Histo all questions everything 1

The endothelial cells building the wall of hepatic sinusoids:
Are continous but show the presence of wide intercellular clefts
Contain fenestrations of similar size with diaphragms
Contain fenestrations of different size without diaphragms
Are accompanied by discontinuous basal lamina
What is present in the wall of all capillary vessels:
Endothelial cells
Pericytes
Basal lamina
All answers correct
The wall of post capillary venues (postcapillaries) is composed of endothelial cells and
Pericytes
Smooth muscle cells
Collagen bundles
All the above
Indicate FALSE statement concerning blood vessels:
The wall layers are more distinct in arteries than in veins
Elastic elements are more numerous in arteries than in veins
Media is the thickest wall layer in veins
Valves are never found in arteries
5. Very thick adventitia containing numerous longitudinal bundles of smooth muscle is characteristic feature of:
Large veins of thorax and abdomen
Superficial veins of legs
Arterioles
Muscular arteries
6. In capillary vessels, endothelial cell interconnected by tight junctions DO NOT have:
Cell nuclei
Fenestrations
Cytoskeleton
Basal lamina
7. Endothelial cells help leukocytes to migrate from blood tissues by:
Contraction and widening of intercellular clefts
Expression of adhesion molecules keeping leukocytes in contact with the vasculization
Formation of long processes ‘catching’ leukocytes in the bloodstream
Transcytosis of leukocytes
The elastic arteries:
Have thick lamina propria
Contain elastic laminae and layers of smooth muscle cells in media
Reduce difference between cystolic and diastolic blood pressure
All answers correct
9. What do you call the simple squamous epithelium that lines the blood vessels:
Epithelial tissue
Mesothelium
Endothelium
Transitional
Pseudostratified
10. Blood vessels of the sinusoid type are characterised by:
A. Presence of pores in endothelial cells
B. Discontinuity of endothelial cells
C. Discontinuity of basal lamina
D. All of the above
11. Thick muscular media and the presence of internal and external elastic laminae is typical for:
A. arteriole
B. Distributing artery
Aorta
Vena saphena
12. Thick adventitia with longitudinally arranged smooth muscle bundles is typical for:
A. Vena cava inferior
B. Any type of small veins
C. Vena saphena magna
D. Arteriovenous anastomoses
13. In a large artery, loose connective tissue is found in:
A. intima
B. media
C. adventitia
D. None of them
14. Vasa vasorum:
A. Are found in muscular but not in elastic arteries
B. Are more numerous in veins than in arteries
C. Never enter tunica media
D. May open into the lumen of nourished vessel
15. Collagen and elastin present in tunica media of blood vessels are produced by all, EXCEPT:
A. fibroblasts
B. Endothelial cells
C. Smooth muscle cells
D. Leukocytes traversing the vessels wall
16. Passage of leukocytes across the wall of a blood vessels requires all the following, EXCEPT:
A. Mutual interaction between leukocyte receptors and their ligands on endothelia
B. Active migration of leukocytes
C. Transiet pore formation in endothelium
D. Disappearance of the basal lamina
17. Continous capillaries are typical for the following organs, EXCEPT:
A. brain
B. Skeletal muscle
C. Intestinal villi
D. Lung alveoli
18. All is true for endothelium, EXCEPT:
A. Weibel-Palade bodies are found only in arterial epithelium
B. It produces nitric oxygen
C. Expresses selsectins and ICAMs
D. May transform into macrophages when stimulated by cytokines
19. Continous capillaries:
A. Have a diameter smaller than sinusoids
B. Are often surrounded by myocytes
C. Reveal small gaps between the adjacent endothelial cells
D. Are typically found in intestinal villi
20. Large veins are characterised by:
A. Clear separation of the intimate, media and adventitia
B. Well developed lamina elastic internal
C. Presence of smooth muscle cells in adventitia
D. All the above
21. Prominent internal elastic lamina is typical for:
A. arteriole
B. Muscular artery
C. Elastic artery
D. All arteries
22. Passage of substances across the wall of continous capillaries involves:
A. Diffucion across the endothelial cell’s membrane
B. Pinocytotic vesicles
C. Intercellular space
D. All the above
23. Indicate FALSE statement regarding the tunica intimate of large blood vessels:
A. In veins it may contain longitudinally arranged smooth muscle cells
B. In arteries it contains circularly arranged smooth muscle cells
C. Is thiner in muscular arteries than in elastic ones
D. The sub endothelial layer in arteries may accumulate lipids
24. Which function IS NOT performed by endothelial cells:
A. Regulation of blood vessel diameter by contraction
B. Prevention of blood clotting
C. Production of growth factors
D. Control of migration of blood cells
25. Weibel-Palade bodies contain:
A. proteoglycans
B. endothelins
C. von Willebrand factor of coagulation
D. All the above substances
26. Elastic fibers and laminae in the arterial wall are produced by:
A. Endothelial cells
B. fibroblasts
C. periocytes
D. Smooth muscle cells
27. Fenestrated capillaries occur in:
A. brain
B. Small intestine
C. liver
D. Skeletal muscles
28. Match the types of capillaries with the sites of their occurrence: A - continuous, B - fenestrated, C - discontinuous; 1 - spleen, 2 - pituitary gland, 3 - muscles:
A. A1, B2, C3
B. A3, B2, C1
C. A3, B1, C2
D. A2, B3, C1
1. T lymphocytes recognizes antigen presented by dendritic cell by:
A. Binding antigen-antibody complex to T-cell receptor
B. Endocytosis of antigen-antibody complex
C. Binding antigen-MHC II complex to T-cell receptor
D. Endocytosis of antigen-MHC II complex
2. Which structural component can be found in all regions of the lymph node (cortex, paracortex and medulla):
A. Reticular connective tissue
B. Diffuse lymphoid tissue
C. Lymphoid nodules
D. All answers correct
3. In the initial phase of humoral immune response:
A. B lymphocyte presents antigen to Th2 lymphocyte
B. Th2 lymphocyte presents antigen to B lymphocyte
C. Th1 lymphocyte releases cytokines activating Tc lymphocyte
D. B lymphocytes are transformed into plasma cells
4. What is common for paracortex of lymph node, periarterial lymphatic sheath in the spleen and thymic lobule:
A. The presence of lymphoid nodules
B. The presence of T lymphocytes
C. The presence of arterioles with very thick endothelium
D. All answers correct
5. Choose the correct description of open circulation in the spleen:
A. Blood flows from central arterioles to white pulp and is drained by sinusoids
B. Blood flows from central arterioles to white pulp and is drained by sinusoids zone
C. Blood flows from pre capillaries to the red pulp and is drained by sinusoids zone
D. Blood flows from pre capillaries to the red pulp and is drained by its sinusoids
6. In the spleen:
A. Lymphoid tissue is distributed around trabeculae
B. Marginal zone is located close to the capsule
C. Sheathed arterioles are surrounded by monocytes/macrophages
D. White pulp contains B lymphocytes and red pulp contains T lymphocytes
7. In the lymph node, lymph flows from medullary sinuses directly to:
A. Subscapular sinuses
B. Medullary sinuses
C. Efferent lymphatic vessels
D. A or b, depending on the location of medullary sinus in the superficial deep region of the node
8. Which process takes place in the red pulp of the spleen:
A. Presentation of antigens T lymphocytes
B. Elimination of old red blood cells
C. Proliferation of B lymphocytes
D. All answers correct
9. It is NOT TRUE that in the thymus:
A. epithelioreticular “teacher” cells present MHC antigens
B. Epithelioreticular barrier cells are interconnected by tight junctions
C. T lymphocytes are involved in cell-mediated immune response
D. Cortex of the lobule shows higher density of lymphocytes than medulla
10. Thymus differs from the other lymphatic organs in:
A. Cellular composition
B. Architecture of the lymphoid tissue
C. Character and origin of the stoma (scaffolding)
D. All answers correct
11. In the lymph node, lymph flows from medullary sinuses directly to:
A. Subscapular sinuses
B. Medullary sinuses
C. Efferent lymphatic vessels
D. A or b, depending on the location of medullary sinus in the superficial or deep region of the node
12. Lymph is carried to lymph nodes by:
A. Lymphatic vessels penetrating the capsule
B. Lymphatic vessels entering the hilus
C. Lymphatic vessels traversing the node in trabecular
D. Venules with high endothelium
13. All is true in relation to the white pulp of the spleen, EXCEPT:
A. It compromises periarterial lymphatic sheath
B. It includes occasional lymphatic nodules
C. It is composed solely of lymphocyte type T
D. It can be observed with naked eye
14. Red pulp of the spleen contains the following elements, EXCEPT:
A. Pulpar veins
B. Splenic cords
C. sinusoids
D. trabeculae
15. Concerning thymus all are true EXCEPT:
A. It has lobular structure
B. Its stroma is of epithelia origin
C. The blood/thymus barrier is present only in the cortex
D. Thymic cortex contains primary lymphoid nodules
16. All is true concerning the vascular supply of the spleen, EXCEPT:
A. Trabecular arteries are larger than the central arteries
B. Central arteries are surrounded by periarterial lymphatic sheath
C. Central arteries divide into penciller arteries
D. Penicillar arteries enter trabeculae
17. In the cortical region of lymph node you will find all, EXCEPT:
A. Primary lymphoid nodules
B. Secondary lymphoid nodules
C. Subcapsular sinuses
D. High endothelial venules
18. Lymphocytes:
A. Are most numerous of all leukocytes
B. Their scanty cytoplasm contains azurophilic granules
C. They have well developed RER and Golgi apparatus
D. They are active in phagocytosis of viruses
19. Lymphatic nodules:
A. Reveal usually multiple germinal centers
B. Are surrounded by a connective tissue capsule
C. contain M cells in their stroma
D. Are the site of B lymphocytes proliferation
20. In the thymus:
A. The cortex contains more lymphocytes than medulla
B. Medullary sinuses contain immature lymphocytes
C. The epithelioreticular cells are present only in the medulla
D. Hassall’s corpuscles accumulate negatively selected clones of cells
21. Indicate FALSE statement regarding the blood vessels of the spleen:
A. Central arteries are surrounded by the white pulp
B. Trabecular veins originate from puplar veins
C. Trabecular arteries open directly to the red pulp
D. Branches of the splenic artery enter trabeculae
22. Indicate FALSE statement regarding the T lymphocytes:
A. cytotoxic T lymphocytes recognize antigen-MHC I complexes
B. T helper lymphocytes secrete perforins
C. suppressor T lymphocytes reduce production of antibodies by plasma cells
D. They represent the main pool of lymphocytes in the peripheral blood
23. Indicate FALSE statement regarding the paracortex of the lymph node:
A. It surrounds the secondary lymph nodules
B. Its stroma is built of the reticular tissue
C. It contains high-endothelial venules
D. The predominant lymphocytes are of the T type
24. Indicate FALSE statement regarding the red pulp of the spleen:
A. Is consists of PALS surrounding the blood vessels
B. Splenic cords are built of reticular cells and fibres
C. Splenic sinuses are lined by longitudinally arranged endothelial cells
D. Macrophages from the stoma have contacts with the passing blood elements
25. Indicate the common feature of neutrophils and lymphocytes:
A. Ability to kill bacteria
B. Presence of azurophilic granules
C. Segmented nucleus
D. Short lifespan (days)
26. Indicate the correct description of antigen processing by professional antigen-presenting cell:
A. Glycosylation of antigen in the Golgi apparatus
B. Binding of immunoglobulin molecule to antigen
C. Partial digestion of antigen and its binding with MHC II molecule
D. Complete digestion of antigen in lysosome or proteasome
27. The Hassall’s corpuscles:
A. Control maturation of Treg lymphocytes
B. Are located in the cortex of thyme lobules
C. Are composed of macrophages
D. All answers correct
28. NK lymphocytes:
A. Contain azurophilic granules in the cytoplasm
B. Have receptors for immunoglobulins
C. Have receptors for MHC antigens
D. All answers correct
30. Indicate the common feature of lymph node cortex, white pulp of the spleen and Peyer’s patches:
A. Presence of lymphoid nodules
B. Predominance of T lymphocytes
C. Presence of central arterioles
D. All answers correct
31. It is NOT TRUE that cell-mediated immune response:
A. non-self antigen is presented to Tc lymphocytes
B. non-self antigen is presented to Th1 lymphocytes
C. Th1 lymphocytes present antigen to Th2 lymphocytes
D. Th1 lymphocytes activate Tc lymphocytes by releasing cytokines
32. In the spleen:
A. Pariarterial lymphatic sheaths contain mostly T lymphocytes
B. Marginal zone is located close to the capsule
C. White pulp is responsible for elimination of old red blood cells
D. Sinusoids are lined by fenestrated epithelium
33. In the spleen, blood from sheathed arterioles flows directly to:
A. Sinusoids of the marginal zone
B. Sinusoids of the red pulp
C. Intercellular spaces of the splenic cords
D. Pulp veins
1. Indicate the common feature of thick and thin skin:
A. Strucutres of epidermis
B. Strucutre of dermis
C. The presence of all skin gland types
D. The presence of hair follicles
2. The primary niche of epidermal stem cells is located:
A. In stratum basale (basal layer) of the epidermis
B. In outer root sheath of the hair follicle
C. In matrix of the fair follicle
D. In dermal papillae
3. Merkel cells of the epidermis:
A. Are located in stratum basale
B. Have granules with neuropeptides
C. Are in contact with nerve terminals
D. All answers correct
4. In the dermis:
A. Meissner’s corpuscles are located in the reticular layer
B. Pacinian corpuscles are located in the papillary layer
C. Dermal papillae contain capillary vessels
D. Reticular layer is built of reticular connective tissue
5. In the eccrine sweat gland:
A. Dark cells transport ions
B. Pale cells secrete glycoproteins
C. The duct is lined with simple cuboidal epithelium
D. The terminal (epidermal) portion of the duct is lined with keratinocyte
6. Indicate the correct definition of apocrine secretion:
A. Regulate exocytosis
B. Release of secretory material following a rupture of the cell membrane
C. Formation and release of cell membrane vesicles containing secretory material
D. Fragmentation of secretory cell into apocrine vesicles containing secretory material
8. The cell envelope of keratinised keratinocyte (corneocyte) is composed of cell membrane and:
A. Layer of cytokeratin filaments surrounding the cell
B. Layer of cytokeratin filaments located under the cell membrane
C. A layer of proteins associated with the outer surface of the cell membrane
D. A layer of proteins associated with the inner surface of the cell membrane
9. The papillary layer of dermis contains blood vessels and:?? rosa
A. Meissner’s corpuscle
B. Excretory ducts of sebaceous glands
C. Secretory portions of eccrine sweat glands
D. All answers correct
10. Indicate the common feature of eccrine and apocrine sweat gland:
A. size
B. shape
C. Cell types in the secretory portions
D. Mechanism of secretion
11. Indicate FALSE statement concerning the epidermis:
A. It is mechanically resistant due to the presence of intermediate filaments, thickened cell membranes and desmosomes
B. It is poorly permeable to water due to the presence of lipids in intercellular spaces
C. It is resistant to ultraviolet rays due to the presence of numerous melanin granules which protect cell nuclei in the superficial cell layers
D. It is not only passive, but also active barrier agains microorganisms due to the presence of antigen-presenting cells
1. Submucosa:
A. Can be either present or absent
B. Is built of smooth muscle cells
C. Is covered by epithelium
D. Is a modified basal laminae
2. Keratinized epithelium covers:
A. Inner surface of the lip
B. Ventral surface of the tongue
C. Hard palate
D. Soft palate
3. The least mineralized tissue of the tooth is:
A. dentine
B. enamel
C. cementum
D. The degree of mineralization in all parts is similar
4. The periodontal ligament is built of:
A. Collagen fibers
B. Cellular cementum
C. Alveolar bone
D. Gingival lamina propria
5. The largest lingual papillae are:
A. Filiform papillae
B. Fungiform papillae
C. Foliate papillae
D. Circumavaliate papillae
6. Cells responsible for taste perception are:
A. Squamous epithelial cells surrounding taste pore
B. columnar (fusiform) epithelial cells
C. Modified fusiform bipolar nerve cells
D. Basal cells
7. Which component is not found in the secretory portions of the salivary glands:
A. Serous mucous cells
B. Smooth muscle cells
C. Myoepithelial cells
D. Basal lamina
8. Cells responsible for release of K+ ions to saliva are located in:
A. Serous acini
B. Mucous tubules
C. Intercalated ducts
D. Striated ducts
9. Serous demilunes are located in:
A. Serous acini
B. Mucous tubules
C. Intercalated ducts
D. Striated ducts
10. Which salivary gland contains only serous acini:
A. Sublingual gland
B. Submandibular gland
C. Parotid gland
D. All salivary glands
11. Lamina propria of mucosa:
A. Can be either present or absent
B. Covers the surface of mucosa
C. Is built of connective tissue
D. Is a modified basal lamina
12. Nonkeratinized epithelium covers:
A. Inner surface of the cheek
B. Filiform papillae of the tongue
C. gums
D. Hard palate
13. The most mineralised tissue of the tooth is:
A. dentine
B. enamel
C. cementum
D. The degree of mineralization in all parts is similar
14. The dentinal canaliculi contain:
A. Blood vessels
B. Nerve bundles
C. Processes of odontoblasts
D. All the above
15. The most numerous lingual papillae are:
A. Filiform papillae
B. Fungiform papillae
C. Foliate papillae
D. Circumavallate papillae
16. In taste buds, taste receptors are located in:
A. Taste pore cells
B. Microvilli of the taste bud cells
C. Synaptic vesicles of taste bud cells
D. Afferent nerve terminals
17. Salivary amylase is produced by:
A. Serous secretory cells
B. Mucous secretory cells
C. Intercalated duct cells
D. Striated duct cells
18. Which segment of the salivary ducts is lined with simple cuboidal epithelium:
A. principal (main) duct
B. Interlobular duct
C. Intercalated duct
D. Striated duct
19. Which salivary gland contains both serous acini and mucous tubules:
A. Sublingual gland
B. Submandibular gland
C. Parotid gland
20. Which tooth tissue shows the lowest level of mineralization:
A. enamel
B. cementum
C. dentine
D. All mineralised tooth tissue show the same level of mineralization
21. In the enamel:?? rosa
A. Enamel prisms (rods) run parallel to the enamel surface
B. Interprismatic surface is not mineralized
C. Rotzius lines reflect periodic changes in enamel mineralization
D. Phospholipids are the main organic components
22. Choose the predominant organic component of the dentin:
A. Collagen type 1
B. Collagen type 3
C. phosphophorins
D. phospholipids
23. Dentinal tubules contain:
A. Capillary vessels and nerve fiebers
B. Capillary vessels and processes of odontoblasts
C. Processes of odontoblasts and nerve fibers
D. Nerve fibers and collagen fibers
24. Cementocytes are most similar to:
A. osteocytes
B. fibrocytes
C. odontoblasts
D. chndrocytes
25. Acellular (primary) cementum: ?? rosa
A. Contains processes of cementocytes but not their cell bodies
B. Covers the entire dentin of the root
C. Is much less mineralised than cellular cementum
D. All answers correct
26. The zone of dental pulp adjacent to dentin contains:
A. odontoblasts
B. Antigen presenting cells
C. Capillary vessels
D. All answers correct
27. Dental pulp DOES NOT contain:
A. Collagen fibers
B. reticular (argyrophilic) fibers
C. Elastic fibers
D. Nerve fibers
28. Periodontal ligament: ?? rosa
A. Is built of both, dense and loose connective tissue
B. Is poorly vascularized
C. contains Pacinian corpuscles
D. All answers correct
29. Dentogingival junction:
A. Is a junction between keratinised epithelium and dentin
B. Contains numerous hemidesmosomes
C. Is a variant of tight junction
D. Occurs only in incisors
30. Which element is absent from the lingual tonsil?:?? rosa
A. Lymphatic nodules
B. Diffuse lymphatic tissue
C. Stratified squamous epithelium
D. Connective tissue capsule
31. Lymphatic nodules:
A. Reveal usually multiple germinal centers
B. Are surrounded by a connective tissue capsule
C. contain M cells in their stroma
D. Are the site of B lymphocytes proliferation
32. Taste buds:?? rosa
A. Are present on the filiform papillae
B. Span the whole thickness of striated squamous epithelium
C. Contain nerve cells
D. Display modified cilia through the apical pore
33. Epithelium of the oral cavity:?*? rosa
A. Is of simple squamous type
B. Is partially keratinized on the dorsal surface of the tongue
C. On the hard palate is of the pseudostratified type
D. On the floor of the mouth contains goblet cells
34. Which statement is false regarding the cells o the salivary glands?
A. Mucus secreting cells hava palate (unstained in H-E) cytoplasm
B. Protein secreting cells have basophilic cytoplasm
C. Nuclei of protein secreting cells are compressed at the cell base
D. The borders between cells are better visible in mucus secretory units
35. Which statement is false regarding the lingual papillae:
A. Filiform papillae have only a mechanical role
B. Fungiform papillae are less keratinised than filiform papillae
C. Papillae circumvallate are surrounded by epithelia grooves
D. Foliate papillae are located on the tip of the tongue
36. Which statement is false regarding the salivary glands:
A. Mucus secreting units predominate in the sublingual gland
B. Serous acini are of spherical shape
C. Intercalated ducts start inside of acini
D. Striated ducts are located within the lobules
37. Which statement is false regarding the tongue:?? rosa
A. von Ebner’s glands are disseminated under the whole dorsal mucosa
B. Lingual tonsil occupies the posterior part o the dorsal mucosa
C. In the dorsal region submucosa is not present
D. The lingual muscles is made exclusively of striated elements
38. Which salivary gland has the longest intercalated duct:
A. Sublingual gland
B. Submandibular gland
C. Parotid gland
D. All salivary glands
41. Which macromolecule is NOT synthesised in secretory units of the salivary gland:?? rosa
A. IgA
B. lysosome
C. mucines
D. EGF
1. The pancreatic acinus:
A. Contains myoepithelial cells
B. Contains palse-staining secretory cells
C. Contain cells belonging to excretory duct
D. All answers correct
2. Interhepatic bile duct:
A. Participate in the final stages of bile acid production
B. Produce alkaline, bicarbonate-rich fluid
C. Neutralize toxins excreted with bile
D. produce IgA
4. It is NOT TRUE that bile canaliculus:
A. Is formed by invagination of hepatocyte cell membrane
B. Is surrounded by reticular fibres
C. Shows presence of microvilli
D. Is made tight by tight junctions
5. The endothelial cells building the wall of hepatic sinusoids:
A. Are continuous but show the presence of wide intercellular clefts
B. Contain fenestrations of similar size without diaphragms
C. Contain fenestrations of different size without diaphragms
D. Are accompanied by discontinuous basal lamina
6. The portal liver lobule has:
A. 2 corners
B. 3 corners
C. 4 corners
D. 6 corners
7. All is true in relation to the elastic liver lobule, EXCEPT:
A. The central vein collects both arterial and venous blood
B. The liver cells form interconnected plates
C. The bile flows from the periphery to the centre
D. Connective tisse stroma is represented chiefly by reticular fibers
8. All is true of biliary canaliculus, EXCEPT:
A. It is surrounded by reticular fibers
B. It is formed by cell membrane invaginations of the adjacent hepatocytes
C. It shows the presence of microvilli
D. It is sealed by tight junctions
9. In the pancreas:
A. Secretory units are acini
B. Striated ducts are long and branched
C. Intercalated ducts are absent
D. Centroacinar cells produce secretin
11. Indicate FALSE statement regarding the hepatocytes:
A. They form tight junctions around bile canaliculi
B. They have microvilli on the vascular pole
C. Their enzymatic equipment reflects location within the classic lobule
D. They pick up iron directly from by-passing erythrocytes
12. Indicate FALSE statement regarding the lobules of the human liver:
A. Central vein lies in the center of the portal lobule
B. The portal lobule represents a secretory unit
C. In the classic lobule blood flows form the periphery to the center
D. Borders of the classic lobules are imaginary
13. Indicate FALSE statement regarding the gallbladder:
A. Mucosa is covered by columnar cells with short microvilli
B. Submucosa layer contains sero-mucus glands
C. Muscularis mucosae is absent
D. Muscularis extrena is arranged somewhat randomly
16. Components of the pancreatic acinus DO NOT include:
A. Serous secretory acinus
B. Duct cells
C. Myepithelial cells
D. Basal lamina
17. Centroacinar cells:
A. Form serous demilunes
B. Occur in salivary galnds and exocrine pancreas
C. Release bicarbonate ions
D. Are myoepithelial cells
18. Which substances ARE NOT produced by hepatocyte:
A. immunoglobulins
B. fibrinogen
C. lipoproteins
D. hormones
19. In the liver, blood from peritubular vesicles flows directly to:
A. Interlobular vesicles
B. Inlet vesicles
C. sinusoids
D. A or c depending on whether the supplying vessel is an artery or a vein
20. The axis of hepatic portal lobule is marked by:
A. Central vein
B. Interlobular vein
C. Perilobular vein
D. Sublobular vein
21. Indicate the common feature of sinusoidal and canalicular domains of hepatocyte:
A. microvilli
B. Cell junctions
C. Abundane of dictyosome
D. Intestine resorption
22. Pancreatic islet cell with the following characteristics: percantage: 5-7%; secretory grnanules without electron dense cores - is called:
A. alpha (A) cell
B. beta (B) cell
C. delta (D) cell
D. PP cell
23. The wall of hepatic sinusoid:
A. Is built of endothelial cells with pores of various size
B. Is devoid of basal lamina
C. Is surrounded by reticular fibres
D. All answers correct
24. Indicate FALSE statement concerning the exocrine pancreas:
A. Exocrine cells are morphologically polarized
B. The cells of excretory ducts partially cover the lumen of the secretory portions
C. The secretory ce;;s produce inactive enzymes which are activated in the secretory ducts
D. The secretory duct cells release bicarbonate ions
25. The smallest bile ducts with continuos epithelial lining is:?? rosa
A. Bile canaliculus
B. Bile ductule
C. cholanglole
D. Interlobular bile duct
1. Large aggregates of lymphoid tissue:
A. Occur in all segments of the alimentary canal
B. In ileum and appendix occupy submucosal and lamina propria
C. In esophagus are located in submucosa
D. All answers correct
2. What differs oesophagus from the other segments of the alimentary canal:
A. Type of epithelium
B. Structure of muscular mucosa
C. Cellular content of muscular externa
D. All answers correct
3. Tubules and vesicles (tubulovesicular system) present in the parietal cell:
A. Are a special variant of smooth ER
B. Increase in number after activation of the cell
C. Contain ion transporters
D. Store hydrochloric acid before its secretion
4. Smooth muscle cells present in the intestinal vili:
A. Connect cores of the cilli with muscular externa
B. Are innervated by the myenteric (Aurebach;s) plexus
C. Induce lateral movements of the villi, supporting the peristalsis
D. Facilitate evacuation of lymph from villi
5. Glands located in submucosa occur in:
A. Esophagus and duodenum
B. Duodenum and ileum
C. Esophagus and stomach
D. Jejunum and ileum
6. Upper, middle and lower segments of the oesophagus differ in:
A. Type of surface epithelium
B. Type of muscles in tunica muscularis
C. Arrangement of muscles in tunica muscular
D. Presence or absence of muscular mucosae
7. The stomach is lined by the following epithelium:
A. Stratified squamous not keratinized
B. Stratified squamous keratinised
C. Pseudostratified with goblet cells
D. Simple columnar
8. Intestinal M cells are numerous at sites with:
A. High villi
B. Circular folds
C. Peyer’s patches
D. Paneth cells
9. All is true in relation to intestinal crypts, EXCEPT:
A. They are located in submucosal layer
B. They are longer in large than in small intestine
C. They participate in the renewal of surface intestinal epithelium
D. Their content of goblet cells varies depending on the intestinal segment
10. Acidification of the gastric juice by parietal cells involves:
A. Transport of H+ across the apical membrane
B. Synthesis of HCl inside of the tubule-vesicular system
C. Packing of HCl droplets into vacuoles
D. All the above
11. Immunoglobulins of the IgA type are produced both in the large and small intestine by: ?? rosa
A. Goblet cells
B. enterocytes
C. Plasma cells
D. Enteroendocrine cells
12. Which of the following elements is absent from the gastric mucosa:
A. Glands in submucosa
B. Glands in the lamina propria
C. Lamina muscularis mucosae
D. Longitudinal layer of the muscular externa
13. Indicate FALSE statement regarding the intestinal epithelium:
A. It regenerates within 5-6 days
B. Its stem cells are located at the tips of the villi
C. The percentage of resorptive cells decreases from duodenum to colon
D. Paneth cells are present only in the small intestines
14. Indicate FALSE statement regarding the mucosa of large intestine:
A. Lacks villi
B. It accommodates intestinal crypts
C. It associates with lamina muscularis mucosae
D. It includes the plexus of Auerbach
15. Indicate FALSE statement regarding the cells of the gastric pits:
A. They represent a simple columnar epithelium
B. They secrete intrinsic factor
C. They secrete insoluble mucous
D. They reveal under EM an accumulation of secretory granules
16. Indicate FALSE statement regarding the esophagus:
A. It is lined by simple columnar epithelium
B. It contains glands in the submucosa
C. It has circular muscular mucosae
D. Its muscular externa contains smooth and striated muscles
17. Muscularis mucosae:
A. Is located between mucosa and submucosa
B. Is located between epithelium and lamina propr.
C. Is built of skeletal muscle fibres
D. Is responsible for peristalsis
18. Which glands are located in submucosa:
A. Cardiac glands
B. Fundic galnds
C. Pyloric glands
D. Duodenal glands
19. Which cells do DOES NOT produce mucus:
A. Cell of esophageal gland
B. Surface lining cell of the stomach
C. M cell
D. Goblet cell
20. Which ultrastructural feature is characteristic of chief cell:
A. Brush border
B. Intracellular canaliculi
C. abundant RER
D. Basally located secretory granules
21. Which structures ARE NOT found in the core of intestinal villus:
A. Solitary lymphoid nodules
B. Solitary lymphatic vessel
C. Bundle of smooth muscle cells
D. Fenestrated capillaries
22. Which cell DOES NOT belong to the intestinal epithelium:
A. Surface absorptive cell
B. Enteroendocrine cell
C. M cell
D. Mucous neck cell
23. Paneth cells produce:
A. pepsinogen
B. Intrinsic factor
C. Lysozyme and defensins
D. mucus
24. The most numerous goblet cells are found in:
A. duodenum
B. jejunum
C. ileum
D. Large intestine
25. Aggregates of lymphoid nodules occur in:
A. esophagus
B. duodenum
C. jejunum
D. ileum
26. The Auerbach’s (myenteric) plexus:
A. Controls peristalsis
B. Is located between submucosa and muscular extern
C. Contains only nerve fibers
D. Does not occur in large intestine
27. Which cells of the alimentary system produce antibacterial substances: 1 - striated duct cells, 2 - serous cells of salivary glands, 3 - pancreatic exocrine cells, 4 - Paneth cells, 5 - goblet cells, 6 - chief cells of funds glands
A. 1, 2, 4
B. 2, 4, 6
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 5
28. In the large intestine:
A. Epithelium contains numerous goblet cells
B. Crypts do not contain stem cells
C. Surface absorptive cells do not have brush border
D. The circular layer of muscular externa is reduced to three muscles
29. Muscularis externa of stomach and intestines contain smooth muscle cells and:
A. Nerve cells
B. Nerve fibers
C. Intestinal cells of Cajal
D. All listed
30. Glands located in two different layers of the wall are found:
A. Esophagus and duodenum
B. Duodenum and large intestine
C. Stomach and ileum
D. All segments of the alimentary canal
31. In the fundic gland:
A. Undifferentiated cells are located near the bottom
B. Parietal cells can be found in all segments
C. Chief cells are located near the isthmus
D. Mucous producing cells are located at the bottom
32. Production of HCl- in the parietal cell results primarily from the activity of:
A. proton-chloride symporter
B. proton-potassium antiporter and chloride-bicarbonate antiporter
C. Proton channel and chloride channel
D. proton-sodium antiporter and chloride-potassium symporter
33. The wall of large intestine shows the presence of:
A. Brush border
B. Goblet cells
C. Single lymphoid nodules
D. All answers correct
34. Differences between oesophagus and all other segments of the alimentary canal include:
A. Character of the epithelium
B. Structure of muscular mucosae
C. Character of muscular externa
D. All answers correct
35. Intestinal epithelium with Paneth cells and numerous M cells is found in:
A. duodenum
B. ileum
C. Large intestine
D. appendix
36. The core of intestinal virus DOES NOT contain:
A. Fenestrated capillaries
B. Smooth muscle cells
C. Lymphatic vessels
D. Ganglionic nerve cells of the autonomic system
37. Intestinal crypts in the large intestine differ from those in the small intestine in:
A. depth
B. Number of goblet cells
C. Cell types present in the crypt
D. All answers correct
38. Which cells occur in all segments of the alimentary canal:
A. Chief cells
B. Goblet cells
C. M cells
D. Enteroendocrine cells
39. Insoluble, strongly alkaline mucous covering the gastric mucosa results from activity of:
A. Surface epithelial cells and parietal cells
B. Surface epithelial cells and mucous neck cells
C. Mucous neck cells and goblet cells
D. Mucous neck cells and parietal cells
40. The gut-associated lymphoid tissue:
A. Is evenly distributed along the alimentary canal
B. Is a diffuse lymphoid tissue populated exclusively by T lymphocytes
C. Is in contact with M cells of the intestinal epithelium
D. Contains lymphoid nodules only in ileum and appendix
41. Which cells of the alimentary system produce digestive enzymes: 1 - serous cells of salivary glands, 2 - Paneth cells, 3 - pancreatic acing cells, 4 - gastric surface lining cells, 5 - goblet cells, 6 - chief cells of the fund glands:
A. 2, 3, 6
B. 1, 3, 6
C. 2, 4, 6
D. 1, 2, 4
42. Nerve cells of myenteric (Auerbach’s) plexus are located:
A. In muscularis mucosae
B. In submucosa close to muscular externa
C. Between two layers pf muscular externa
D. In serosa, close to muscularis externa
43. The intestinal villi:
A. Have the same size in all segments of small intestine
B. Contain continous capillaries
C. Undergo cyclic contraction and relaxation
D. Are covered by all types of intestinal epithelial cells
2. Indicate the correct statement concerning the hypothalami-pituitary axis:
A. Large neurosecretory cells of hypothalamic nuclei (supraotic and paraventricular) produce hormone controlling the secretory activity of adenohypophesal cells
B. Oxytocin and ADH are released to the portal circulation of pituitary gland
C. Releasing and inhibiting hormones are transported to pars intermedia
D. Hormones produced by large neurosecretory cells of hypotkhalamic nuclei and released to capillariess in pars nervosa
4. Thyroid follicular cell shows the presence of numerous endocytotic vesicles and lysosomes can conclude that this cell:
A. Takes up T3 and T4 from the colloid
B. Takes up iodine from capillaries
C. Takes up iodinated thyroglobulin from the colloid
D. Takes up thyroglobulin from capillaries
5. Adrenal steroid hormones used as potent anti-inflammatory drugs are produced in:
A. Zona glomerulosa
B. Zona fasciculate
C. Zona reticularis
D. All listed zones
6. Indicate correct statement concerning pinealocytes:
A. They have processes making contacts with capillary vessles
B. The production of their main hormone is inhibited by light
C. They contain proteins characteristics for photoreceptors
D. All answers correct
7. What is NOT a characteristic feature of the parathyroid gland:
A. The presence of very small endocrine cells
B. The presence of active and inactive endocrine cells
C. The presence of mitochondria-rich cells actively transporting ions
D. The presence of unilocular adipocytes
8. The most important common features of DNES cells are:
A. Shape of cells and localisation of secretory granules
B. Close relation to nerve cells and chemical character of produced hormones
C. Character and localisation of organelles and contact with nerve terminals
D. Appearance of cell nucleus and presence of cytoplasmic processes
9. In all endocrine glands:
A. Ducts are short and open to blood vessles
B. Capillaries have fenestrated walls
C. There are no structural secretory units
D. Endocrine cells have secretory vesicles
10. Axons of large neurosecretory cels located in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei make terminal with capillaries in:
A. Pars distalis
B. infundibulum
C. Pars intermedia
D. Pars nervosa
11. Pituitary chromophobes do not stain because:
A. Their secretory granules do not stain
B. They have no secretory granules
C. They are dying (by apoptosis)
D. They are filled with lipid droplets
12. Which pituitary cells produce hormones controlling other endocrine glands:?? rosa
A. chromophobes
B. acidophils
C. basophils
D. all
13. Which component is not found in pars nervosa:
A. Endocrine cells
B. axons
C. Neuroglial cells
D. capillaries
14. Which cell has well developed smooth ER, mitochondria with tubularr crust and lipid droplets:
A. Pituitary acidophil
B. Thyroid follicular cell
C. Cell of adrenal cortex
D. Cell od adrenal medulla
15. Which cells release their hormones by exocytosis:
A. Thyroid follicular cells
B. Cells of adrenal cortex
C. Cells of adrenal medulla
D. all
16. Which stage of thyroid hormone production takes place in the colloid:
A. Synthesis of thyroglobulin
B. Iodination of thyroglobulin
C. Liberation of T3 and T4 from thyroglobulin
D. all
17. The C cells:
A. Are located inside thyroid follicle
B. Are components of the adrenal medulla
C. Have well developed smooth ER
D. Produce calcitonin
18. The adrenocortical cells from zona fasciculata:
A. mineralocorticosteroids
B. glucocorticosteroids
C. androgens
D. Adrenaline and noradrenaline
19. Small islets of adipose tissue are characteristic for:
A. Pancreatic islets
B. Parathyroid glands
C. Pineal gland
D. All the above
20. The most numerous pancreatic islets are:
A. A cells
B. B cells
C. D cells
D. PP cells
21. Pancreatic islet cells containing large secretory granules with round dense cores produce:
A. insulin
B. glucagon
C. Pancreatic polypeptide
D. somatostatin
23. Hormone-releasing cells of the parathyroid gland are:
A. Dark chief cells
B. Pale chief cells
C. Oxyphil cells
D. all
24. DNES cells CANNOT be found on:
A. Endocrine glands
B. Secretory units of compound exocrine glands
C. Epithelia lining the respiratory and digestive tracts
D. Central nervous system
25. A common feature of all DNES cells is:
A. Production of two different hormone types
B. Well developed smooth ER
C. Presence of lipid droplets
D. Presence of microvilli pm the apical surface
26. Which cell does NOT belong to DNES:
A. Hypothalamic neurosecretory cell
B. D cell of the pancreaticc islet
C. Endocrine cell of the adrenal cortex
D. C cell of the thyroid gland
27. What is NOT a common feature of all endocrine glands:
A. The presence of fenestrated capillaries
B. The presences of cell with lipid droplets
C. The presence of at least two different cell types
D. The absence of excretory ducts
28. A characteristic feature of DNES cells located in the epithelial lineage is:
A. Secretory granules aggregated in the basal part of the cell
B. Brush border
C. Lipid droplets in the cytoplasm
D. Infoldings of the basal cell membrane with ventricle mitochondria
2. Indicate FALSE statement concerning the wall of pulmonary alveolus:
A. It contains small pores allowing air passage to the adjacent alveolus
B. Tight junctions between pneumocytes make it impermeable to tissue fluid
C. It contains a ;ayer of smooth muscle cells
D. It contains continuous capillaries
3. Indicate the correct statement concerning pulmonary surfactant:
A. It is composed of superficial layer of proteins and deeper layer of phospholipids
B. The phospholipids are responsible for decreasing alveolar surface tension
C. Proteins are produced by pneumocytes type 1 and phospholipids by pneumocytes type 2
D. All answers correct
4. As compared with epithelium of bronchi, epithelium lining terminal bronchioles:
A. Belongs to different morphological type
B. Has different cellular composition
C. Secretes different substances
D. All answers correct
6. Where do you find smooth muscle in respiratory system:
A. All airways
B. Respiratory region
C. Larynx and trachea
D. Intrapulmonary bronchi and bronchioles
7. Indicate the correct definition of neuroepithelial bodies present in the airways:
A. Clusters of nerve cells in lamina propria
B. Vesicles released by epithelial cells close to nerve terminals
C. Clusters of nerve terminals in the epithelium
D. Clusters of DNES cell in epithelium
8. The following elements are absent from terminal bronchioles EXCEPT:
A. cilia
B. Pseudostratified epithelium
C. cartilage
D. glands
9. The following structure regularly accompany branches of the bronchial/bronchiolar tree, EXCEPT:
A. Connective tissue
B. Bronchiolar arteries
C. Branches of pulmonary arteries
D. Branches of pulmonary veins
10. The gas exchange barrier of lungs alveoli consists of all EXCEPT:
A. Pneumocytes type I
B. Pneumocytes type II
C. Basal lamina
D. Capillary endothelium
11. Interalveolar septa in the lung contain the following elements, EXCEPT:
A. macrophages
B. Pneumocytes type II
C. fibroblasts
D. Elastic fibers
12. Differences between respiratory and olfactory mucosa of the nasal cavity DO NOT include:
A. Type of epithelium
B. Types of cell present in the epithelium
C. presence/absence of mucous glands
D. Abundance of nerve cells
13. In the olfactory cells, olfactory receptors are located in:
A. Cell membrane of microvilli
B. Cell membrane of cilia
C. Cytoplasm of microvilli
D. Axoneme of cilia
14. Which is true about type 2 pneumocyte:
A. It is a part of the blood/brain barrier
B. Its found in terminal bronchioles
C. It contains lamelar bodies
D. It has an outer aqueous hypophysis
16. Which is not true about the olfactory cell:
A. Its unipolar nerve cell
B. It has an apically located vesicle
C. Contains cilia on epithelial surface
D. The cilia has a (9x2) arrangement
17. Which of the following does not contain airway epithelium:
A. nasopharynx
B. trachea
C. bronchioles
D. Intrapulmonary bronchi
18. Olfactory receptors are localised in the membrane of:
A. Perikaryons of the olfactory cells
B. Axons of the olfactory cells
C. Modified cilia of the olfactory cells
D. Apical surfaces of all cells comprising the olfactory epithelium
19. Alveolar macrophages: ?? rosa
A. Are located on the luminal surface of pneumocytes and are covered by surfactant layer
B. Never enter the bronchial tree
C. Are smaller than other tissue macrophages
D. Are precursor cells for pneumocytes type II
20. In the larynx:?? rosa
A. Most of the lumen is lined with the stratified squamous epithelium
B. Vocal folds are built of mucosa containing skeletal muscle
C. Pseudostratified epithelium covers the luminal surface of the vocal folds
D. Glands are not present
21. Which of the following is missing in the terminal bronchioles:
A. cilia
B. Clara cells
C. glands
D. musculo-elastic layer
22. O2 on its way from the lung alveoli to erythrocytes goes across:?? rosa
A. Mucus layer
B. Pneumocytes type I
C. Pores of capillaries
D. All the above
23. Indicate FALSE statement regarding the olfactory cells:
A. They differentiate form the basal cells
B. Their immotile cilia contain taste (smell) receptors
C. Their basal processes make synaptic contacts with supporting cells
D. Their nuclei are located in the middle zone of pseudo stratified epithelium
24. Indicate FALSE statement regarding the respiratory portion of the lung:?? rosa
A. Gas exchange begins in the bronchioli
B. Capillaries surrounding alveoli are of the continuous type
C. Surfactant lowers the surface tension within alveoli
D. Air can penetrate from one alveolus to another
25. The tympanic cavity DOES NOT contain:
A. Ciliated cells
B. joints
C. Skeletal muscles
D. glands
26. Indicate the correct definition of neuroepithelial bodies present in the airways:
A. Clusters of nerve cells in lamina propria
B. Vesicles released y epithelial cells close to nerve terminals
C. Clusters of nerve terminals in the epithelium
D. Clusters of DNES cells in the epithelium
27. In sensory cells of the inner ear, bending of stereo cilia causes:
A. Opening of sodium channels
B. Closing of sodium channels
C. Opening of potassium channels
D. Cloasing of potassium channels
28. Indicate the common feature of bronchus and bronchiole:
A. The presence of Clara cells in the epithelium
B. The presence of cartilage in the wall
C. The presence of small glands in submucosa
D. The presence of smooth muscle cells
30. The respiratory bronchiole:
A. Is lined with simple cuboidal epithelium
B. Does not contain goblet cells
C. Contains some pulmonary alveoli in the wall
D. All answers correct
31. As compared to the respiratory mucosa of the nasal cavity, the olfactory mucosa:
A. Is lined with lower epithelium
B. Contains more mucous glands
C. Contains more nerve fibres
D. All answers correct
32. Indicate the correct statement concerning surfactant:
A. Proteins from its outer and phospholipids its inner layer
B. Proteins are produced by pneumocytes type 1 and phospholipids by pneumocytes type 2
C. Proteins participate in defense mechanisms
D. Phospholipids decrease surface tension of bronchioles
1. The vascular pole of the renal corpuscle consists of:
A. Two arterioles
B. Two venues
C. Arteriole and venue
D. Two fenestrated capillaries
2. The proximal tubules of nephron:
A. Has straight part reaching the inner medulla of the kidney
B. Is built of cells rich in lysosomes
C. Is impremeable of water
D. Is built of ciliated cells
3. Proximal tubules, distal tubules and collecting tubules are located in:
A. Renal cortical labyrinth and medullary rays
B. Medullary rays and outer stripe of outer medulla
C. Outer and inner medulla
D. All areas of the kidney
4. Can the basement membrane of renal filtration barrier be blocked by proteins passing to primary urine?
A. no, because proteins do not pass the endothelium
B. no, because basement membrane is permeable to proteins
C. yes, but such basement membrane is removed and replaced by newly formed one
D. yes, this leads to necrosis of the renal corpuscle
5. The proximal tubule of nephron:
A. Has straight processes making contacts with capillary vessels
B. Is built pf cells rich in lysosomes
C. Is impermeable of water
D. Is built of ciliated cells
6. In the kidney:
A. Cells of the distal tubule are interconnected by the tight junctions
B. Medullary rays contain all segments of Henle’s loop
C. Transitions of proximal tubules into thin limbs mark the border between cortex and medulla
D. The interstitial tissue is the cortex is more abundant than in medulla
7. In the collecting tubule:
A. Height of cells increases towards the papilla
B. The number of aquaporins in the cell membrane is controlled by ADH
C. Urine is finally concentrated
D. All is true
8. The juxtaglomerular cells:
A. Produce renin
B. Monitor blood flow
C. Monitore urine flow and sodium concentration
D. All is true
9. The ureter is lined with:
A. Simple cuboidal epithelium
B. Simple columnar epithelium
C. Pseudostratified epithelium
D. Transitional epithelium (urothelium)
10. Adaptation of the urinary bladder to the filling/voiding cycle DOES NOT include:
A. Folding of mucosa
B. Folding of muscularis
C. Decrease in thickness of the epithelium
D. Turnover of apical cell membrane fragments in superficial epithelial cells
11. Which tubule is responsible for resorption of proteins:
A. Proximal tubule
B. Distal tubule
C. Collecting tubule
D. none (protein does not pass the filtration barrier)
12. Cuboidal cells with scare microvilli, basal vertical mitochondria and apical nucleus are found in :
A. Proximal tubule
B. Distal tubule
C. Intermediate tubule (thin limb)
D. Collecting tubule
13. Convoluted parts of proximal tubules are located:
A. In the labyrinth of the cortex
B. In the medullary rays of the cortex
C. In the medulla
D. In all the above areas
14. Which tubule is absent from Henle’s loop:
A. Straight part of proximal tubule
B. Straight part of distal tubule
C. Intermediate tubule (thin limb)
D. Collecting tubule
15. Renal glomerulus is built of:
A. Continuous capillaries
B. Fenestrated capillaries
C. venules
D. pedocytes
16. Which layer of the filtration barrier slows charged molecules:
A. endothelium
B. Basement membrane
C. Slits between podocyte processes
D. Podocyte cytoplasm
17. Indicate the correct statement concerning the juxtaglomerular apparatus:
A. It is located on the urinary pole of the renal corpuscle
B. Macula densa cells belong to proximal tubule
C. Extraglomerular mesangial cells secrete rennin
D. Juxtagromerular cells contain contractile apparatus
18. In the empty (contracted) urinary bladder:
A. Mucosa forms folds
B. Epithelium has 3 layers of cells
C. Epithelial cells of the superficial layer are flat
D. All answers correct
19. Nephrin is a kidney-associated protein located in:
A. Cell membrane of thin limb cells
B. Mitochondria of proximal tubule
C. Diaphragms of the filtration sits between podocyte processes
D. Transinent membrane of the renal filtration barrier
20. The inner medulla of the kidney contains collecting tubules and:
A. Proximal tubules, distal tubules and thin limbs
B. Proximal tubules and thin limbs
C. Distal tubules and thin limbs
D. Thin limbs
21. In the juxtaglomerular apparatus:
A. Juxtagromelural cells produce renin
B. Macula densa cells monitor ion level in the urine
C. These cells are located at the site of contact between vascular pole of the renal corpuscle and distal tubule
D. All answers correct
22. Which mechanism IS NOT involved in the adaptation of the urinary bladder to the filling/voiding cycle:
A. Unfolding of mucosa
B. Proliferation of smooth muscle cells
C. Decrease in the number of cell layer in the urothelium
D. Unfolding of the apical cell membrane in dome-shaped cells
23. Proteins are absent from the urine of a healthy individual, because:
A. Proteins do not pass across fenestrated endothelium
B. Proteins do not pass across filtration silts
C. Some proteins pass across the filtration barrier but are later taken up by glomerular mesengial cells
D. Some proteins pass across the filtration barrier but are later resorbed by proximal tubule cells
1. In the course of spermatogenesis:
A. spermatogonia A are transformed into spermatocytes
B. All generations of cells undergo meiotic divisions
C. The dividing cells remain interconnected by cytoplasmic bridges
D. Spermatids are the largest cells
2. Indicate a common feature of the oviduct and vagina:
A. The same type of epithelium
B. extensive, branched folds of mucosa
C. Absence of glands
D. Three layers of muscularis
3. In the spermatozoon, the fibrous sheath is produced by:?? rosa
A. Cell membrane
B. Nuclear envelope
C. Golgi apparatus
D. smooth ER
4. During spermatogenesis, the acrosome is produced by:
A. Cell membrane
B. Nuclear envelope
C. Golgi apparatus
D. smooth ER
5. Indicate the main difference between primary unilaminar follicle and primordial follicle:
A. Stage of oocyte meiosis
B. Presence of prominent theca follicle
C. Height of follicular cells
D. Number of follicular cell layers
6. During atresia of the ovarian follicle, the follicular/granulosa cells:
A. Die by apoptosis
B. Remain in the ovarian stroma, forming the interstitial endocrine gland
C. Are transformed into granulose-lutein cells of corpus luteum
D. Are transformed into fibroblasts and produce collagen fibres
7. In the spermatozoon, the fibrous sheath is present in:
A. The neck
B. The middle piece
C. The principal piece
D. Along the whole length of tail
8. Mediastum testis contain:?? rosa
A. Seminefrous tubules
B. Straight tubules (tubuli rech)
C. Reto testis
D. All answers correct
9. The most numerous glands in prostate are:
A. main (principal) glands
B. Submucossal glands
C. Mucosal glands
D. Bulborethral glands
10. Indicate correct statement concerning corpus luteum:
A. Two cell types represent two successive development stages of the same cell
B. Both cell types produce progesterone
C. After luteolysis, cells of corpus luteum form the intestinl gland
D. Mature corpus luteum does not contain blood vessels
11. The basal layer (basalis) of the endometrium:
A. Contains bottom parts of endometrial glands
B. Is built of fibrous connective tissue
C. Does not contain stream cells
D. Undergoes necrosis during menstruation
12. Steroid-producing cells of theca follicle originates from:
A. theca-lutein cells
B. Stromal fibroblasts
C. Follicular cells
D. All answers correct
13. Sertoli cells help maintaining high testosterone level in seminiferous tubules by:
A. Producing testosterone and forming blood-testis barrier
B. Producing testosterone-binding protein and forming blood-testis barrier
C. Producing testosterone and testosterone-binding protein
D. All answers correct
14. It is NOT true that the vaginal epithelium:
A. Is stratified squamous
B. Contains large amounts of glycogen
C. Shows typical keratinisation
D. Slightly changes during the menstrual cycle
15. Branched tubular glands producing mucus are present in:
A. vagina
B. Uterine cervix
C. endometrium
D. oviduct
16. Which component is NOT found in secondary ovarian follicle:
A. Secodary oocyte
B. Granulosa cells
C. Zona pellucida
D. Theca foliculi
17. Zona pellucida:
A. Is composed of proteoglycans
B. Contains interconnected processes of oocyte and follicular cells
C. Is produced in the Graafian follicle
D. Is a special form of basal lamina
18. Theca interna is built of:
A. Epithelial cells
B. Folicular cells
C. Modified fibroblasts and blood vessels
D. Collagen fibers
19. Endocrine interstitial cells of the ovary are remnants of:
A. Ovulated follicle
B. Follicular atresia
C. luteolysis
D. All these processes
20. Uterine cervix is lined with:
A. Simple cuboidal epithelium
B. Simple columnar epithelium
C. Stratified squamous epithelium
D. Simple columnar and stratified squamous epithelium
21. Lis in correct sequence events leading to menstruation: 1 - necrosis of the functionalis, 2 - dilation of helical arteries, 3 - discharge of the functionalism, 4 - contraction of helical arteries
A. 2, 1, 4, 3
B. 1, 4, 2, 3
C. 4, 1, 2, 3
D. 4, 1, 3, 2
22. Tunica albuginea:
A. Is built of adipose tissue
B. Surrounds testis
C. Surrounds seminiferous tubule
D. contains Leydig cells
23. Which cells enter the 1st meiotic division:
A. spermatids
B. Secondary spermatocytes
C. Primary spermatocytes
D. spermatogonia B
24. Cytoplasmic bridges occur between:
A. spermatogonia
B. spermatocytes
C. spermatids
D. All the above
25. During spermatogenesis, acrosome is produced by:
A. nucleus
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Golgi apparatus
D. endosome
26. Excess cytoplasm of the maturing spermatozoon (residual body) is phagocytes by:
A. Adjacent spermatids
B. Sertoli cells
C. Intestitial macrophages
D. Leydig cells
27. The middle piece of spermatozoon dies not contain:
A. axoneme
B. Fibrous sheath
C. Mitochondrial sheath
D. Outer dense fibers
28. Rate tests is lined with:
A. Pseudostratified epithelium
B. Simple cuboidal epithelium
C. Simple columnar epithelium
D. Stratified cuboidal epithelium
29. Tall siliated and lower resorptive cells are found in the epithelium of:
A. Tubuli recti
B. Rete testis
C. Efferent ductules
D. Ductus epididymis
30. The blood-testis barrier is composed of:
A. Tight junctions between spermatogenic cells
B. Gap junctions between spermatogenic cells
C. Tight junctions between Sertoli cells
D. Gap junctions between Sertoli cells
31. Which gland produces abundant, fructose-rich fluid:
A. Seminal vesicles
B. prostate
C. Bulbourethral glands
D. all
32. In the epididymis, differences in structure of efferent ductules and ductus epididymis include:
A. Cell height
B. Structures present on cell surface
C. Phagocytotic ability of cells
D. presence/absence of surrounding layer of smooth muscle
33. In the corpus luteum:
A. Blood vessels are absent
B. granulosa-lutein cells secrete progesterone
C. theca-lutein cells undergo transformation into granulose-lutein cells
D. All answers correct
34. So-called transitional zone of the uterine cervix, a frequent site of cervix cancer, is transition of:
A. Endometrium into cervical mucosa
B. Smooth muscle of uterine body into fibroelastic connective tisse of the cervix
C. Simple columnar epithelium into stratified squamous epithelium
D. Endometrail glands into cervical glands
35. The cells of vaginal epithelium:
A. Depending on the phase of menstrual cycle change their height in superficial layers
B. Contain large smounts of glycogen
C. Are interconnected by tight junctions
D. Die during menstruation
36. The basal compartment of the seminiferous tubule (separated from the adluminal compartment by blood-testis barrier) contains:
A. Only spermatogonia
B. Spermatogonia and early primary spermatocytes
C. spermatogonia, primary and early secondary spermatocytes
D. spermatogonia, primary and secondary spermatocytes, and early spermatids
37. Sertoli cells:
A. Form cell junctions with spermatogenic cells
B. Produce androgen-binding protein
C. Are the largest cells in the seminiferous epithelium
D. All answers correct
38. The cells of ductus epididymis:
A. Secrete water to the seminal fluid
B. Have motile cilia moving spermatozoa towards ductus deferens
C. Produce glycoproteins inhibiting spermatoza capacitation and motility
D. Take up and degrade testosterone
40. The second meiotic division leads to formation of:
A. spermatogonia B
B. Primary spermatocytes
C. Secondary spermatocytes
D. spermatids
41. Oocyte in primordial follicle:
A. Is coated by zona pellucida
B. Is arrested in prophase of the second meiotic division
C. Is surrounded by columnar follicular cells
D. Contains an aggregates of organelles close to cell nucleus
42. Indicate INCORRECT statement concerning primary multi laminar follicle:
A. Oocyte is surrounded by zone pellucida
B. Follicular cells proliferate
C. The surrounding capillary vessels invade the follicle
D. The surrounding stromal cells transform into steroid-producing cells
43. After atresia of the ovarian follicle, theca internal cells:
A. Die by apoptosis
B. Partially remain in the ovary as hormone-producing interstitial cells
C. Proliferate and undergo transformation into theca-lutein cells
D. Produce collagen fibers of corpus albicans
The Cornea is:
Built of thick collagen fibers
Acellular
Not vascularized
All answers correct
The choriocapillaris layer of the choroid:
Is the main source of oxygen for photoreceptors
Contains fenestrated capillaries
Is separated from the retina by Bruchs membrane
All answers correct
The epithelium lining cornea is:
Simple squamous
Stratified squamous
Pseudostratified
Stratified columnar
Contraction of muscles in ciliary body causes:
Stretching of zonule fibers when you look at a distant object
Loosening of zonule fibers when you look at a distant object
Stretching of zonule fibers when you look at a close object
Loosening of zonule fibers when you look at a close object
Indicate the FALSE statement concerning the eye lens:
Its posterior surface is covered by simple columnar epithelium
Its anterior surface is covered by simple cuboidal epithelium
Lens fibers are transformed epithelial cells
It is surrounded by capsule of epithelial origin
What is responsible for production of aqueous humor of the eye:
Cells lining the trabecular meshwork
Cells of iris epithelium
Nonpigmented cells of ciliary body epithelium
Pigmented cells of ciliary body epithelium
The epithelium lining conjunctiva is:
Stratified columnar
Pseudostratified
Simple squamous
Stratified squamous
In optic retina, the outer nuclear layer contains:
Perikaryons of ganglion cells
Pigment epithelium
Perikaryons of Muller cells
Perikaryons of rod and cone cells
Differences between rods and cones DO NOT include:
Structure of inner segment
Type of photopigment
Structure of outer segment
Shape
The ceruminous gland is a variant of:
Sebaceous gland
Eccrine sweat gland
Unique gland not included in classification
Apocrine sweat gland
The sensory areas of semicircular canals are called:
Hair areas
Organ of Corti
Cristae
Maculae
The auditory ossicles are covered by:
Epidermis
Simple squamous epithelium
Mucosa
pseudostratified epithelium
What is the function of stria vascularis:
Perception of sound
Supply of oxygen and nutrients to the organ of Corti
All answers correct
Production of endolymph
Which cells contain the most numerous microtubules:
Inner phalangeal cells
Outer phalangeal cells
Pillar cells
hair cells
Tectorial membrane:
All answers correct
Is mainly built of extracellular substance
Covers tips of hair cells stereocilia
is produced by fibroblasts
Which cells show rhythmic oscillations during their activity:
Inner phalangeal cells
Outer phalangeal cells
Inner hair cells
Outer hair cells
Stereocilia of hair cells contain:
Voltage gated potassium channel
Mechanically gated calcium channel
Voltage gated calcium channel
Mechanically gated potassium channel
Small calcium carbonate crystals are located in:
All answers correct
Cristae
Maculae
Organ of corti
1. Peritubular (myoid) cells of the seminiferous tubule:
A) Have mesenchymal origin
B) Are contractile
C) Participate in the regulation of spermatogenesis
D) All answers are correct
2. Sertoli cells are connected with each other and with spermatogenic cells by:
A) Tight junctions
B) Adherent junctions
C) Gap junctions
D) All answers correct
3. The epithelium of both, efferent ductules and ductus epididymis:
A) Is composed of tall columnar cells with equal height
B) Has stereocilia
C) Shows high phagocytotic activity
D) Contains basal stem cells
4. What is the common feature of the esophagus, tongue and the lip:
A) The presence of serous glands in submucosa
B) The presence of muscularis mucosae
C) The occurrence of skeletal muscle
D) The presence of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
5. In the intestinal villus:
A) Stem cells are located in the surface lining epithelium
B) All epithelial cells have brush border
C) The core is built of fibrous (dense) connective tissue
D) The core contains smooth muscle cells
6. The auditory (Eustachian) tube is lined with epithelium similar to:
A) Epidermis
B) Airway epithelium
C) Oral epithelium
D) Epithelium of ductus epididymis
7. Which supporting cells in the organ of Corti possess processes connected with the apical regions of hair cells:
A) Pillar cells
B) Outer phalangeal cells
C) Inner phalangeal cells
D) All answers are correct
8. Indicate FALSE statement concerning cristae of the inner ear:
A) They are covered by cupula
B) They contain supporting cells and hair cells
C) Hair cells have single cilia
D) Hair cells react to linear acceleration
9. What prevents the consequences of thymus involution:
A) Blood-testis barrier
B) Lymphoid tissue of the alimentary canal
C) Marginal zone in the spleen
D) Lymphoid tissue of tonsils
10. Which cell significantly differs in equipment and function from the others:
A) Theca interna cell of Graafian follicle
B) Chief cell of parathyroid gland
C) Adrenocortical cell of zona glomerulosa
D) Granulosa-lutein cell of corpus luteum
11. In contrast to colon, the appendix:
A) Shows the presence of rudimentary villi
B) Does not contain goblet cells
C) Contains Paneth cells
D) All answers correct
12. The canalicular (biliary) domain of hepatocyte:
A) Contains cell junctions
B) Communicates with the perisinusoidal space of Disse
C) Contains cilia
D) All answers correct
13. Hepatocytes showing the lowest intensity of metabolism are located:
A) Around portal area
B) Around central vein
C) Between neighboring portal areas
D) Between neighboring central veins
14. Indicate FALSE statement concerning the perisinusoidal space of Disse:
A) It contains stellate (lto) cells
B) It is limited by basal lamina
C) It contains microvilli of hepatocytes
D) It initiates lymph flow pathways in liver
15. Which cells of adenohypophysis secrete hormones influencing activity of other endocrine glands:
A) Acidophils
B) Basophils
C) Acidophils and basophils
D) Acidophils and chromophobes
16. During fetal development, cells of the predominant layer (fetal layer) in adrenal glands produce:
A) Aldosterone
B) Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
C) ACTH
D) Cortisol
17. Steroid producing cells NEVER contain:
A) Extensive smooth ER
B) Mitochondria with tubular cristae
C) Secretory granules with dense cores
D) Lipid droplets
18. Membrane transporters controlling the exchange of substances between blood and tissues are necessary in endothelial cells of:
A) Continuous capillaries with tight junctions
B) Fenestrated capillaries with diaphragms
C) Postcapillary venules
D) All answers correct
19. Fenestrated capillaries DO NOT occur in:
A) Intestinal villi
B) Red pulp of the spleen
C) Pituitary gland
D) Renal corpuscles
20. Pancreatic islet cells with the following characteristics: percentage 20%, secretory granules with round electron dense cores – are calles:
A) Alpha cells
B) Beta cells
C) Delta cells
D) PP cells
21. Which cells DO NOT participate in defense mechanisms of the skin:
A) B lymphocytes
B) T lymphocytes
C) NK lymphocytes
D) Dendritic cells
22. Which mechanoreceptors are present in both epidermis and dermis:
A) Meissner’s corpuscles
B) Pacinian corpuscles
C) Merkel discs
D) Free (peritricial) nerve endings
23. Thick (glabrous) skin contains:
A) Eccrine sweat glands
B) Apocrine sweat glands
C) Sebaceous glands
D) All the listed glands
24. Dermal papillae:
A) Form rows
B) Contain capillary vessels and Meissner’s corpuscles
C) Are built of loose connective tissue
D) All answers correct
25. Bronchiolar club cells (formerly Clara cells):
A) Produce a protein with anti-inflammatory properties
B) Secrete some surfactant proteins
C) Can differentiate into other cell types of airway epithelium
D) All answers correct
26. What can be found in both bronchi and bronchioles:
A) Cartilage plates
B) Submucosa with small glands
C) Smooth muscle layer
D) All answers correct
27. What is NOT found inside the alveolar wall (interalveolar septum) in the lungs:
A) Elastic fibers
B) Continuous capillaries
C) Myofibroblasts
D) Alveolar macrophages
28. Indicate the correct statement concerning pneumocytes:
A) Type 1 pneumocytes are more numerous than type 2 pneumocytes
B) Type 2 pneumocytes are located on the surface of type 1 pneumocytes
C) Type 1 pneumocytes are interconnected by continuous tight junctions
D) Both types of pneumocytes can secrete surfactant
29. The components of renal filtration barrier DO NOT include:
A) Thin diaphragms between podocyte processes
B) Two fused basal laminae
C) Fenestrated endothelial cells
D) Processes of glomerular mesangial cells
30. Thin limb of Henle’s loop:
A) Has the same length in short and long loops
B) In the ascending part is impermeable to water
C) Cooperates with parallelly running proximal tubule in the process of urine condensation
D) Is lined with simple cuboidal epithelium
31. Colloid inside thyroid follicles DOES NOT contain:
A) Thyroid hormones (T3 and T4)
B) Thyroglobulin
C) Thyroperoxidase
D) Iodide anions
32. Which cell IS NOT antigen-presenting cell:
A) Dendritic cell of the lymph node
B) M cell of the intestinal epithelium
C) Epithelioreticular cell of thymus
D) Langerhans cell of the epidermis
33. In the lymph node, lymph flows from paratrabecular sinuses directly to:
A) Subcapsular sinuses
B) Medullary sinuses
C) Efferent lymphatic vessels
D) A or b, depending on the location of paratrabecular sinus in the cortex or medulla
34. Match the regions of lymph node with their characteristic cells: 1 – cortex, 2 – paracortex, 3 – medulla. A: plasma cells, B: B lymphocytes, C: T lymphocytes.
A) 1B, 2C, 3A
B) 1C, 2A, 3B
C) 1A, 2B, 3C
D) 1B, 2A, 3C
35. Oncocytes are degenerating cells which contain extremely numerous mitochondria. Which cells are oncocytes:
A) Pituitary acidophils
B) Adrenocortical cells of zona fasciculate
C) Intestinal cells of pineal gland
D) Oxyphil cells of parathyroid glands
36. Potassium channels (MET) in stereocilia of hair cells are mechanically gated. Indicate the correct mechanism:
A) Channels are pulled by actin filaments of the stereocilia
B) Bending of stereocilium stretches its cell membrane, opening the channels
C) Channels are pulled by protein filaments connecting them with neighboring stereocilium
D) Bending stereocilum exerts pressure on the neighboring stereocilium, opening its channels
37. In a healthy person, lymph nodes are present in:
A) Dermis
B) In the cores of intestinal villi
C) In endometrium
D) All answers correct
38. Transcytosis DOES NOT occur in:
A) Syncytiotrophoblast
B) Endothelial cells of hepatic sinusoids
C) M cells of intestinal epithelium
D) Secretory cells of mammary gland
39. Indicate the common feature of ureter, bronchiole and tympanic cavity:
A) Type of epithelium
B) Mucosal folds
C) Absence of glands
D) All answers correct
40. Renal cells resobing sodium ions under control of aldosterone are located in:
A) Proximal tubule
B) Thin limb of Henle’s loop
C) Connecting and collecting tubule
D) Juxtaglomerular apparatus
41. In salivary glands, excretory duct segment mainly responsible for transport of bicarbonate ions and alkalinization of saliva is:
A) Intercalated duct
B) Striated duct
C) Interlobular duct
D) Main (principal) duct
42. Both serous acini and mucous tubules occur in:
A) Parotid gland
B) Sublingual gland
C) Submandibular gland
D) All major salivary glands
43. Indicate FALSE statement concerning corneal epithelium:
A) It is stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
B) It contains desmosomes and tight junctions
C) Superficial cells have microfolds of the apical cell membrane
D) Cells in deeper layers contain melanin granules
44. In the iris:
A) Anterior surface in covered by stratified squamous epithelium
B) Posterior surface is covered by one layer of pigmented cells
C) Dilator pupillae has myoepithelial character
D) The stroma is avascular
45. The eye lens:
A) Is connected with ciliary body by fibrils built of fibrillin
B) Is covered by capsule built of dense connective tissue
C) On the whole surface under the capsule is covered by simple cuboidal epithelium
D) All answers correct
46. Indicate the correct description of open circulation in the spleen:
A) Blood flows out from open central arteries to white pulp and is drained by sinusoids of the red pulp
B) Blood flows out from open penicillar arterioles to white pulp and is drained by sinusoids of the marinal zone
C) Blood flows out from open sheathed capillaries to red pulp and is drained by sinusoids of the red pulp
D) Blood flows out from open sheathed capillaries to white pulp and is drained by sinusoids of the marginal zone
47. Thymus differs from the other lymphatic organs in:
A) Origin and character of stroma (scaffolding)
B) Absence of lymphoid nodules
C) Absene of immune response to non-self-antigens
D) All answers correct
48. Selection of T lymphocytes unable to participate in immune response due to defective T cell receptor takes place in:
A) Thymic lobules
B) Germinal centers of lymphoid nodules
C) Bone marrow
D) All lymphatic organs
49. Indicate the mechanism of keratinocytes death in the course of keratinization:
A) Apoptosis with formation of apoptotic bodies
B) Apoptosis without formation of apoptotic bodies
C) Autophagy
D) Necrosis
50. Eccrine sweat gland differs from apocrine seat glands in the mechanism of secretion and:
A) Shape
B) Size
C) Presence/absence of myoepithelial cells
D) All answers correct
51. Which renal tubules are located in both medullary rays and outer stripe of outer medulla:
A) Proximal tubules
B) Proximal and distal tubules
C) Proximal, distal and collecting tubules
D) Proximal tubules, thin limbs, distal and collecting tubules
52. The border between outer and inner medulla of the kidney is marked by:
A) Transition of proximal tubule to thin limb
B) Transition of distal tubule to connecting tubule
C) Length of short loops of Henle
D) Length of long loops of Henle
53. It is NOT TRUE that renal cells secreting renin:
A) Are modified smooth muscle cells
B) Are in contact with cells of distal tubule
C) Monitor the concentration of ions in urine
D) Are connected with extraglomerular mesangial cells by gap junctions
54. Which mechanism DOES NOT participate in the adaptation of the urinary bladder to the growing capacity during the filling phase of the filling/voiding cycle:
A) Flattening of the mucosal folds
B) Proliferation of smooth muscle cells
C) Decrease in the number of layers in the epithelium
D) Increase in the apical surface area of dome-shaped cells
55. The wall of cholangiole (bile ductile) is built of:
A) Hepatocytes and squamous epithelial cells
B) Cuboidal epithelial cells and oval cells
C) Columnar epithelial cells
D) All the listed cells
56. It is NOT TRUE that melanocytes:
A) Have neural origin
B) Are located in the stratum spinosum of the epidermis
C) Contain vesicles in which an enzyme converts tyrosine into melanin
D) Are also present in the epithelium of oral cavity
57. Indicate the correct decription of vermillon (red portion of the lip):
A) Mucosa without glands covered by nonkeratinized epithelium
B) Mucosa without glands covered by thin epidermis
C) Skin without hair follicles covered by nonkeratinized epithelium
D) Skin without hair follicles covered by thin epidermis
58. Which region of oral mucosa significantly differs from the others:
A) Lip
B) Cheek
C) Hard palate
D) Lower (ventral) surface of the tongue
59. Indicate FALSE statement concerning circumvallate papilla:
A) They are the largest lingual papillae
B) They are surrounded by a deep furrow lined with simple columnar epithelium
C) Lateral epithelium of the papilla contains taste buds
D) Excretory ducts of von Ebner’s glands open at the bottom of the furrow
60. In the spermatozoon:
A) Acrosome is a cap-shaped fold of the cell membrane
B) Fibrous sheath is formed by transformation of outer dense fibers
C) Nuclear envelope contains numerous nuclear pore complexes
D) Mitochondria are located in the principal piece of the tail
61. What microscopically differs pancreatic acinus from serous acinus of the salivary gland:
A) Double color pattern
B) Absence of myoepithelial cells
C) Presence of centroacinar cells
D) All answers correct
62. In the pancreas, interlobular ducts:
A) Are lined with stratified squamous epithelium
B) Contain endocrine cells and goblet cells in the epithelium
C) Secrete a factor activating pancreatic enzymes
D) All answers correct
63. Hormones produced by large neurosecretory neurons located in supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of hypothalamus are released to blood vessels in:
A) Median eminence
B) Pars distalis
C) Pars intermedia
D) Pars nervosa
64. Proteins which passed across the renal filtration barrier are:
A) Resorbed in proximal tubule
B) Resorbed in distal tubule
C) Taken up by glomerular mesangial cells
D) Excreted in urine.
65. At ALL stages of spermatogenesis, the spermatogenic cells:
A) Are connected by cytoplasmic bridges
B) Undergo meiotic divisions
C) Gradually decrease in size
D) All answers correct
67. Insoluble, alkaline (bicarbonate-rich) mucus covering the gastric mucosa results from the activity of:
A) Surface lining cells and parietal cells
B) Surface lining cells and mucous neck cells
C) Mucous neck cells and goblet cells
D) Goblet cells and parietal cells
68. The membrane of intracellular canaliculi in the parietal cell contains:
A) Proton-chloride symporter
B) Proton-potassium antiporter and chloride channel
C) Protein-chloride antiporter and potassium channel
D) Chloride-bicarbonate antiporter and proton channel
69. What differs jejunum from the other segments of the small intestine:
A) Absence of goblet cells in the epithelium
B) Presence of glands in submucosa
C) Presence of solitary lymphoid nodules in the wall
D) Absence of glands and aggregated lymphoid nodules in submucosa
70. Corpus albicans is built of:
A) Steroid-producing cells
B) Glycogenproteins remaining in the stroma after atresia of Graafian follicle
C) Collagen fibers and lipid deposits
D) Smooth muscle cells and elastic fibers
71. Indicate the common feature of oviduct and body of the uterus:
A) Morphology and cellular composition of the epithelium
B) Extensively folded mucosa
C) Presence of simple tubular glands
D) All answers correct
72. Stem cells responsible for regeneration of the endometrium after menstruation:
A) Are located in the basal regions of glands and in connective tissue of basalis
B) Migrate to endometrium from myometrium
C) Migrate to endometrium from blood
D) Shortly before menstruation migrate from functionalis to basalis
73. Indicate FALSE statement concerning blood vessels:
A) The wall layers are more distinct in arteries than in veins
B) Elastic elements are more numerous in arteries than in veins
C) Adventitia is the thickest wall in arteries
D) Valves are never found in arteries
74. Muscular arteries:
A) Have thicker intima than elastic arteries
B) Contain two elastic laminae
C) Contain smooth muscle cells in all layers of the wall
D) All answers correct
77. Intracellular receptors for thyroid hormones T3 and T4 are located in:
A) Cell nucleus and mitochondria
B) Cell nucleus and cytoplasm
C) Mitochondria and cytoplasm
D) ER and Golgi
78. Indicate FALSE statement concerning the olfactory mucosa:
A) Olfactory cells are ciliated epithelial cells
B) Sustentacular cells are interconnected by cell junctions
C) Apical surface of sustentacular cells show the presence of microvilli
D) Olfactory cells differentiate from basal cells
79. The mucociliary cleaning mechanism of the airways depends on the activity of ciliated cells and:
A) Goblet cells
B) Small mucous glands
C) Small serous glands
D) All answers correct
80. Cells monitoring oxygen and carbon dioxide concentration and sending signals to the central nervous system occur in:
A) Carotid bodies and neuroepithelial bodies
B) Carotid bodies and carotid sinus
C) Neuroepithelial bodies and respiratory bronchioles
D) Aortic bodies and lung alveoli
81. Lymphoid nodules ARE NOT found in:
A) White pulp of the spleen
B) Red pulp of the spleen
C) Palatine tonsil
D) Peyer’s patch
82. During maturation of tertiary placental villus:
A) Syncytiotrophoblast increases in thickness
B) Villous cytotrophoblast cells proliferate
C) Nuclei of syncytiotrophoblast are extruded
D) Capillary vessels disappear
83. It is NOT TRUE that syncytiotrophoblast:
A) Has numerous microvilli on the surface
B) Contains numerous coated vesicles
C) Produces protein and steroid hormones
D) Shows strong expression of classic MHC antigens
84. Indicate FALSE statement concerning seminal vesicles:
A) They produce the major part of seminal fluid
B) They are branched tubular glands
C) They secrete proteolytic enzymes
D) Their secretion is rich in fructose
85. In the primordial follicle, oocyte cytoplasm contains:
A) Evenly distributed organelles
B) Fragments of nuclear envelope
C) Numerous tRNA molecules
D) Cortical granules
86. Indicate FALSE statement concerning Graafian follicle:
A) Cumulus (corona) cells and oocyte exchange chemical signals
B) Granulosa cells convert androgens into estrogens
C) Basal lamina separating the follicle from its theca disappears
D) Cells of theca interna produce inhibitor of proteolytic enzymes
87. Which ovarian follicles most frequently undergo atresia:
A) Primordial follicles
B) Primary multilaminar follicles
C) Secondary follicles
D) Graafian follicles
88. Indicate the correct statement concerning corpus luteum:
A) Two types of cells represent two phases of their differentiation
B) Both types of cells produce progesterone
C) During luteolysis the cells are transformed into hormone producing interstitial cells
D) Granulosa-lutein cells are located at the periphery and theca-lutein cells in the center of corpus luteum
89. Indicate FALSE statement concerning the secretory mechanisms of mammary gland:
A) Secretory vesicles contain milk proteins and lipids
B) Secretory cells use two different mechanisms of secretion
C) IgA is secreted by receptor-mediated transcytosis
D) The secretory process is supported by myoepithelial cells
90. After passing the outer plexiform layer of the retina, photons get to:
A) Ganglion cell layer
B) Outer limiting membrane
C) Outer nuclear layer
D) Inner nuclear layer
91. Which photosensitive retinal cell contains visual pigment melanopsin:
A) Ganglion cells
B) Bipolar cells
C) Rod cells
D) Cone cells
92. Indicate components of blood-retina barrier:
A) Outer and inner limiting membranes
B) Tight junctions between pigment epithelial cells and capillary endothelial cells
C) Outer limiting membrane and tight junctions between capillary endothelial cells
D) Tight junctions between pigment epithelial cells and inner limiting membrane
93. Which cells of the taste bud release ATP as neurotransmitter:
A) Type 1 cells
B) Type 2 cells
C) Type 3 cells
D) All gustatory cells
94. It is NOT TRUE that primary (acellular) cementum:
A) Covers the entire tooth
B) Contain hydroxyapatite crystals
C) Contains processes of cells located outside cementum
D) Contains collagen fibers
95. In a typical microvascular bed, metaarterioles (precapillaries) and postcapillary venules show similar:
A) Sensitivity to proinflammatory mediators
B) Appearance under the light microscope
C) Character of endothelial cells
D) Character of cells surrounding endothelium
96. Indicate blood vessels which are mainly responsible for the peripheral resistance of the vascular system:
A) Capillaries
B) Arterioles
C) Muscular arteries
D) Elastic arteries
97. In the germinal center of the lymphoid nodule, B lymphocytes:
A) Proliferate
B) Undergo selection
C) Transform into plasma cells
D) All answers correct
98. During cell-mediated immune response:
A) B-lymphocyte presents antigen to Th1 lymphocyte
B) Th1 lymphocyte presents antigen to Tc lymphocyte
C) Th1 lymphocyte secretes cytokines activating Tc lymphocyte
D) Tc lymphocyte secretes cytokines activating B lymphocytes
99. In the spleen:
A) Periarterial lymphatic sheaths contain mainly T lymphocytes
B) Marginal zone is located on the border of red and white pulp
C) “Old” erythrocytes are eliminated by macrophages in red pulp
D) All answers correct
100. What have you found useful while studying histology for practical and theoretical exam:
A) Lectures and lecture materials
B) Labs
C) Department website
D) All answers correct 
Tormo
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