BLOOD PHYSIOLOGY (1-50)

A visually engaging illustration depicting blood physiology concepts, featuring blood cells, antibodies, and the immune system in a vibrant, educational style.

Blood Physiology Knowledge Quiz

Test your knowledge in blood physiology with this comprehensive quiz designed for students and enthusiasts alike. Covering key concepts and cellular interactions, this quiz includes diagnostic and functional aspects of the immune system.

Features:

  • 50 multiple choice and checkbox questions
  • Covers topics like immunity, blood cells, and antibodies
  • Scores at the end to evaluate your understanding
60 Questions15 MinutesCreated by LearningBlood101
1. A 20 year old female accidentally ingested crab meat. A few minutes later she developed generalized skin rash and urticaria. Her peripheral blood smear would likely reveal increased number of?
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Eosinophil
All of the above
2. A 21 year old female came to you with a systemic viral infection. You expect her peripheral blood smear to reveal
Increased neutrophils
Increased Hematocrit
Decreased hemoglobin
Increased Hemoglobin
Increased lymphocytes
3. Allergic desensitization refers to
A. Loss of allergic reactivity upon second exposure
B. Formation of specific IgE upon first antigen exposure
C. Release of histamine upon antigen contact
D. Degranulation of mast cells
A and B only
4. The advantage of Active Immunity is that this provides immunity that is
Quick acting
Long lasting
Slow acting
Short acting
5. The following cell characteristics can make it a target for phagocytosis
A. Presence of lipopolysaccharide on its surface
B. Having a ‘rough’ cell surface
C. Absence of protective protein coats
All of the above
A and B only
B and C only
6. The following cells work under INNATE immunity, EXCEPT
Circulating neutrophils
Blood monocytes
Suppressor T-cell
Macrophage
7. Suppressor T-Cells
Are activated by T-Helper Cells
. Play a part in immune tolerance
Prevent excessive immune response
All of the choices are correct
8. The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) targets this cell
NK cell
T-suppressor cell
CD4+ T cell
CD8+ T cell
Cellphone
9. CD4+ T cells are also known as
NK cell
T-helper cell
C. Cytotoxic T-cell
D. Suppressor T-cell
10. Which of the following is/are considered Opsonin/s
A. IgG
B. C3b
C. C5b
All of the Above
A and B only
A and C only
11. The correct sequence in neutrophil migration
Chemotaxis – margination – diapedesis
Margination – chemotaxis – diapedesis
Diapedesis – margination – chemotaxis
Margination – diapedesis – chemotaxis
None of the above
12. Eosinophils (weak phagocytes) kill invading parasites by releasing
Hydrolytic enzymes
Reactive oxygen species
Major basic protein
All of the above
13. True of the primary immune response
Giving the first shot of an active vaccine is an example of stimulating a primary immune response
IgG type of antibodies are produced during the primary immune response
More specific immunoglobulins are produced during the primary immune response
Antibody production during the primary immune response is more potent compared to the secondary immune response
14. True of B-cells
A. They are the cells responsible for cytotoxic immune response
B. Stimulate suppressor T-cells
C. Upon antigen recognition, B-cells differentiate into plasma cells
D. B-cells always need APC’s to recognize antigen
Two of the answers are correct
15. This portion of the antibody molecule binds to the antigen
Di-sulfide bond
Complement receptor
C. Constant region
D. Variable region
16. This type of immunity refers to clonal proliferation and differentiation of specific T-cells
A. Innate Immunity
B. Cytotoxic immunity
C. Adaptive immunity
D. Humoral immunity
17. The T-Helper Cell
A. Stimulates more antibody production by B cells/Plasma cells
B. Causes a more potent cytotoxic T-cell response
C. Prevents excessive immune response through the Suppressor T-Cell
D. All of the above
E. A and B only
18. The secondary immune response is faster and more potent because of
IgM antibodies
Memory cells
Complement system
T-helper cells
19. The reticuloendothelial system (RES) is composed of
Blood monocytes, tissue macrophages and spleen
Endothelial cells, basophils and granulocytes
Lymph nodes, lymphocytes and plasma cells
Lymph nodes, pancreas, and circulating neutrophils
All of the Above
20. The Granzyme
Punctures holes in the cell membrane of target cells
Resides in lysosomes that digest phagocytosed material
Induces apoptosis of the target cell
All of the above
21. The Membrane-Attack-Complex is formed by which complement proteins
C4-C5b
C5a-C9
C5b-C9
C1 and C3b
C3a and C4a
22. Antibodies exert their protective effects MOSTLY through
B cell stimulation
Toxin precipitation
Activating complement
Direct lysis of cells
23. The primary function of T-helper cells is
Precipitate toxins
Produce immunoglobulins
Present antigens to B-cells
Produce lymphokines that amplify the immune response
24. Giving Anti-Rh immunoglobulin to prevent erythroblastosis fetalis is a form of
A. Innate immunity
B. Auto immunity
c. Passive immunity
D. Active immunity
C and D
B and C
A and C
None of the choices
25. Giving Tetanus Toxoid is an example of
Active immunity
Natural immunity
Passive immunity
Innate immunity
26. Specialized macrophages in the skin are called
A. Von Kupffer cells
B. Langerhan’s cells
C. Histiocytes
D. Alveolar macrophages
B and C
27. Preprocessing of T lymphocytes occurs in the
Thymus
Spleen
Bone marrow
Lymph nodes
Thymus and Bone Marrow
Blood
28. Opsonizing agent/s
A. IgG
B. C3b complement
C. C5-C9 complement
All of the above
A and B
B and C
A and C
29. The newborn infant is protected by this type of antibody that is present in breast milk
IgA
IgB
IgD
IgM
IgG
30. During neutrophil margination, the neutrophils stick to the endothelium via
Tumor necrosis factor
Intracellular adhesion molecules
Interleukin
GPIIb-IIIa protein
31. The newborn infant is protected by this type of antibody that has passed through the placenta
IgE
IgM
IgA
IgG
32. Macrophage activation
A. Occurs after the macrophage ingests bacteria
B. Is the central event in the inflammatory process
C. Colony stimulating factors are released after macrophage activation
All of the above
A and B
A and C
33. Event/s during preprocessing
A. Further lymphocyte differentiation
B. Increase in lymphocyte diversity
C. Admixing with self antigens
D. All of the above
A and B
B and C
34. Clot retraction is made possible by
Actin and Myosin in platelets
Plasminogen
Calcium ions
None of the Above
All of the Above
35. Decreased intravascular oncotic pressure can lead to water going into the
A. Subcutaneous tissues
B. Peritoneal cavity
C. Pleural cavity
All of the Above
A and C
A and B
36. A 6 year old boy complains of easy fatigability and you notice that he is pale. His Ferritin levels are very low. You expect his RBC’s to look
Microcytic and hypochromic
Microcytic and hyperchromic
Spherical and hyperchromic
Spherical and hypochromic
Macrocytic
Spherical and microcytic
37. All of the following are stimulants for erythropoiesis, EXCEPT
Plasminogen
Epinephrine
Androgens
Prostaglandins
None of the Above
38. A patient was diagnosed with gastric cancer and underwent total gastrectomy. To prevent megaloblastic anemia, you should
Double the dose of oral Vitamin B12 supplements
Give intramuscular Vitamin B12 injections
Recommend periodic blood transfusions
Include folic acid with iron supplementation
Carbonic anhydrase is involved primarily in the transport of this gas
A. Carbon dioxide
D. Oxygen
C. Carbon monoxide
B. Nitrogen
Exposure of the blood to tissue factor will primarily trigger which coagulation pathway
A. Extrinsic
B. Intrinsic
C. Classical
D. Alternative
A and B
A and C
B and C
A and D
B and D
Hemochromatosis will occur in
A. In thalassemia patients having multiple transfusions
B. Suicidal individuals ingesting large amounts of Iron supplements
C. In children receiving iron supplements for iron-deficiency-anemia
D. Pregnant patients receiving mega doses of Iron
B and D
B, C and D
C and D
A person living on top of the Himalayas for most of his life would have
A. Increased bleeding tendencies
B. Increased coagulation factors
C. Increased hematocrit
D. Decreased hemoglobin levels
B and C
A and C
43. If agglutination is observed in the blue anti-serum but NOT in the yellow anti-serum, the blood type is
Type O
Type B
Type A
Type AB
In a typical 30 year old male, erythropoiesis occurs in the following areas, EXCEPT
A. Sternum
B. Pelvic bones
C. Tibia
D. Vertebra
D. Ribs
45. In an extreme emergency situation, the safest blood type to give theoretically is
AB Rh-
AB Rh+
O Rh-
O Rh+
46. In hemoglobin level determination, the intensity of the green color reflects
A. The amount of hemoglobin in the sample
B. The percentage of red cells in the sample
C. Both
D. None of the above
47. Oxygen will have decreased affinity to hemoglobin in which of the following setting?
Metabolic Alkalosis
Physical exertion
C. Hypothermia
D. Persistence of gamma hemoglobin chain
48. Prolonged bleeding time can indicate
A. Von-willebrand factor deficiency
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Functional platelet defect
All of the above
A and B
B and C
49. Prolonged Prothrombin Time (PT) and Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) tests could indicate a deficiency in
Thrombomodulin
Protein C and S
Antithrombin III
Vitamin K
None of the above
50. The end point of the test ‘bleeding time’ is the formation of
Bradykinin
Platelet plug
Fibrin
Thrombin
Prothrombin
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
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