Medic test

Trauma is the primary cause of death and disability between ages 1-44 years.

The acute physiologic and structural change that occurs in a patient's body when an external source of energy dissipates faster than the body's ability to sustain and dissipate it is called

The energy stored in an object, such as a bridge pillar, is called __________ energy, and the energy from motion is called __________ energy.

Knowledge of kinetics can help the paramedic:

The primary determinants of the extent of trauma a patient sustains are the:

Which of the following general statements regarding trauma is correct?

Which of the following will be of MOST benefit in helping the paramedic predict the type of injuries that a patient experienced?

According to the American College of Surgeons, an injured patient should be transported to a Level I trauma center if his or her:

Which of the following mechanisms of injury poses the LEAST threat for significant injury?

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely require transport to a Level I trauma center?

If the mechanism of injury does not appear to be significant, you should consider transporting an injured patient to a Level I trauma center if he or she:

A specific attribute of a Level I trauma center is that it:

At a minimum, a Level II trauma center should:

If a Level I trauma center is 30 miles away, and a Level II trauma center is 10 miles away, it would be MOST appropriate to transport a patient with a severe traumatic brain injury:

Which of the following is NOT a factor when considering transport of a trauma patient via helicopter?

When summoning an air transport service to transport a critically injured patient, it is MOST important to:

The "platinum 10 minutes" refers to the:

An object increases its kinetic energy more by:

The greatest amount of kinetic energy would be created if a ____-pound driver struck a tree while traveling at ____ mph.

The law of conservation of energy states that:

Sudden deceleration of a motor vehicle that is traveling at 60 mph:

Which of the following injury mechanisms would MOST likely result in blunt trauma?

Penetrating trauma occurs when:

During abrupt deceleration:

Unlike deceleration injuries, crush and compression injuries occur:

The MOST common site of deceleration injury in the chest is the:

The third phase of a motor vehicle accident involves:

If the windshield of a wrecked vehicle is cracked or broken:

The MOST reliable indicator that significant energy was dissipated by braking before a motor vehicle collision is:

The forces applied to the driver during a frontal vehicle collision will differ based on all of the following factors, EXCEPT:

The initial point of bodily impact when an unrestrained passenger takes the "down and under" pathway during a frontal collision is the:

When a patient takes the "up and over" pathway during a head-on collision:

During a frontal collision, MOST pneumothoraces occur when:

During a lateral impact collision:

The severity of hyperextension injuries to the neck following a rear-end collision depends MOSTLY on:

Following a rotational impact, the MOST severely injured patient(s. Will likely be found at the point of:

Which of the following statements regarding rollover motor vehicle crashes is correct?

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of a properly worn seat belt?

What type of injuries will MOST likely occur if a passenger is wearing his or her lap belt above the pelvic bone during a frontal impact?

All of the following statements regarding front air bags are correct, EXCEPT:

Common air bag-related injuries include:

Lap belts that are worn alone and too high by a pregnant woman:

Structural protection afforded to a motorcycle rider during a crash comes from:

Following a head-on collision of a motorcycle and a truck, the motorcyclist would MOST likely experience initial injury to the:

A properly worn motorcycle helmet will:

After a motorcyclist is ejected from his or her motorcycle, secondary collisions:

When an adult pedestrian is struck by a motor vehicle, lateral and posterior injuries are most common because:

The second impact that occurs when an adult pedestrian is struck by a motor vehicle would MOST likely result in injuries to the:

According to the Waddell triad, the second impact from a motor vehicle occurs when the:

When a person falls from a significant height and lands on his or her feet, axial loading results in:

The MOST significant fall occurs from a height greater than:

Unlike blunt trauma, penetrating trauma:

Which of the following factors is the LEAST influential in the severity of a stab wound?

Compared to stab wounds to the posterior part of the body, stab wounds to the anterior part of the body are generally:

If a person survives the initial trauma from a shotgun wound at close range:

Compared to a handgun, a rifle:

Which of the following general statements regarding gunshot wounds is correct?

Which of the following characteristics of an entry wound indicates that the weapon was fired at close range?

Which of the following statements regarding exit wounds is correct?

During an explosion, secondary blast injuries occur when:

Which of the following statements regarding primary blast injuries is correct?

The peak magnitude of the pressure wave experienced by a person:

The shock wave velocity from an explosion is slower and its duration is longer if a person is:

Which of the following organs is LEAST susceptible to pressure changes caused by an explosion?

A vagus nerve-mediated form of cardiogenic shock without compensatory vasoconstriction that may be seen following a blast injury would MOST likely present with:

Which of the following components is LEAST crucial to the continuous circulation of oxygenated blood throughout the body?

The cardiac cycle begins with the onset of myocardial contraction and ends:

Afterload is defined as the:

Which of the following two factors DIRECTLY affect cardiac output?

Which of the following statements regarding blood flow is correct?

Hemoglobin functions by:

What aggregates in a clump and forms much of the foundation of a blood clot during the process of coagulation?

Perfusion is defined as:

Which of the following organs or body systems requires a constant blood supply, regardless of external factors?

Which of the following organs can sustain the longest period of inadequate perfusion?

An organ or tissue that is considerably colder than 98.6°F is better able to resist damage from hypoperfusion because:

The amount of blood returned to the heart is called:

External bleeding would be the MOST difficult to control in a patient with a large laceration to the _____________ and a blood pressure of ______ mm Hg.

Patients with internal hemorrhage will benefit MOST from:

What is the approximate total blood volume of a 150-pound male?

The MOST significant factor that determines how well the body compensates for blood loss is:

Venous bleeding:

Which of the following factors would have the MOST negative effect on the body's process of hemostasis?

. If you suspect internal bleeding during the primary assessment, you should:

Hematochezia:

All of the following are common early signs or symptoms of nontraumatic internal hemorrhage in older patients, EXCEPT:

Most external hemorrhage can be controlled with a combination of:

What is "warm ischemic time"?

Much of the bleeding associated with unsplinted fractures continues because:

When applying a tourniquet to control major external hemorrhage from an extremity injury, you should:

Agents such as Celox, HemCon, and QuikClot are used to:

A patient with hemorrhagic shock would be expected to have:

Which of the following injuries or mechanisms would MOST likely lead to nonhemorrhagic shock?

A trauma patient with suspected internal hemorrhage and inadequate breathing requires:

A trauma patient with hypotension secondary to internal hemorrhage should receive IV fluid boluses in order to:

Which of the following types of medication would MOST likely reduce a patient's ability to compensate when in shock?

. Confusion, a sustained heart rate greater than 120 beats/min, and a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/min are MOST consistent with class ___ hemorrhage?

A healthy adult can tolerate blood loss of up to ____ mL over a period of 15 to 20 minutes without any negative effects.

The physiologic process of hemostasis is achieved through:

. In contrast to a patient with compensated shock, a patient with decompensated shock would be expected to present with:

A fall in blood pressure and the resultant changes in plasma osmolality cause the release of:

. Circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' current needs is called:

Which of the following types of shock is caused by poor blood vessel function?

If you discover minor external bleeding during your primary assessment of a patient, you should:

The paramedic's MAIN goal in treating a patient with shock is to:

Decompensated shock in the adult is characterized by:

You are treating a 20-year-old man with a large laceration involving the brachial artery. The patient is confused, is pale, and has weak peripheral pulses. Your initial attempts to control the bleeding have failed. You should:

. A motorcycle rider struck a parked car and was catapulted over the handlebars of his bike. Your assessment reveals that he is tachypneic, diaphoretic, and tachycardic. There is no gross external bleeding present. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's clinical presentation?

You have successfully controlled a large arterial hemorrhage from a 42-year-old man's leg with direct pressure and a pressure dressing. He is conscious, but restless. His blood pressure is 84/58 mm Hg, pulse is 120 beats/min, and respirations are 24 breaths/min. You should:

The MOST significant immediate threat to a patient with a soft-tissue injury is:

The skin is also referred to as the:

All of the following are functions of the skin, EXCEPT:

The outermost layer of the epidermis:

_________ is a fibrous protein that gives the skin high resistance to breakage under mechanical stress.

When the ambient temperature is high:

Physical injury to the skin:

The skin helps regulate body temperature through:

Which of the following substances is produced in the dermis and keeps the skin supple so that it doesn't crack?

. The subcutaneous tissue is:

A laceration that lies perpendicular to the skin's tension lines:

. Which of the following statements regarding soft-tissue injuries is correct?

. During the process of wound healing, hemostasis:

During the inflammation phase of the healing process:

During the neovascularization phase of the wound healing process:

Which of the following conditions or factors would MOST likely delay or impair healing of a wound?

. A patient taking _______________ would MOST likely experience a delay in the healing of a wound.

A wound is at HIGHEST risk for infection if:

Which of the following patients is at HIGHEST risk for a pressure injury?

Which of the following wounds usually requires substantial irrigation and debridement prior to closure?

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of necrotizing fasciitis?

Systemic signs of infection secondary to a soft-tissue injury include:

Necrosis of tissue caused by an anaerobic, toxin-producing bacterium is called:

An infection characterized by painful muscle contractions is called:

. The swelling that occurs in conjunction with a contusion is caused by:

In contrast to a contusion, a hematoma is:

Whether the contamination from an open wound produces infection depends MOSTLY on:

A patient with nerve compromise following an open injury to the hand:

Compared to the bleeding from an open wound, bleeding from a closed wound:

. Primary treatment in the prehospital setting for an abrasion involves:

Which of the following statements regarding lacerations is correct?

In addition to bleeding and contamination, the principal danger associated with an avulsion is:

A crushing or tearing amputation:

Which of the following statements regarding crush injury is correct?

When muscles are crushed beyond repair, tissue necrosis develops and causes the release of harmful products. This process is called:

When a patient's leg is entrapped under a crushing object for a prolonged period of time, toxic metabolic waste products are released into the systemic circulation:

. Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct?

Signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome include all of the following, EXCEPT:

The bite from a ________ poses the greatest risk for serious infection.

The FIRST aspect to address in any patient with a soft-tissue injury is:

Which of the following medications would MOST likely interfere with hemostasis?

Which of the following interventions encourages drainage from the site of a closed wound and reduces swelling?

After controlling the bleeding from a grossly contaminated open wound to the leg, you should next:

If your patient has an open wound in which there is a risk of air being drawn into the vasculature, you should:

The use of wet dressings in the field is limited because:

Which of the following bandages is associated with the HIGHEST risk of blood flow compromise?

Applying direct pressure to a bleeding wound stops the flow of blood because:

Elevation of an extremity that has a venous laceration to it:

You should splint an open soft-tissue injury to an extremity because:

When caring for an amputated body part:

In which of the following patients should the impaled object be removed?

When applying a dressing and bandage to a scalp wound, you should:

Your MAIN concern when caring for a patient with a soft-tissue injury to the face should be:

When caring for a patient with an open chest wound, you should:

When managing a patient who is entrapped by a crushing object, it is MOST important to:

Renal failure, a key complication of crush syndrome, can be prevented by:

. A 63-year-old diabetic woman presents with an open wound to her forearm that she experienced when she fell a week ago. She tells you that the wound has been draining purulent fluid, but has not been bleeding. The wound itself is red, inflamed, and warm to the touch. You should:

A 30-year-old man presents with jaw and neck stiffness and fever. During your assessment, he tells you that he cut his hand on a piece of metal about a week ago. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient has:

While hiking, a 24-year-old woman was pinned from the waist down under a rock that collapsed on her. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she can't feel her legs. She further tells you that she thinks she has been pinned for about 5 hours. She is breathing adequately and has stable vital signs. In addition to administering supplemental oxygen, you should:

You are dispatched to a residence for a man who cut his hand with a chainsaw. Upon arriving at the scene, your FIRST action should be to:

A 41-year-old man was assaulted during a robbery attempt. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is semiconscious. He has massive soft-tissue trauma to the face, inadequate breathing, and oropharyngeal bleeding. You should:

. A 22-year-old man was struck in the forehead by a softball. He is conscious and alert, but complains of a severe headache. Your assessment reveals a large hematoma to his forehead. His vital signs are stable and his breathing is adequate. You should:

You have dressed and bandaged a laceration to the arm of a 16-year-old woman and are transporting her to the hospital. En route, the patient complains that her fingers are tingling. You touch her hand and note that it is cool. You should:

A young woman attempted to commit suicide by cutting her wrist. Bright red blood is spurting from the injury site. Despite direct pressure and a pressure dressing, the wound continues to bleed heavily. You should:

You are the first unit to arrive at the scene of a small building collapse. As you exit the ambulance, you can see a man pinned under a large metal beam. You should:

The LEAST significant complication associated with damage to the skin following a burn injury is:

The skin sheds excess heat from the body through:

The severity of a thermal burn correlates directly with:

Thermal burns are MOST commonly caused by exposure to:

Which of the following statements regarding scald burns is correct?

Which of the following burn injuries or patterns should make you the MOST suspicious for abuse?

What type of thermal burn is MOST commonly associated with inhalation injury?

Flash burns:

Burn shock is caused by:

. If an acutely burned patient is in shock in the prehospital setting:

Supraglottic damage following a burn is MOST often caused by:

Which of the following is the LEAST common cause of death from fires?

Which of the following statements regarding carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning is correct?

The progression of a chemical burn is MOSTLY dependent on:

The degree of absorption of a corrosive chemical determines:

Dry powder chemicals:

Phosphorus is found in _____________ and burns when exposed to _____________.

Chemicals such as Lewisite and phosgene oxime:

Which of the following chemicals causes a painless burn and can result in significant damage before it is identified?

. The appropriate treatment for MOST chemical burns is:

A person who is exposed to cement:

A burn caused by a sodium metal should be treated by:

The outer zone of an entrance or exit wound caused by a contact electrical burn is:

Relative to the entrance wound caused by an electrical burn, the exit wound:

. Victims standing near an object that is struck by lightning:

Cardiac arrest following an electrical shock:

Damage to the kidneys following an electrical injury:

The two MOST common causes of death from an electrical injury are:

Most lightning-related injuries occur when the victim:

Which of the following locations would provide the BEST protection from a lightning strike?

After an adult victim is struck by lightning and experiences cardiac arrest:

The majority of victims struck by lightning

Compared to beta radiation particles, alpha radiation particles:

________ radiation is very penetrating and easily passes through the body and solid materials.

Many of the physiologic changes caused by acute radiation syndrome:

The onset of ___________ soon after exposure to radiation is a predictor of poor outcomes.

Unlike chemical burns, radiation burns:

When assessing a burn patient, it is MOST important to:

While standing by at the scene of a structural fire, it is MOST important to remember that:

Upon initial contact with a severely burned patient, you must:

If a burn patient presents with a hoarse voice and states, "I'm cold," your MOST immediate concern should be:

Patients suspected of having burns to the upper airway will benefit MOST from:

43. With regard to a thermal burn injury, the zone of coagulation:

A superficial burn is:

Which of the following statements regarding partial-thickness burns is correct?

Unlike partial-thickness burns, full-thickness burns:

According to the rule of nines, an adult man with partial- and full-thickness burns to his head, face, and anterior chest has burns to ____% of his total body surface area.

Which of the following statements regarding the rule of palms is correct?

The purpose of estimating a patient's total body surface area burns in the prehospital setting is to:

The secondary assessment of a severely burned patient is intended to:

Full-thickness circumferential burns to the chest:

A burn patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease:

Assessment of a patient who may have been exposed to radiation begins by:

Immediate care for a burn patient involves:

The MOST acute complication associated with large body surface area burns is:

Nasotracheal intubation of a patient with upper airway burns:

If intubation of a burn patient becomes necessary, you should avoid cutting the ET tube down to make it shorter because:

Which of the following statements regarding prehospital vascular access and fluid therapy in the severely burned patient is correct?

When considering analgesia for a burn patient who is in severe pain, you must remember that:

The application of ice to partial-thickness burns:

A patient with full-thickness burns surrounded by areas of superficial and partial-thickness burns should be treated with all of the following, EXCEPT:

Which of the following statements regarding sodium metal chemical burns is correct?

Specific treatment for a hydrofluoric acid burn is:

Which of the following burn injuries would MOST likely require transport to a burn specialty center?

A partial-thickness burn is considered to be critical if it:

A full-thickness burn is considered to be critical if it:

You are caring for a 41-year-old man who was trapped in his burning house before being rescued by fire fighters. He has full-thickness burns to his head and anterior trunk, and mixed partial- and full-thickness burns to both anterior upper extremities. What percentage of his total body surface area has been burned?

During your primary assessment of a 21-year-old man with a suspected inhalation injury, you note that he is combative and his respirations are profoundly labored and stridorous. The closest appropriate medical facility is approximately 25 miles by ground, and the local air transport service is unavailable. You should:

You and your partner are transferring a severely burned patient from a community hospital to a burn specialty center. The patient, a 110-pound woman, has partial- and full-thickness burns that cover approximately 55% of her body. She has two large-bore IV lines in place, is intubated, and is on a cardiac monitor. According to the Parkland formula, how much normal saline should she receive in 30 minutes?

A 52-year-old man sustained superficial and partial-thickness burns to his left arm approximately 15 minutes ago when he opened the radiator cap on his car. He is conscious, alert, and in severe pain. His BP is 138/76 mm Hg, pulse is 110 beats/min and strong, respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. He denies any other injuries. Initial management for this patient involves:

A 33-year-old man was burned when the hot water heater he was working on exploded. The patient has superficial and partial-thickness burns to his face, neck, and arms. Your primary assessment reveals that he is restless and tachypneic. His BP is 80/54 mm Hg and his heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak. You should:

A 4-year-old boy pulled a pot of boiling water off of the stove and experienced partial-thickness splash burns to his neck, anterior trunk, and both anterior arms. During your assessment, you note that the child is conscious but is not crying. He is tachypneic and tachycardic, and his skin is cool and moist. Other than the burns, there are no other gross injuries. Which of the following statements regarding this scenario is correct?

A 74-year-old man experienced partial- and full-thickness burns to his arms and chest resulting from a fire that started after he fell asleep while smoking his cigar. The patient's son, who arrived at the scene shortly after you, states that his father has congestive heart failure, rheumatoid arthritis, and atrial fibrillation. In addition to administering supplemental oxygen, it is MOST important for you to:

You respond to an industrial plant for a 42-year-old man with a chemical burn. Upon arrival at the scene, you find the patient to be ambulatory. He tells you that he was moving some bags of dry lime when one of the bags broke and spilled lime all over him. After donning the appropriate personal protective equipment, you should:

A 24-year-old woman was struck by lightning. Bystanders moved the patient to an area of safety but did not provide any other care before your arrival. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is pulseless and apneic. You begin CPR and apply the cardiac monitor, which reveals asystole. After requesting a backup paramedic unit, the MOST appropriate treatment for this patient involves:

You are transporting a conscious but confused 29-year-old man after he was electrocuted. The patient is on high-flow oxygen, has an IV line of normal saline in place, is on a cardiac monitor, and has his spine fully immobilized. During transport, it is especially important for you to:

Which of the following bones is part of the cranial vault AND the face?

What two major nerves provide sensory and motor control to the face?

Blood supply to the face is provided primarily through the:

The __________ is a cone-shaped fossa that encloses and protects the eye.

Which of the following statements regarding the nasal septum is correct?

The hyoid bone:

Which of the following cranial nerves innervates the muscles that cause motion of the eyeballs and upper eyelids?

. What portion of the eye may become icteric in patients with hepatitis?

The ________ conducts signals to the brain via the optic nerve and interprets them as vision.

The anterior chamber is the portion of the globe between the _____ and the _____, and is filled with _____ humor.

Which of the following statements regarding vitreous humor is correct?

. A patient with a loss of peripheral vision MOST likely has damage to the:

The large cartilaginous external portion of the ear is called the:

The middle ear consists of the:

_________ forms the principal mass of the tooth and is much denser and stronger than bone.

Motor function to the muscles of the tongue is provided by the ___________ nerve.

In addition to massive bleeding, injury to a carotid or vertebral artery would MOST likely cause:

. Loss of function of the lower arms and hands following trauma to the anterior neck is indicative of damage to the:

. Open soft-tissue facial trauma following a significant mechanism of injury:

When assessing a patient with maxillofacial trauma, it is MOST important to:

Which of the following is the MOST significant complication associated with a fractured nasal bone?

. Because significant force is required to fracture the mandible:

A fracture of all midfacial bones, separating the entire midface from the cranium:

. If a patient is unable to follow your finger above the midline following blunt trauma to the face, you should be MOST suspicious for a(n):

A flattened appearance to the face and loss of sensation over the cheek following blunt facial trauma is MOST indicative of a(n):

If you are unable to orotracheally intubate a patient due to massive maxillofacial trauma and severe oropharyngeal and nasopharyngeal bleeding, you would MOST likely have to perform:

Appropriate management for a patient with severe epistaxis, tachycardia, and diaphoresis following an injury to the face includes:

General care for an eye injury involves:

. Hyphema is defined as:

Signs and symptoms of retinal detachment include:

What part of the eye is MOST commonly injured following a thermal burn?

Which of the following statements regarding anisocoria is correct?

. A patient with a dysconjugate gaze following an ocular injury:

. When treating a patient with an ocular injury, what should you do to avoid an increase in intraocular pressure?

Movement of both of the eyes in unison is called:

36. Alkali or strong acid burns to the eye should be irrigated continuously for at least ____ minutes.

. The ONLY indication for removing contact lenses in the prehospital setting is:

. A ruptures tympanic membrane:

When caring for a patient with a seemingly isolated ear injury, you should:

. The primary risk associated with oral and dental injuries is:

When caring for a patient with fractured or avulsed teeth following an assault, you should?

Proper treatment for an open wound to the neck includes:

If a knife is impaled in the neck:

Significant blunt injuries to the larynx or trachea pose an IMMEDIATE risk of:

When managing the airway of an unresponsive patient with serious anterior neck trauma and shallow breathing, you should:

Bradycardia that occurs shortly after you have dressed and bandaged an open neck wound is MOST likely the result of:

Vascular injury following trauma to the anterior neck would MOST likely present with:

A young man was assaulted and has extensive maxillofacial injuries. Your primary assessment reveals that he is semiconscious, has shallow breathing, and has blood draining from the corner of his mouth. Initial management for this patient involves:

. A conscious but combative patient with severe facial trauma is fully immobilized on a backboard. During your assessment, the patient begins coughing up large amounts of blood. You suction his oropharynx, but his mouth quickly refills with blood. You should:

. Following blunt trauma to the face, a 30-year-old man presents with epistaxis, double vision, and an inability to look upward. You should be MOST suspicious of:

. You are dispatched to a high school where a 16-year-old male was stabbed in the eye with a pencil. The patient is conscious and in severe pain. A classmate removed the pencil prior to your arrival. The MOST appropriate care for this patient's injury includes:

You are caring for a man with a chemical burn to both eyes. The patient, who has contact lenses in place, is in severe pain and tells you that he can't see. Proper care for this patient includes:

A 51-year-old woman sustained a large laceration to her cheek when she was cut by a knife during a robbery attempt. The patient is conscious and alert and has severe oral bleeding. She denies any other trauma. Your FIRST action should be to:

During an explosion, a 42-year-old construction worker sustained a large laceration to the lateral aspect of his neck when he was struck by a piece of flying debris. The patient is conscious, but complains of difficulty hearing. In addition to protecting his spine, you should be MOST concerned with:

You are transporting a conscious middle-aged man with anterior neck trauma. He is on high-flow oxygen, has spinal precautions in place, and has a large-bore IV line of normal saline in place. When you reassess his vital signs, you note that his blood pressure is 90/64 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 120 beats/min, and his respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. You should:

. The galea aponeurotica is:

The ______________ consists of eight bones that encase and protect the brain.

The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the:

At what age do the sutures of the skull solidify and the fontanelles close?

5. The cone-shaped section of bone located at the base of each temporal bone is called the:

The occipital condyles are the:

The crista galli:

Which of the following statements regarding the brain is correct?

. Paralysis of the extremities would MOST likely result from injury to the:

The parietal lobe of the brain:

. Injury to the temporal lobe on the left side would MOST likely cause:

Which of the following statements regarding the hypothalamus is correct?

The cerebellum is located in the ____________ part of the brain and is responsible for _______________.