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Microbiology Mastery Quiz

Test your knowledge on crucial microbiological concepts with our comprehensive quiz designed for enthusiasts and professionals alike. This quiz covers various topics including pathogens, virulence factors, and infectious diseases.

Whether you're a student looking to reinforce your learnings or a teacher seeking resources, this quiz is perfect for you. It features:

  • 40 multiple-choice questions
  • Focused topics on Staphylococcus, Neisseria, and more
  • Scoring on your performance
40 Questions10 MinutesCreated by AnalyzingMicrobe42
31. Lowentein-Jensen medium is used for cultureing:
A. Enterobacteria
B. Tuberculosis
C. Salmonella
D. Staphylococcus
32. Drugs used against tuberculosis (TB) are:
A. Refampicin, Isoniazid
B. Pyrazinamide, Streptomycin
C. Both a and b
D. None of these

33. Resistant to drugs in tuberculosis develops by 

A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Mutation

34. Which one of the following is characteristic of mycobacteria?

A. They contain mycolic acids.
B. They are resistant to inactivation by heat.
C. They grow extracellularly.
D. They are anaerobic.
35. Virulence in mycobacteria is most strongly correlated with
A. Mycotoxin production.
B. Slow growth.
C. Composition of the cell envelope
D. Small size of cells.
36. The coagulase test is used to differentiate
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitides
B. Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Staphylococcus pyogens from Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus pyogens from Enterrrococcus faecalis
37. Not true of Staphylococcus is that
A. It is included in the family Micrococcaceae
B. It is catalase positive
C. It is oxidase negative
D. It is a strict anaerobie
38. Which of the following diseases are not caused by Staphylococcus infection?
A. Endocarditis and pneumonia
B. Folliculitis and impetigo
C. Empyema and Carbuncles
D. Rheumatic fever and scarlet fever
39. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by
A. Staphylococcus albus
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Staphylococcus viridana
D. None of these
40. Which of the following statements regarding the role of protein A in the pathogenesis of infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus is correct?
A. It is responsible for the rash in toxic shock syndrome
B. It is a potent enterotoxin.
C. It is directly responsible for lysis of neutrophils.
D. It is a bacterial surface protein that binds to IgG.
41. All of the following statements regarding Panton-Valentine leukocidin are correct except
A. It is a two-component toxin.
B. It is an important virulence factor.
C. It is identical to one of the staphylococcal enterotoxins.
D. It for4ms pores in the membranes of white blood cells.
42. A 32-year-old woman became ill 4 days after the onset of her menstrual period. She presented in the emergency room with fever (104°F: normal = 98.6°F), elevated white blood cell count (16,000/mm°, normal = 4,000 to 10,000/mm*), and an erythematous, sunburn like rash on her trunk and extremities. She complained of fatigue, vomiting, and diarrhea. She had recently eaten at a fast-food restaurant, but otherwise had prepared all her meals at home. The patient described most likely has
: A. Staphylococcal food poisoning
B. Scalded skin syndrome
C. Infection with a Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
D. Toxic shock syndrome.
43. A 57-year-old man arrives at the emergency room complaining of weakness, fatigue, and antermittent fever that has recurred for several weeks. The patient had a cardiac valvular prosthesis implanted 5 years earlier. Physical examination reveals petechiae (pinpoint, honraised, purplish red spots caused by intradermal hemorrhage) on the chest and stomach. Blood cultures grew catalase-positive, coagulase negative, cocci. The gram- positive organisms failed to ferment mannitol, and their growth was inhibited by nobobiocin. What is the most likely infectious agent?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D. Streptococcus pneumonia
44. An 18-month-old child was brought the pediatrician's office with what appeared to be a sunburn, although the parents denied that the child had been over exposed to the sun. The parents did recall seeing an area of redness and small blisters on the child's arm the night before. Which of the following virulence factors in critical to this disease manifestation?
A. Toxic shock syndrome toxin.
C. Protein A
B. Panton-Valentine Leukocidin
D. Exfoliative toxin
45. Neisseria meningitides is all Except:
A. Gram negative diplococcic
B. Oxidase positive
C. Growing in the presence of 5-10% CO2
D. Catalase negative
46. Which of the following is not associated with manifestation of gonococci infection?
A. Vulvovaginitis
B. Meningitis
C. Urethritis
D. Cervicitis
47. Infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae is:
A. Homosexuals are frequently affected with it.
B. Sexual contact is the usual way of transmission.
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease occurs in 10% of the infected women.
D. Urethra may be affected badly.
48. Which of the following occurs at the first stage of Meningococcal infection?
A. Nasopharyngeal catarrh
B. Cerebrospinal meningitis
C. Septicemia and premeningitis
D. Hemorrhage
49. Virulence in gonococcus is due to
A. Pili
B. Cell membrane
C. Its cellular location
D. Cyclic enzymes
50. The following characters are true about Neisseria gonorrhoeae except
A. Gram-negative, aerobic bacteria
B. Non-motile diplococcic
C. Oxidase positive organisms
D. Cyclic enzymes
51. Gonorrhoea is
A. Air borne disease
B. Water borne disease
C. Sexually transmitted venereal disease
D. Both a and c
52. Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes
A. Urethritis
B. Conjunctivitis
C. Arthritis
D. All of the above
53. Which of the following neisserial virulence factors is part of the tetravalent vaccine that protects against some but not all serogroups of Neisseria meningitides?
A. Lipooligosaccharide
B. Polysaccharide Capsule
C. Porin
D. Pilin
54. Which of the following bacteria can cause pneumonia in man?
A. Pneumococci
B. Streptococci
C. Staphylococci
D. All of these
55. Conjunctivitis in a new born is caused by
A. Streptpcoccus
B. Pneumococcus
C. Meningococci
D. Mycobacteria
56. Common causes of meningitis in the neonates include:
A. Group A streptococci
B. Group B streptococci
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus bovis
57. Acute rheumatic fever is:
A. A complication of the infection of the throat by Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Characterized by infective arthritis
C. A infection caused by Staphylococcus
D. Prevented by vaccination
58. The following organisms possess capsules:
A. Streptococcus mutans
B. Streptococcus pneumonia
C. Staphylococcus epidemidis
D. Enterococcus
59. The following are classified as viridans streptococci:
A. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Streptococcus pneumonia
D. Streptococcus mutans
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
60. An 18-year-old man fell on his knee while playing basketball. The knee was painful, but the overlying skin was unbroken, The knee was swollen and remained painful the next day, so he was taken to the local emergency department. Clear fluid was aspirated from the knee, and the physician prescribed symptomatic treatment. Two days later, the swelling returned, the pain increased. And erythema developed over the knee. Because the patient also felt systemically ill and had an oral temperature of 38.8°C, he returned to the emergency department. Aspiration of the knee yielded cloudy fluid, and cultures of the fluid and blood were positive for S. aureus, What is the clinical disease of this infection?
A. Food poisoning
B. Scalded skin syndrome
C. Septic arthritis
D. Carbuncles
61. Which of the following cell components produced by Neisseria gonorrheoeae is responsible for attachment to host cells?
A. Lipooligosaccharide
C. Hb binding protein
B. Opa protein
D. Rmp protein
62. Which of the following test is not recommended for the diagnosis of Syphilis?
A. VDRL test
B. Culture
C. FTA -ABS test
D. MHA - TP test
63. Which of the following bacteria causing sexually transmitted disease cannot be grown on. Artificial media? A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Neisseria meningitidis
C. Enterococcus faecalis
D. Treponema pallidum
64. Each of the following statements about the classification of streptococci is correct except:
A. Pneumococci (Streptococcus pneumonia) are alpha-hemolytic and can be serotyped on the basis of their polysaccharide capsule
B. Enterococci are group D streptococci and can be classified by their ability to grow 6.5% sodium chloride.
C. Viridans streptococci are identified by Lancefield grouping, which is based on the C carbohydrate in the cell wall
D. Although pneumococci and the viridans streptococci are alpha-hemolytic, they can be differentiated by the bile solubility test and their susceptibility to optochin.
65. Which of the following microorganisms causes scarlet fever?
A. Streptococcus pyogens
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus pnemoniae
66. The role of Pneumococci's capsules as virulence factor is usually related to their ability to interfere with
A. Antibody binding
B. Antibacterial penetration of bacterial cells
Phagocytosis
D. The release of interferon gamma and other macrophage activating cytokines.
67. A pore forming 'toxin' that especially damage white blood cells are known as:
A. P-V Leukocidin
C. Enterotoxins
B. Exfoliatin
D. Exotoxin
68. Enterococcus faecalis is
A. A frequent cause of pyogenic infections
B. a Gram negative coccus
D. Often resistant to cephalosporin antibiotics
C. Usually sensitive to aminoglycosides
69. The survival of Mycobacteria after ingestion by macrophages is attributed to
A. Bacterial inhibition of complement activation via the alternative pathway.
B. Bacterial inhibition of phagolysosome formation and interference with endosomal acidification.
C. The bacterium's rapid escape from the endosome into the cytoplasm of infected cells.
D. The bacterium's resistance to oxygen active radicals released into the phagolysosome.
70. Which of the following bacteria is not most important causes of acute bacterial meningitis?
A. Neisseria menigitidis
B. Streptococcus pneumonia
C. Haemophilus influenza
D. Streptococcus pyogens
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