin, and ADP inhibitor
Activate the cardiac catheterization laboratory for immediate revascularization
Place two large-bore IVs
Initiate IV nitroglycerin and titrate until chest pain is relieved
A 58-year-old man with a medical history of coronary artery disease treated with PCI to the LAD 2 years ago and hyperlipidemia presents to the emergency room with precordial chest pain radiating down his left arm for the past 2 hours. Physical exam shows blood pressure of 136/77 mmHg, heart rate of 96 bpm, and oxygen saturation of 98%. His JVD is flat and pulmonary exam is unremarkable. Cardiac exam reveals regular rate and rhythm with an S4 gallop. Abdominal exam is benign, and his peripheries are warm. ECG shows 2-mm ST segment depressions in the anterior leads. He is administered aspirin 325 mg, ticagrelor 180 mg, and unfractionated heparin, and is started on a nitroglycerin infusion that has to be titrated to a high dose to achieve resolution of his chest pain. He is scheduled for cardiac catheterization at the end of the day. Just before he is transported out of the emergency department, he begins to experience long runs of ventricular tachycardia associated with lightheadedness. Blood pressure obtained during one of these long runs is 89/54 mmHg. He reports that his chest pain is beginning to return. What is the next best step?
Continue to titrate nitroglycerin for pain relief
Obtain an echocardiogram
Proceed immediately to the catheterization laboratory for angiography
Administer IV metoprolol
Administer IV dobutamine
In a patient with PAD, what should be the ideal LDL goal for preventing further disease progression?
< 170 mg/dL
< 200 mg/dL
< 140 mg/dL
< 100 mg/dL
< 70 mg/dL
A 67-year-old man is diagnosed with peripheral arterial disease. Modification of which of the following risk factors would be advisable for this patient?
Smoking cessation
Diabetes
Dyslipidemia
Hypertension
All of the above
A 51-year-old Cambodian man recently relocated to the area and presents to your cabinet as a new patient. He denies having any history of medical problems. He made very infrequent visits to a general practitioner where he previously lived. He is on no medicines and denies having any significant family medical history. He is a current smoker with a 40 pack-year smoking history. His blood pressure is 170/95 mm Hg, and a fourth heart sound is present. His physical examination is otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following statements regarding treatment of this patient’s hypertension is true?
The most appropriate initial medical therapy for this patient is an alpha blocker
The most appropriate initial medical therapy for this patient is a thiazide diuretic
The most appropriate initial medical therapy for this patient is a thiazide diuretic in combination with another antihypertensive agent that works via a different blood pressure regulatory pathway
To have this patient stop smoking cigarettes would have little or no effect on the control of his hypertension
To have this patient having DASH diet would be enough to control his hypertension
Which of the following is true about smoking and CV disease?
Smokers have their first CV event approximately 10 years earlier than matched nonsmoking cohorts
Mortality of smokers is 50% greater than nonsmokers and those who quit smoking immediately after a MI
The magnitude of smoking cessation on reducing mortality if EF_35% is similar to beta blockers and ICDs
There is a dose–response curve between cessation counseling and sustained abstinence up to 8 sessions/300 minutes
All of the above
You are asked to see a 41-year-old woman who presents in her 32nd week of pregnancy with sudden onset severe chest discomfort. She has a history of systemic HTN prior to pregnancy controlled on two oral hypotensive agents. Control of HTN has been excellent during pregnancy. She has a past history of smoking but has not used tobacco during the pregnancy. The patient presented to the ED for evaluation. She is markedly diaphoretic. When you see her, she has received 2 SL NTG and has persistent chest pain. She denies cocaine usage. An ECG is obtained and shows 2 mm ST segment elevation in the anterior precordial leads V2, V3, V4. You would recommend which of the following?
Perform an emergency coronary angiography and PCI if indicated by the coronary anatomy
Administer thrombolytic therapy with tPA in order to minimize radiation exposure to the baby
Start a glycoprotein IIB/IIIA inhibitor and wait 1hr to assess the clinical response and then, if needed, proceed to cardiac catheterization only if there is no improvement in symptoms or ECG findings
Perform a CT scan of the chest to rule out aortic dissection or pulmonary embolism
Start aspirin therapy, administer IV NTG, and admit to the CCU for observation
You have been referred a 65-year-old man whom the GP has been struggling to manage. For the last year his clinic blood pressure recordings have been persistently around 150/90 mmHg, but he claims to suffer from the ‘white coat’ phenomenon, with home recordings of around 135/90 mmHg which you are satisfied have been undertaken appropriately. He is otherwise healthy, having implemented dietary changes and increased his exercise over the last year, but smokes and intends to continue. What do you recommend?
A clinic recording, which if normal suggests no need for medical management and if > 140/90 mmHg requires treatment
A 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure monitor (ABPM)
Salt restriction, exercise, and continued home monitoring
Commencement of pharmacological treatment
Home devices are not as reliable as a mercury sphygmomanometer; therefore the clinic measurements should be believed and treatment commenced
An overweight (BMI 35) 45-year old man has been referred for investigation of his high blood pressure (160/95 mmHg). He has no significant past medical or family history, but socially he consumes at least 15 pints of beer per week and smokes five cigarettes per day. A 24- hour urinary cortisol is raised and low-dose dexamethasone test is normal. What is the appropriate management?
Advise lifestyle changes including weight loss, exercise, and reduced alcohol intake
A renal ultrasound
A MIBI scan
Refer to an endocrinologist
Commence an ACE inhibitor
A 39-year-old man with a medical history of hypertension and smoking presents to the emergency department with worsening chest pain. He reports that he suddenly developed the discomfort after a coughing spell this morning. It has worsened over the past 4 hours so that he now presents to the emergency room. He says it is like a “knife going through my chest to my spine.” There are no exacerbating or alleviating factors that he can identify. Physical exam reveals a blood pressure of 189/92, heart rate of 96 bpm, and oxygen saturation of 96%. He is in moderate discomfort. There is no significant JVD. His lungs are clear, and cardiac exam reveals regular rate and rhythm with a very soft diastolic murmur at the right upper sternal border. He has a trace radial pulse on his left side; the other extremities have 2+ pulses. A basic metabolic profile is remarkable for a creatinine of 1.7. His CK-MB is 22 (units here) and his TnT is 0.8 (units here). An ECG shows nonspecific ST-T changes in leads II, III, and aVF. A chest x-ray is unremarkable. What is the next best step?
Gated CT of the chest with contrast
Transesophageal echocardiogram
Administration of aspirin, clopidogrel, and IV heparin and trend cardiac markers with serial ECGs
Administration of NSAIDs and colchicine
Check a D-dimer
A 72-year-old man with a history of mitral valve prolapse, moderate mitral regurgitation, and a remote history of smoking presents with worsening lower extremity edema. Echocardiography shows the aforementioned findings as well as a dilated left atrium and moderate right ventricular dysfunction. His ejection fraction is 60%. What is the cause of his right ventricular dysfunction?
Right ventricular myocardial infarction
Primary pulmonary hypertension
Mitral regurgitation
COPD
Left ventricular systolic heart failure
A 70-year-old woman with a history of hypertension, coronary artery disease,and smoking presents with tearing chest pain across the chest that radiates to the back for the past 1 hour. Vitals are HR 100 bpm, BP 190/110 mmHg, RR 18 per minute, and O2 saturation 97% on RA. A chest CT with contrast shows an aortic dissection extending 1 cm distal to the left subclavian artery to 2 cm superior to the renal arteries. What is the most appropriate management strategy?
Immediate surgery
Administration of IV labetalol, nitroglycerine, and surgery when stable
Administration of IV heparin, IV metoprolol, and continued monitoring
Administration of IV heparin, IV nitroprusside, IV metoprolol, and continued monitoring
Administration of IV metoprolol, IV nitroprusside, and continued monitoring
A 65-year-old man is referred to you for assessment of his complaint of 6 months of progressive exertional dyspnea with activities of daily living. His history is remarkable for hypertension, peptic ulcer disease, and active smoking of one pack per day with >100 packs per year in total. He denies chest pain, orthopnea, PND, or productive cough, but he does report moderate weight loss over the past year. His examination reveals a thin man in no distress who smells of smoke. He is afebrile and normotensive with a room air saturation of 92%. He has diffuse end expiratory wheezing and distant heart sounds without murmurs. His legs are warm and without edema. His ECG is remarkable for sinus rhythm with low QRS voltage and slight right-axis deviation. His labs are all within normal limits, including a B-type natriuretic peptide level. From what you know about this patient right now, in addition to smoking cessation counseling, what would you recommend next?
Furosemide
Inhaled ipratropium bromide and albuterol
Azithromycin
Metoprolol
Heparin
A 72-year-old woman from Siem Reap comes to see you to establish care, after her previous physician retired. Her medical history is significant for diet-controlled diabetes and a myocardial infarction. She is taking aspirin, simvastatin, and amlodipine. On examination, her blood pressure is 170/95 mm Hg. She has an S4 gallop and 1+ pretibial edema.
<160/90 mmHg
< 150/90 mm Hg
< 140/90 mm Hg
< 130/85 mm Hg
< 120/70 mm Hg
A 74-year-old man with diabetic nephropathy is seeing you in clinic on Friday in preparation for his scheduled coronary angiogram on Monday. He currently takes NPH insulin, metformin, lisinopril, furosimide, and aspirin. On physical exam he is euvolemic. Which of these medications should he stop prior to his angiogram?
NPH insulin
Metformin
Lisinopril
Furosimide
Aspirin
A 78-year-old man with DM and HTN presents to your office with progressive dyspnea (NYHA functional class III) and lower extremity swelling. In addition to ordering an echocardiogram for assessment of LV systolic function, what is currently the most appropriate next test to assess his diastolic function?
Cardiac MRI
Echocardiography-Doppler imaging techniques
Echocardiography-Strain imaging techniques
Left heart catheterization
BNP
A 66-year-old woman with a history of hyperlipidemia and diabetes presents for the evaluation of dyspnea. Her HR is 66 bpm and her systolic BP is 214/90mmHg. Her LV size on TTE is normal. Her LV EF is 59%. This is her mitral inflow pattern: Which is the finding most consistent with the echocardiogram?
AF
Normal diastolic function
Third heart sound on auscultation
Fourth heart sound on auscultation
Significant AS
A 52-year old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to the physician because of facial swelling around her lips and eye. On her last visit 3 weeks ago she was diagnosed with hypertension and appropriate pharmacotherapy was initiated. An image of the woman’s eyes is shown. Which of the following agents could account for the adverse drug reaction in this patient?
Clonidine
Atenolol
Hydrochlorothiazide
Nifedipine
Lisinopril
A 56-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes for 6 years is admitted with severe shortness of breath that developed over 12–24 h. His medications include metformin, pioglitazone, simvastatin, ramipril and aspirin, and he has been on this treatment for more than 2 years. There is no history of chest pain. His blood tests show a normal FBC, U&Es and HbA1c of 7.9%. The most likely cause for this man’s symptoms is:
Silent myocardial infarction resulting in left ventricular failure
Treatment with metformin resulting in lactic acidosis and compensatory hyperventilation
Treatment with pioglitazone resulting in fluid retention
Simvastatin-induced rhabdomyolysis with consequent renal failure and metabolic acidosis
Ramipril-induced renal dysfunction secondary to renal artery stenosis
A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension, diabetes, and persistent atrial fibrillation, for which he is warfarinized, is admitted with an NSTEMI. He undergoes PCI to his proximal LAD with a drug-eluting stent (DES). What is the best combination of drugs following his intervention?
Aspirin, clopidogrel, and warfarin for 1 month; then warfarin alone thereafter
Aspirin, clopidogrel and warfarin for 1 month; then warfarin and clopidogrel for 12 months followed by warfarin alone
Aspirin, clopidogrel, and warfarin for 6 months; then warfarin and clopidogrel for 6 months followed by warfarin alone
Aspirin, clopidogrel and warfarin for 12 months; then warfarin alone
Aspirin and warfarin for 12 months; then clopidogrel alone
You are referred a 40-year-old lady with left arm pain. She had a single episode after running for a bus with shopping, which subsided after 5 minutes. She has never previously had exertional chest discomfort. Resting ECG is normal and 8 hours high-sensitivity troponin is negative. She has a BMI of 33 and diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus but is not hypertensive. What do you recommend?
Reassure and discharge
Inpatient invasive coronary angiogram
Outpatient stress echo
Discharge-dependent exercise treadmill test
CT coronary angiogram
A 45-year-old diabetic male patient has returned to clinic following a recent angiogram. He has stable class 2 angina and is currently on aspirin 75 mg od, atorvastatin 40 mg nocte, and bisoprolol 2.5 mg as antianginal treatment. His symptoms have improved since starting the beta-blocker. The angiogram showed severe plaque in the proximal left anterior descending artery and discrete simple lesions in the mid circumflex and right coronary arteries. The echocardiogram has shown moderate LV impairment. What do you recommend?
Titrate the beta-blocker and add a calcium-channel blocker or long-acting nitrate— reassess symptoms
Titrate the beta-blocker and add an ACE inhibitor—reassess symptoms and LV function
CABG for prognostic and symptomatic improvement
PCI guided by ischaemia via a functional imaging test
Multivessel PCI or CABG for symptomatic treatment
On your ward round you review a patient who is 48 hours post anterior STEMI treated successfully with primary angioplasty. He has type 2 diabetes and hypertension. He is gradually improving, having initially suffered with heart failure. He still feels ‘chesty’ and auscultation reveals minimal basal crepitations. Echocardiography has revealed an ejection fraction of 40%. Blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg with heart rate 55 bpm at rest. Ramipril has been titrated to 2.5 mg bd with bisoprolol 2.5mg od. U&Es have remained normal. How would you improve his medical treatment?
Add furosemide 40 mg od
Reduce the bisoprolol
Further titrate the Ramipril
Add Eplerenone 25 mg od
Add isosorbide mononitrate MR 30 mg od
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