Gynecology/USMLE/Exam DES
Essential Gynecology & Obstetrics Quiz
Test your knowledge on critical concepts in gynecology and obstetrics with our comprehensive quiz designed for medical students and healthcare professionals. This quiz features 30 multiple-choice questions that cover a wide range of topics, from fetal development to maternal health.
Highlights of the quiz include:
- Challenging questions based on real-world scenarios.
- Immediate feedback on your answers to enhance your learning experience.
- Designed to help you prepare for exams like the USMLE and other certifications.
1. A 29-year-old Caucasian primigravida patient is 20 weeks pregnant with twins. She found out today on her routine ultrasound for fetal anatomy that she is carrying two boys. In this patient’s case, which of the following statements about twinning is true?
A. The twins must be monozygotic since they are both males.
B. If division of these twins occurred after formation of the embryonic disk, the twins will be conjoined.
C. She has a higher incidence of having monozygotic twins since she is Caucasian.
D. If the ultrasound showed two separate placentas, the twins must be dizygotic.
E. Twinning causes no appreciable increase in maternal morbidity and mortality over singleton pregnancies.
2. A 24-year-old primigravida with twins presents for routine ultrasonography at 20 weeks gestation. Based on the ultrasound findings, the patient is diagnosed with dizygotic twins. Which of the following is true regarding the membranes and placentas of dizygotic twins?
A. They are dichorionic and monoamniotic only if the fetuses are of the same sex.
B. They are dichorionic and monoamniotic regardless of the sex of the fetuses.
C. They are monochorionic and monoamniotic if they are conjoined twins.
D. They are dichorionic and diamniotic regardless of the sex of the twins.
E. They are monochorionic and diamniotic if they are of the same sex.
3. After delivery of a term infant with Apgar scores of 2 at 1 minute and 7 at 5 minutes, you ask that umbilical cord blood be collected for pH. The umbilical arteries carry which of the following?
A. Oxygenated blood to the placenta
B. Oxygenated blood from the placenta
C. Deoxygenated blood to the placenta
D. Deoxygenated blood from the placenta
E. Oxygenated blood from the placenta to mother
4. During the routine examination of the umbilical cord and placenta after a spontaneous vaginal delivery, you notice that the baby had only one umbilical artery. Which of the following is true regarding the finding of a single umbilical artery?
A. It is a very common finding and is insignificant.
B. It is a rare finding in singleton pregnancies and is therefore not significant.
C. It is an indicator of an increased incidence of congenital anomalies of the fetus.
D. It is equally common in newborns of diabetic and nondiabetic mothers.
E. It is present in 5% of all births
5. A 22-year-old G1P0 at 28 weeks gestation by LMP presents to labor and delivery complaining of decreased fetal movement. She has had no prenatal care. On the fetal monitor there are no contractions. The fetal heart rate is 150 beats per minute and reactive. There are no decelerations in the fetal heart tracing. An ultrasound is performed in the radiology department and shows a 28-week fetus with normal-appearing anatomy and size consistent with dates. The placenta is implanted on the posterior uterine wall and its margin is well away from the cervix. A succenturiate lobe of the placenta is seen implanted low on the anterior wall of the uterus. Doppler flow studies indicate a blood vessel is traversing the cervix connecting the two lobes. This patient is most at risk for which of the following?
A. Premature rupture of the membranes
B. Fetal exsanguination after rupture of the membranes
C. Torsion of the umbilical cord caused by velamentous insertion of the umbilical cord
D. Amniotic fluid embolism
E. Placenta accrete
6. A healthy 25-year-old G1P0 at 40 weeks gestational age comes to your office to see you for a routine obstetric (OB) visit. The patient complains to you that on several occasions she has experienced dizziness, light-headedness, and feeling as if she is going to pass out when she lies down on her back to take a nap. What is the most appropriate plan of management for this patient?
A. Do an ECG
B. Monitor her for 24 hours with a Holter monitor to rule out an arrhythmia
C. Do an arterial blood gas analysis
D. Refer her immediately to a neurologist
E. Reassure her that nothing is wrong with her and encourage her not to lie flat on her back
7. A 22-year-old primigravida presents to your office for a routine OB visit at 34 weeks gestational age. She voices concern because she has noticed an increasing number of spidery veins appearing on her face, upper chest, and arms. She is upset with the unsightly appearance of these veins and wants to know what you recommend to get rid of them. Which of the following is the best advice to give this patient?
A. Tell her that this is a condition which requires evaluation by a vascular surgeon
B. Tell her that you are concerned that she may have serious liver disease and order liver function tests
C. Refer her to a dermatologist for further workup and evaluation
D. Tell her that the appearance of these blood vessels is a normal occurrence with pregnancy
E. Recommend that she wear an abdominal support
8. A 32-year-old G2P1001 at 20 weeks gestational age presents to the emergency room complaining of constipation and abdominal pain for the past 24 hours. The patient also admits to bouts of nausea and emesis since eating a very spicy meal at a new Thai restaurant the evening before. She denies a history of any medical problems. During her last pregnancy, the patient underwent an elective cesarean section at term to deliver a fetus in the breech presentation. The emergency room doctor who examines her pages you and reports that the patient has a low-grade fever of 37.7C (100F), with a normal pulse and blood pressure. She is minimally tender to deep palpation with hypoactive bowel sounds. She has no rebound tenderness. The patient has a WBC of 13,000, and electrolytes are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. The history and physical examination are consistent with constipation, which is commonly associated with pregnancy; the patient should be discharged with reassurance and instructions to give herself a soapsuds enema and follow a high-fiber diet with laxative use as needed.
B. The patient should be prepped for the operating room immediately to have an emergent appendectomy.
C. The patient should be reassured that her symptoms are a result of the spicy meal consumed the evening before and should be given Pepto-Bismol to alleviate the symptoms.
D. The patient should be sent to radiology for an upright abdominal x-ray
E. Intravenous antiemetics should be ordered to treat the patient’s hyperemesis gravidarum.
9. A healthy 34-year-old G1P0 patient comes to see you in your office for a routine OB visit at 12 weeks gestational age. She tells you that she has stopped taking her prenatal vitamins with iron supplements because they make her sick and she has trouble remembering to take a pill every day. A review of her prenatal labs reveals that her hematocrit is 39%. Which of the following statements is the best way to counsel this patient?
A. Tell the patient that she does not need to take her iron supplements because her prenatal labs indicate that she is not anemic and therefore she will not absorb the iron supplied in prenatal vitamins
B. Tell the patient that if she consumes a diet rich in iron, she does not need to take any iron supplements
C. Tell the patient that if she fails to take her iron supplements, her fetus will be anemic
D. Tell the patient that she needs to take the iron supplements even though she is not anemic in order to meet the demands of pregnancy
E. Tell the patient that she needs to start retaking her iron supplements when her hemoglobin falls below 11g/dL
10. A pregnant patient of yours goes to the emergency room at 20 weeks gestational age with complaints of hematuria and back pain. The emergency room physician orders an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) as part of a workup for a possible kidney stone. The radiologist indicates the absence of nephrolithiasis but reports the presence of bilateral hydronephrosis and hydroureter, which is greater on the right side than on the left. Which of the following statements is true regarding this IVP finding?
A. The bilateral hydronephrosis is of concern, and renal function tests, including BUN and creatinine, should be run and closely monitored.
B. These findings are consistent with normal pregnancy and are not of concern.
C. The bilateral hydronephrosis is of concern, and a renal sonogram should be ordered emergently.
D. The findings indicate that a urology consult is needed to obtain recommendations for further workup and evaluation.
E. The findings are consistent with ureteral obstruction, and the patient should be referred for stent placement.
11. A 14-year-old G1P0 girl who is 29 weeks’ pregnant with twins presents to the emergency department following a seizure. She was watching television and stood up to go to the bathroom when she “fell down and started shaking.” The patient has no history of seizures and is otherwise healthy. She missed her last obstetrician’s appointment, and her aunt states that her niece has had a lot of headaches and swelling over the past 2 days. On examination the patient is somnolent and difficult to arouse, and has edema of her hands and face. Her blood pressure is 205/120 mm Hg, pulse is 80/ min, and respiratory rate is 16/min. The fetal heart rate is 130/min. Which of the following is the most correct advice for the patient’s aunt?
A. “Your niece has a life-threatening condition called eclampsia, and needs to be put on strict bed rest and monitored until the baby can be delivered at term”
B. “Your niece has a life-threatening condition called eclampsia, and the baby needs to be delivered as soon as possible”
C. “Your niece has a life-threatening condition called eclampsia, but this can be managed with anti-seizure medications until the baby can be delivered at term”
D. “Your niece has a life-threatening condition called preeclampsia, and needs to be put on strict bed rest and monitored until the baby can be delivered at term”
E. “Your niece has a life-threatening condition called preeclampsia, and the baby needs to be delivered as soon as possible”
12. A 19-year-old woman at 32 weeks’ gestation was the driver in a front-end motor vehicle crash. The air bags did not inflate, and the patient sustained blunt trauma to the abdomen. The patient is taken to a nearby emergency department in stable condition, where she notes a small amount of bright red blood on her underwear. Maternal vital signs are significant for a heart rate of 110/min and blood pressure of 110/55 mm Hg. What is most appropriate next step in management?
(A) Administration of Rh0(D) immune globulin
(B) Disseminated intravascular coagulation panel
(C) External fetal heart rate and uterine monitoring
(D) Immediate cesarean delivery
(E) Immediate vaginal delivery
13. A 19-year-old G1P0 woman presents to the emergency department in active labor and delivers a full-term male infant. The infant appears healthy with the exception of jaundice (bilirubin 10 mg/dL [>95th percentile]). The mother does not speak English, but a cousin who does states that he has seen the mother taking pills prescribed by her doctor, although he does not know the reason she was taking medication. Based on the newborn’s jaundice, which drug was the mother most likely taking?
(A) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
(B) Lithium
(C) Phenytoin
(D) Tretinoin
(E) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
14. A 16-year-old girl presents to the emergency department complaining of fever, chills, abdominal pain, and vaginal bleeding. She gives a history of unprotected sexual activity with her 17-year-old boyfriend over the past several months. Her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago. She reports having a dilatation and curettage procedure at an unlicensed abortion clinic recently to try to abort the pregnancy. Her temperature is 38.7°C (101.7°F), heart rate is 120/min, and blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg. Pelvic examination reveals cervical motion tenderness, tissue in the internal os, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Urine is positive for β- human chorionic gonadotropin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Ectopic pregnancy
(B) Pelvic abscess
(C) Septic abortion
(D) Threatened abortion
(E) Vaginal laceration
15. A 30-year-old obese G3P2 woman is in active labor at 41 weeks’ gestation. She has no significant past medical history, and had an uncomplicated pregnancy with appropriate prenatal evaluation. The patient ruptured membranes spontaneously 30 minutes ago. Contractions occur regularly every 2–3 minutes. Early decelerations are noted on the fetal heart rate monitor with each of the past five contractions. Which is the most appropriate next step in management?
(A) Change the maternal position
(B) No further management is required
(C) Place a fetal scalp probe
(D) Prepare for emergent cesarean delivery
(E) Start an amnioinfusion of saline
16. A 25-year-old G2P1 woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents to her obstetrician complaining of restlessness and weakness for the past month. She says her boyfriend recently left her and their 2-year-old son, and she feels overwhelmed with this pregnancy. She denies feeling depressed but does report that she has trouble sleeping. She had an upper respiratory infection last month, “caught from my son,” and states she still has a sore throat. Laboratory tests show: WBC count: 8000/mm³; Hemoglobin: 11.0 g/dL; Hematocrit: 40% Platelet count: 250,000/mm³; Thyroid-stimulating hormone: 0.5μU/mL; Free thyroxine: 4.0 ng/dL. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
(A) Measure postpartum thyroid hormone levels
(B) Perform partial thyroidectomy
(C) Start levothyroxine therapy
(D) Start propylthiouracil therapy
(E) Start radioiodine therapy
17. A 19-year-old G0 woman presents to her family physician complaining of dysmenorrhea for the past year. She reports severe right-sided pain that coincides with days 1–5 of her menstrual cycle. Her menses occur regularly every 28 days, and she requires three to four pads per day for the first 2 days of her bleeding and one to two pads per day for the remainder. She has never had surgery. She is not sexually active and does not smoke. Her last menstrual period was 1 week ago. Her temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F), blood pressure is 121/74 mm Hg, heart rate is 80/min, and respiratory rate is 14/min. Physical examination reveals a thin, healthy-appearing young woman. Pelvic examination reveals a normal sized uterus and no cervical motion tenderness. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Ectopic pregnancy
(B) Endometriosis
(C) Leiomyoma
(D) Pelvic inflammatory disease
(E) Polycystic ovarian syndrome
18. A 36-year-old G1P0 woman pregnant with twins presents to her obstetrician for her routine 32- week appointment. She has gained 5.4kg (12-lb) in the past 2 weeks. When questioned about her weight gain, she states she has had headaches and some blurred vision for the past 2 weeks, which she thinks is secondary to dehydration. To circumvent this, she has been drinking a lot of water, which she claims “is making me swell, even my hands.” She also has had some epigastric pain for the past 2 weeks, which she attributes to “all the water I’ve been drinking.” Her blood pressure is 142/90 mm Hg, pulse is 105/min, and respiratory rate is 18/min. Urinalysis reveals 1+ glycosuria and 4+ proteinuria. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
(A) Administer magnesium sulfate only
(B) Administer oral antihypertensive therapy
(C) Expectant management
(D) Induce labor
(E) Platelet transfusion
19. A 27-year-old woman has used oral contraceptives (OCs) without problems for 5 years. However, she just read an article about complications of OCs in a popular women’s magazine and asks you about the risks and hazards of taking OCs. You correctly tell her which of the following?
(A) The risk of developing ovarian cancer is increased.
(B) The risk of developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is increased.
(C) The risk of developing endometrial cancer is decreased.
(D) The risk of bearing a child with major congenital anomalies is increased if taken while pregnant.
(E) The risk of ectopic pregnancy is increased
20. After an appropriate diagnostic evaluation, a 59-year-old woman with postmenopausal bleeding had a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (TAH-BSO). The pathologic diagnosis is adenocarcinoma of the endometrium. An endometrial adenocarcinoma that is confined to the uterus and extends more than 50% through the myometrium is at which stage?
(A) IC
(B) IIA
(C) IIB
(D) IIIA
(E) IVA
21. A 39-year-old woman at 16 weeks’ gestation complains of headaches, blurred vision, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is now 156/104 mmHg. Her uterine fundus is palpable 22 cm above her symphysis pubis. Fetal heart tones could not be heard with a handheld Doppler. She has 3+proteinuria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) anencephaly
(B) twin gestation
(C) maternal renal disease
(D) hydatidiform mole
(E) gestational diabetes mellitus
22. A 23-year-old woman develops painful vulvar vesicles that contain intranuclear inclusions on cytologic examination. She is 22 weeks’ pregnant. Which of the following statements about genital herpes is correct?
(A) Acyclovir should be prescribed from 36 gestational weeks until after delivery in women with primary herpes anytime during pregnancy.
(B) Herpes cultures from the cervix should be obtained weekly beginning at 36 weeks’ gestation.
(C) An active genital herpetic lesion any time after 20 weeks’ gestation requires a cesarean section.
(D) Intrauterine infection with herpes is common after 20 weeks in women with primary herpes.
(E) Pitocin induction of labor should be started within 4 hours after ruptured amniotic membranes in a woman at term with active genital herpes.
23. A 63-year-old woman has a 3-cm pruritic lesion on her right labia majora that she has noted for approximately 9 months. She has been treated with various topical creams and ointments for vulvar candidiasis without resolution of her symptoms or lesion. When you examine this woman, the lesion is still present. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?
(A) Papanicolaou (Pap) smear of the lesion
(B) colposcopy of the lesion
(C) biopsy of the lesion
(D) wide local excision of the lesion
(E) vulvectomy
24. A 35-year-old G3P3 woman has been experiencing bilateral breast pain for the past year. Breast examination and mammography are normal. Conservative measures have failed. Which of the following medications is most likely to bring relief?
(A) clomiphene
(B) tamoxifen
(C) danazol
(D) hydrochlorothiazide
(E) medroxyprogesterone
25. A 39-year-old G3P3 complains of severe, progressive secondary dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia. Pelvic examination demonstrates a tender, diffusely enlarged uterus with no adnexal tenderness. Results of endometrial biopsy are normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Endometriosis
B. Endometritis
C. Adenomyosis
D. Uterine sarcoma
E. Leiomyoma
6. A 28-year-old G3P0 has a history of severe menstrual cramps, prolonged, heavy periods, chronic pelvic pain, and painful intercourse. All of her pregnancies were spontaneous abortions in the first trimester. A hysterosalpingogram (HSG) she just had as part of the evaluation for recurrent abortion showed a large uterine septum. You have recommended surgical repair of the uterus. Of the patient’s symptoms, which is most likely to be corrected by resection of the uterine septum?
A. Habitual abortion
B. Dysmenorrhea
C. Menometrorrhagia
D. Dyspareunia
E. Chronic pelvic pain
27. In an amenorrheic patient who has had pituitary ablation for a craniopharyngioma, which of the following regimens is most likely to result in an ovulatory cycle?
A. Clomiphene citrate
B. Pulsatile infusion of GnRH
C. Continuous infusion of GnRH
D. Human menopausal or recombinant gonadotropin
E. Human menopausal or recombinant gonadotropin followed by human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
28. In the evaluation of a 26-year-old patient with 4 months of secondary amenorrhea, you order serum prolactin and β-hCG assays. The β-hCG test is positive, and the prolactin level is 100 ng/mL (normal is <25 ng/mL in nonpregnant women in this assay). This patient requires which of the following?
A. Routine obstetric care
B. Computed tomography (CT) scan of her sella turcica to rule out pituitary adenoma
C. Repeat measurements of serum prolactin to ensure that values do not increase more than 300ng/mL
D. Bromocriptine to suppress prolactin
E. Evaluation for possible hypothyroidism
29. A 23-year-old married woman consults you because she and her husband have never consummated their marriage because she has severe pain with attempts at vaginal penetration. Her pelvic examination is normal except for involuntary tightening of her vaginal muscles when you attempt to insert a speculum. Which of the following conditions would best be treated with the use of vaginal dilators?
(A) primary dysmenorrhea
(B) vaginismus
(C) deep-thrust dyspareunia
(D) anorgasmia
(E) vulvar vestibulitis
30. A 24-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of right lower quadrant pain and vaginal spotting. Her last menstrual period was 5 weeks ago. Her temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 112/70 mm Hg, pulse is 74/min, and respirations are 14/min. The abdomen is soft and non-tender. Pelvic examination reveals scant blood in the vagina, a closed cervical os, no pelvic masses, and right pelvic tenderness. Her leukocyte count is 8000/mm3, hematocrit is 38%, and a platelet count is 250,000/mm3. Which of the following is the most appropriate step next in diagnosis?
(A) Serum hCG
(B) Serum TSH
(C) Abdominal x-ray
(D) Abdominal/pelvic CT
(E) Laparoscopy
31. A 35-year-old African American woman presents to a physician complaining of irregular menstrual periods. She had her first menses at age 15 and states that her periods come irregularly every 2 to 6 months. She has been in a monogamous relationship with her husband for 15 years; for 10 years they have been trying unsuccessfully to conceive. She gets yearly Pap smears, which have been normal. Her height is 5 feet 2 inches (157.5 cm), and her weight is 200 pounds (90.9 kg). Her temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 118/78 mm Hg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 14/min. She has acne, as well as excess hair, on her face and between her breasts. Her abdomen is obese. Examination is otherwise within normal limits. This patient is at greatest risk for developing which of the following diseases?
(A) Cervical cancer
(B) Endometrial cancer
(C) Lung cancer
(D) Osteoporosis
(E) Ovarian cancer
32. A 32-year-old Hispanic woman presents to the emergency department complaining of heavy vaginal bleeding. Her temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 18/min. Her abdomen is soft, non-tender and non-distended. Her pelvic examination reveals approximately 200 mL of clotted blood in the vagina, an open cervical os with tissue protruding from it, and a 10-week-sized, non-tender uterus. Leukocyte count is 9000/mm3, hematocrit is 22%, and platelet count is 275,000/mm3. Quantitative hCG is 100,000mIU/L (normal: 5-200,000mIU/L). Pelvic ultrasound shows echogenic material within the uterine cavity consistent with blood or tissue, no adnexal masses, and no free fluid. No viable pregnancy is seen. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
(A) Discharge to home
(B) Culdocentesis
(C) Dilation and evacuation
(D) Laparoscopy
(E) Laparotomy
33. A 25-year-old Caucasian woman, gravida 1, para 0, at 26 weeks' gestational age presents to her physician's office complaining of spotting from the vagina. She has no contractions and reports normal fetal movement. She denies any history of a bleeding disorder. Her temperature is 37.3 C (99.1 F), blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, pulse is 75/min, and respirations are 14/min. Her abdomen is gravid and benign, with a fundal height of 26 cm. A placenta previa is ruled out by ultrasound examination. Pelvic examination reveals some scant blood in the vagina, a closed os, and no uterine tenderness. Leukocyte count is 12,000/mm3, hematocrit is 33%, and platelet count is 140,000/mm3. Her blood type is A, Rh negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
(A) Antibiotics
(B) Blood transfusion
(C) Magnesium sulfate
(D) Platelet transfusion
(E) RhoGAM™
34. A 29-year-old primigravid woman is admitted to the labor and delivery ward with strong contractions every 2 minutes and cervical change from 3 to 4 cm. Over the next 5 hours she progresses to full dilation. After 3 hours of pushing, the physician cuts a mediolateral episiotomy, and the woman delivers a 3770-g (8-lb, 4-oz) boy. Which of the following is the main advantage of a mediolateral episiotomy over a median (midline) episiotomy?
(A) Easier surgical repair of the episiotomy
(B) Improved healing of the episiotomy
(C) Less blood loss
(D) Less likely to cause a fourth-degree extension
(E) Less pain
35. A 22-year-old woman presents with mouth sores, sore throat, vaginal discharge, fever, and myalgia. She has no other medical problems. She takes oral contraceptive pills. She is in a monogamous relationship and states that her partner occasionally uses barrier contraception. Physical examination reveals a temperature of 38.3 C (101 F), cervical and inguinal lymphadenopathy, exudative pharyngitis, and multiple ulcers on the oral mucosa, the labia, and cervix. The vaginal discharge is profuse, and Gram stain indicates many neutrophils. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Chancroid
(B) Condyloma acuminatum
(C) Herpes simplex virus
(D) Lymphogranuloma venereum
(E) Syphilis
36. A 34-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 38 weeks gestation presents to the labor and delivery ward complaining of headache. She has no contractions. Her prenatal course was unremarkable until she noted the onset of swelling in her face, hands, and feet this week. Her obstetric history is significant for two normal spontaneous vaginal deliveries. She has no significant past medical or surgical history. Her temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 160/92 mm Hg, pulse is 78/min, and respirations are 16/min. Examination reveals 3+ patellar reflexes bilaterally. A cervical examination reveals that her cervix is 3 cm dilated and 50% effaced and soft, and that the fetus is at 0 station and vertex. The fetal heart rate has a baseline of 140/min and is reactive. The results from a 24-hour urine collection show 5200 mg of protein (normal <300 mg/24 hours). The patient is given magnesium sulfate intravenously for seizure prophylaxis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
(A) Expectant management
(B) Intramuscular glucocorticoids
(C) IV oxytocin
(D) Subcutaneous terbutaline
(E) Cesarean section
37. A 14-year-old Caucasian female presents to clinic for a routine check -up. She complains that her menstrual cycles are irregular and that her menses last seven to ten days. She underwent menarche one year ago and her last menstrual period was two weeks ago. She eats a balanced diet and works out in a gym on weekends. Her past medical history is insignificant and her BMI is 25 kg/m2. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's complaints?
A. Endometrial stimulation by progesterone
B. Complex atypical hyperplasia of the endometrium
C. Absent ovulation
D. Increased FSH secretion
E. Endometrial atrophy
38. An ovarian mass removed from a 49-year-old female has yellow coloration of its cut surface. The pathologist describes it as a granulosa-theca cell tumor. Based on this pathology report, the tumor is most likely to secrete:
A. Human chorionic gonadotropin
B. Alpha-fetoprotein
C. CA-125
D. Estrogen
E. Cortisol
39. A 32-year-old female with a history of amenorrhea develops white nipple discharge. She eats a balanced diet and exercises regularly. She is not sexually active. Her family history is significant for her mother dying of breast cancer at age 50. The most likely diagnosis in this patient is:
A. Fibrocystic breast disease
B. Fibroadenoma
C. Lntraductal papilloma
D. Lobular breast carcinoma
E. Pituitary adenoma
40. A 38-year-old Caucasian female presents to your office complaining of a small amount of vaginal discharge that appears following sexual intercourse. There is no associated abdominal pain or urinary symptoms. Her menstrual cycles occur with regular 28-day cycles; her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. She has never been pregnant. Menarche occurred at age 10, and she has been sexually active with 10 different partners over the last 20 years. She smokes two packs of cigarettes per day and consumes alcohol regularly. She admits that her diet is poor in vegetables and fruit. Her mother died of breast cancer at age 54, and her father, who is living, has hypertension. Cervical biopsy reveals cervical intraepithelial neoplasia Ill (CIN Ill). Which of the following is the strongest risk factor for this condition?
A. Early menarche
B. Smoking
C. Alcohol consumption
D. Multiple sexual partners
E. Nulliparity
41. A 37-year-old female presents to your clinic complaining of lower abdominal discomfort. On bimanual examination the uterus is enlarged. Biopsy reveals normal appearing endometrial glands within the myometrium. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Leiomyoma
B. Endometrial carcinoma
C. Adenomyosis
D. Endometriosis
E. Ectopic pregnancy
42. A 34-year-old female comes to your office for an infertility evaluation. She has been having irregular menstrual cycles for the past five years, stating that her menstrual periods come on average once every two to three months. Her past medical history is not significant. She is not taking any medications currently. Her blood pressure is 145/96 mmHg and heart rate is 72/min. Her BMI is 33 kg/m2• Physical examination reveals facial acne and excessive hair growth over the upper lip and chin. Which of the following is the most likely pathologic finding in this patient?
A. Polycystic kidneys
B. Enlarged ovaries
C. Pituitary adenoma
D. Atrophic adrenals
E. Atrophic endometrium
43. A 32-year-old female is being evaluated for abnormal uterine bleeding. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Pelvic ultrasound reveals endometrial hyperplasia and a right-sided adnexal mass. In this patient, the adnexal mass is most likely to be a:
A. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
B. Dysgerminoma
C. Teratoma
D. Granulosa cell tumor
E. Fallopian tube cancer
44. A 75-year-old woman presents with a pruritic vulvar lesion. Physical examination reveals an irregular white, rough area involving her vulva. Biopsies from this area reveal a combination of squamous hyperplasia of the epidermis (acanthosis) with hyperkeratosis and mild dermal inflammation. No atrophy or dysplasia of the epidermis is seen. What is the best diagnosis?
A. Balanitis xerotica obliterans
B. Bowen disease
C. Lichen sclerosus
D. Lichen simplex chronicus
E. Paget disease
45. A 65-year-old woman presents with a pruritic red, crusted, sharply demarcated map-like lesion involving a large portion of her labia majora. Histologic sections from this lesion reveal individual anaplastic tumor cells infiltrating the epidermis. Distinctive clear spaces are noted between these anaplastic cells and the surrounding normal epithelial cells. These malignant cells stain positively for mucin and negatively with S100. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Clear cell adenocarcinoma
B. Malignant melanoma b. Malignant melanoma
C. Extramammary Paget disease
D. Sarcoma botryoides
E. Squamous cell carcinoma
46. You have just performed diagnostic laparoscopy on a patient with chronic pelvic pain and dyspareunia. The patient had multiple implants of endometriosis on the uterosacral ligaments and ovaries and several on the rectosigmoid colon. At the time of the procedure, you ablated all of the visible lesions on the peritoneal surfaces with the CO2 laser. But because of the extent of the patient’s disease, you recommend postoperative medical treatment. Which of the following medications is the best option for the treatment of this patient’s endometriosis?
A. Continuous unopposed oral estrogen
B. Dexamethasone
C. Danazol
D. Gonadotropins
E. Parlodel
47. A 28-year-old nulligravid patient complains of bleeding between her periods and increasingly heavy menses. Over the past 9 months, she has had two dilation and curettages (D&Cs), which have failed to resolve her symptoms, and oral contraceptives and antiprostaglandins have not decreased the abnormal bleeding. Which of the following options is most appropriate at this time?
A. Perform a hysterectomy.
B. Perform hysteroscopy.
C. Perform endometrial ablation.
D. Treat with a GnRH agonist.
E. Start the patient on a high-dose progestational agent.
48. You are treating a 31-year-old woman with danazol for endometriosis. You should warn the patient of potential side effects of prolonged treatment with the medication. When used in the treatment of endometriosis, which of the following changes should the patient expect?
A. Occasional pelvic pain, since danazol commonly causes ovarian enlargement
B. Lighter or absent menstruation, since danazol causes endometrial atrophy
C. Heavier or prolonged periods, since danazol causes endometrial hyperplasia
D. More frequent Pap smear screening, since danazol exposure is a risk factor for cervical dysplasia
E. Postcoital bleeding caused by the inflammatory effect of danazol on the endocervical and endometrial glands
49. A patient presents to you for evaluation of infertility. She is 26 years old and has never been pregnant. She and her husband have been trying to get pregnant for 2 years. Her husband had a semen analysis and was told that everything was normal. The patient has a history of endometriosis diagnosed by laparoscopy at age 17. At the time she was having severe pelvic pain and dysmenorrhea. After the surgery, the patient was told she had a few small implants of endometriosis on her ovaries and fallopian tubes and several others in the posterior cul-de-sac. She also had a left ovarian cyst, filmy adnexal adhesions, and several subcentimeter serosal fibroids. You have recommended that she have a hysterosalpingogram as part of her evaluation for infertility. Which of the patient’s following conditions can be diagnosed with a hysterosalpingogram?
A. Endometriosis
B. Hydrosalpinx
C. Subserous fibroids
D. Minimal pelvic adhesions
E. Ovarian cyst
50. A 30-year-old woman with a genetic disorder characterized by a deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase is planning a first pregnancy. Her physician explains the increased risk of mental retardation, as well congenital heart disease, in the infant. Which of the following should also be recommended?
(A) Low phenylalanine diet should be initiated before conception
(B) Dietary supplementation with glycine is recommended
(C) Dietary supplementation with L-carnitine is recommended
(D) There is no need for diet control if phenylalanine levels are mildly elevated
(E) Vitamin B6 should be administered to the neonate on delivery
51. A 19-year-old woman comes to the physician because of irregular vaginal bleeding. She has asthma and has never had surgery. She takes albuterol for her asthma and has been taking the oral contraceptive pill for 2 years. She has no allergies to medications. On examination she is found to have a vaginal lesion, which is biopsied. The biopsy shows clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina. This patient's malignancy is most likely associated with which of the following types of exposure?
(A) Current albuterol use
(B) Current oral contraceptive pill use
(C) In utero aspirin exposure
(D) In utero Coumadin exposure
(E) In utero dietbylstilbestrol (DES) exposure
52. A 22-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, comes to the physician for her first prenatal visit She had a previous full-term, normal vaginal delivery 2 years ago. She has no medical problems and has never had surgery. She takes no medications and has no known drug allergies. Pelvic examination reveals a mucopurulent cervical discharge, no cervical motion tenderness, and an 8- week-sized, non-tender uterus. A cervical swab is performed. Two days later, the laboratory calls to notify the physician that the patient is positive for Chlamydia trachomatis. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
(A) Ceftriaxone
(B) Erythromycin
(C) Metronidazole
(D) Penicillin
(E) Tetracycline
53. A 39-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the physician because of a persistent vaginal itch, vaginal discharge, and dysuria. She has had these same symptoms several times over the past 2 years and each time has been diagnosed with Candida vulvovaginitis. On physical examination, she has a thick, white vaginal discharge and significant vulvar and vaginal erythema. A potassium hydroxide (KOH) smear shows pseudohyphae; the normal saline smear is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
(A) Refer to psychiatry
(B) Screen for cocaine abuse
(C) Screen for diabetes
(D) Screen for thalassemia
(E) Treat with metronidazole
54. A 25-year-old woman being evaluated for infertility is found to have an abnormal ridge of red, moist granules located in the upper third of her vagina. Pertinent medical history is that her mother was treated with diethylstilbestrol (DES) during her pregnancy. A biopsy from the abnormal vaginal ridge reveals the presence of benign glands underneath stratified squamous epithelium. Which of the following is the most serious long-term complication of this abnormality?
A. Clear cell carcinoma
B. Condyloma acuminatum
C. Extramammary Paget disease
D. Multiple papillary hidradenomas
E. Verrucous carcinoma
55. A 29-year-old woman presents with severe pain during menstruation (dysmenorrhea). During workup, an endometrial biopsy is obtained. The pathology report from this specimen makes the diagnosis of chronic endometritis. Based on this pathology report, which of the following was present in the biopsy sample of the endometrium?
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Lymphoid follicles
D. Plasma cells
E. Decidualized stromal cells
56. A 39-year-old woman presents with severe menorrhagia and colicky dysmenorrhea. A hysterectomy including resection of the fallopian tubes and ovaries is performed. Examination by the pathologist finds a right adnexal cyst measuring approximately 2.3 cm in diameter and filled with clotted blood. Microscopic examination reveals the presence in the wall of the cyst of endometrial glands, stroma, and hemosiderin pigment. What is the best diagnosis?
A. Adenomyosis
B. Endometriosis
C. Hydatid cyst
D. Hydatidiform mole
E. Luteal cyst
57. A 23-year-old woman presents with urinary frequency and abnormal uterine bleeding. A careful medical history finds that her abnormal menstrual bleeding is characterized by excessive bleeding at irregular intervals. A pelvic examination finds a single mass in the anterior wall of the uterus, this being confirmed by ultrasonography. Which one of the following clinical terms best describes the abnormal uterine bleeding in this woman?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Dysmenorrhea
C. Menometrorrhagia
D. Oligomenorrhea
E. Polymenorrhea
58. A 60-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with the new onset of uterine bleeding. An endometrial biopsy is diagnosed as atypical hyper-plasia. Which of the following histologic changes is most characteristic of this abnormality?
A. Crowding of endometrial glands with budding and epithelial atypia
B. Lymphatic invasion by interlacing bundles of atypical spindle-shaped cells
C. Menstrual-type endometrial glands with focal atypical cystic dilatation
D. Secretory-type endometrial glands with hyperplasia of atypical polygonal cells having clear cytoplasm
E. Stromal invasion by malignant glands with focal areas of atypical squamous differentiation
59. Prolonged unopposed estrogen stimulation in an adult woman increases the risk of development of endometrial hyperplasia and subsequent carcinoma. Which of the following is the most common histologic appearance for this type of cancer?
A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Clear cell carcinoma
C. Small cell carcinoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
E. Transitional cell carcinoma
60. A 46-year-old woman undergoes an abdominal hysterectomy for a “fibroid” uterus. The surgeon requests a frozen section on the tumor, which is deferred because of the lesion’s degree of cellularity. Which of the following histologic criteria will be used by the pathologist to determine if this tumor is benign or malignant?
A. Mitotic rate
B. Cell pleomorphism
C. Cell necrosis
D. Nucleus-to-cytoplasm ratio
E. Tumor size
61. A 23-year-old G3POA2 female presents to your clinic at an estimated 12 weeks of gestational age. She is a new patient and has come to your clinic to seek an elective abortion. She has had two elective abortions in the past because of unplanned pregnancy. She has no past medical history and takes no medications. Her physical examination is within normal limits and a limited ultrasound examination was able to detect fetal heart tones. You and your partners have a strict policy against performing abortions because some members of the group object to the procedure. You decide it would be best to stick to this policy; however, the patient becomes angry and tells you that she will sue you if you do not perform the procedure. What is the best response to this patient?
A. "You can do what you want. I cannot do the abortion because of our group policy"
B. "If you wanted to have an abortion why did you not come earlier?"
C. "I don't think any physician will perform an abortion at this gestational age."
D. "I can refer you to another physician who will perform the procedure"
E. "If we keep doing abortions, then your uterus can get scarred and you may not be able to become pregnant again"
62. A 65-year-old woman is found to have osteoporosis on DEXA scan. She underwent right knee surgery five years ago and developed post-operative deep venous thrombosis, for which she was treated with 6 months of warfarin therapy. She also has severe gastroesophageal reflux disease and takes lansoprazole daily. Her mother died of breast cancer, her maternal aunt has endometrial cancer, and her paternal aunt has a history of ovarian cancer. She does not want to use bisphosphonates because of her reflux symptoms, and would like to consider raloxifene. Which of the following is a contraindication to raloxifene in this patient?
A. History of breast cancer in her mother
B. History of endometrial cancer in her maternal aunt
C. History of ovarian cancer in her paternal aunt
D. History of deep vein thrombosis
E. History of colon cancer
3. A 22-year-old nulliparous woman comes to the physician with lower abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. She is unable to keep anything down. She is sexually active and uses oral contraceptive pills. The patient's last menstrual period was 15 days ago. Her temperature is 39°C (102.2°F), blood pressure is 11 0/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 11 O/min. Physical examination shows dry mucous membranes, soft and symmetrical abdomen, and diffuse tenderness over the lower quadrants. External genitalia show no abnormalities; speculum examination shows purulent discharge from the cervical os. The uterus is normal in size but is tender to palpation and motion. The adnexae are markedly tender but no palpable mass is noted. Cervical cultures are pending. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A. Admit the patient and wait for culture results
B. Inpatient treatment with cefotetan and doxycycline
C. Outpatient treatment with ceftriaxone and doxycycline
D. Outpatient treatment with metronidazole and ampicillin
E. Outpatient treatment with oral amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
64. A 25-year-old woman presents to your office complaining of a seven-week history of amenorrhea. She also states that she has had nausea and vomiting for five weeks. She is sexually active. Her medical and obstetrical histories are unremarkable. Serum hCG level is elevated. Which of the following is the most important direct role of hCG in pregnancy?
A. Inhibition of uterine contractions
B. Induction of prolactin production by the pituitary
C. Promotion and maintenance of implantation
D. Maintenance of the corpus luteum
E. Induction of early embryonic division and differentiation
65. A 25-year-old woman presents with lower abdominal pain, fever, and a vaginal discharge. Pelvic examination reveals bilateral adnexal (ovarian) tenderness and pain when the cervix is manipulated. Cultures taken from the vaginal discharge grow Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s adnexal pain?
A. Adenomatoid tumor
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Endometriosis
D. Luteoma of pregnancy
E. Pelvic inflammatory disease
66. A 29-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 0, comes for a routine prenatal visit. According to her history, she is at 16-weeks gestation. She had a first trimester miscarriage during her previous pregnancy. She does not take any vitamin supplementation. Vital signs are stable and physical examination is unremarkable. Initial laboratory studies show increased maternal serum alpha- fetoprotein (MSAFP) levels. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the abnormal laboratory finding?
A. Neural tube defect
B. Edward syndrome
C. Down syndrome
D. Omphalocele
E. Gestational age error
67. After reading an article titled: ''The Risk of Cancer in Patients with Diethylstilbestrol (DES) Exposed Mothers", a 23-year old female comes to your office with her mother for assessment of possible risks. Her mother had been given DES while pregnant. Which of the following cancers is this patient most at risk of developing?
A. Vaginal squamous cell carcinoma
B. Cervical squamous cell carcinoma
C. Adenocarcinoma of the endometrium
D. Adenocarcinoma of ovary
E. Adenocarcinon1a of vagina
68. A 25-year-old primigravid woman at 37 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of severe uterine contractions and moderate vaginal bleeding. She has been followed for pre-eclampsia since her 32nd week of gestation. She is currently having intermittent bleeding. Ultrasonogram in the emergency department shows placental abruption and an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. Placenta previa is ruled out. Her temperature is 37.0° C (98.7° F), blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, pulse is 99/min and respirations are 20/min. Physical examination shows uterine tenderness and hyperactivity, increased uterine tone and vaginal bleeding. Her cervix is 1cm dilated and 10% effaced at the time of admission. Fetal heart tracing shows a rate of 11 O/min, a long-term variability of 4 cycles/min and a beat-to-beat variability of 20/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Induction of labor
B. Emergency cesarean section
C. Scheduled cesarean section within next 48 hours
D. Tocolysis to prevent the abruption from evolving
E. Conservative management in hospital
69. A healthy 28-year-old woman comes to the physician for an annual physical examination. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Menses occur every 28 days and last 4-5 days. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. She became sexually active at age 18 and has had 3 sexual partners since then. The patient is in a relationship with her boyfriend of one year and uses oral contraceptives. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs and general physical examination are within normal limits. Pelvic examination shows no cervical motion tenderness, adnexal masses, or cervical discharge. Pap smear is performed in the office. The results show adequate cellularity with transformation zone present and atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A. Colposcopy
B. Human papillomavirus DNA test
C. Loop electrosurgical excision procedure
E. Repeat Pap smear in 3 months
D. Pap smear in 3 years
70. A 28-year-old G2, P1 woman in her 26th week of gestation comes to the office due to intermittent episodes of abdominal pain. She has been having these episodes for the past 4 days, and thinks that her fetus may be in distress. She points to her right flank when asked about the location of the pain, and says that it occasionally radiates to the groin area. She cannot identify any exacerbating or relieving factors. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated so far. Her past medical history is significant for pelvic inflammatory disease. Her temperature is 37.5° C (99.5° F), blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. She is in considerable pain at the moment. Deep palpation of the right flank reveals tenderness. There is no CVA tenderness. Urinalysis shows: Specific gravity: 1.020 Blood: ++ Glucose: negative Ketones: negative Protein: negative Leukocyte esterase: negative Nitrites: negative What is the best next step in the management of this patient?
A. Cervical cultures
B. Shockwave lithotripsy
C. Intravenous pyelogram
D. Ultrasound of the abdomen
E. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
71. A 36-year-old woman comes to your office complaining of a 12-month history of inter-menstrual bleeding and heavy menses. She has had type-2 diabetes for the past 4-years, managed with glipizide and metformin. She has no family history of gynecological malignancies. She does not use tobacco or alcohol. Her temperature is 37.2° C (98.9° F), and blood pressure is 126/76 mm Hg. Her BMI is 30 Kg/m2. Physical examination shows pale mucus membranes. Pelvic examination is within normal limits; no vaginal lesions are noted. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Her hemoglobin is 10.8 g/dl and platelet count is 223,000/mm3. Coagulation studies are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Prescribe combined oral contraceptive pills
B. Conjugated estrogens for 3-months
C. Cyclic progestins
D. Endometrial ablation
E. Endometrial biopsy
72. A 34-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 3, at 32 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests and fetal growth have been normal. Prenatal ultrasound at the 12th week showed an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. Her temperature is 37.0°C (98.7° F), blood pressure is 90/70 mm of Hg, pulse is 98/min and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination shows continuous bright red vaginal bleeding. Ultrasonogram in the emergency department shows complete placenta previa. Fetal heart tracing shows repetitive late decelerations. The patient's vital signs are stabilized with fluids, but the bleeding continues. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Immediate induction of labor
B. Emergency cesarean section
C. Administer corticosteroids and perform elective surgery later
D. Forceps delivery
E. Continue expectant management until the bleeding stops
73. A 32-year-old multiparous African-American woman comes for her initial prenatal visit at 14 weeks' gestation. She complains of the recent appearance of facial hair and acne. The beta-HCG level is consistent with gestational age. Examination shows hirsutism. Ultrasonogram shows an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates and bilateral solid nodular masses in both ovaries. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Suction evacuation of uterus
B. Exploratory laparotomy
C. Ultrasound guided aspiration of the mass
D. Diagnostic laparoscopy
E. Reassurance and follow-up with ultrasonogram
74. A 24-year-old woman presents for her first prenatal visit at 12 weeks gestation. She was diagnosed with HIV two years ago, and her most recent CD4 count three months ago was 600cells/mm3. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Physical examination is within normal limits. Which of the following is the single most important intervention for reducing maternal-fetal transmission of HIV infection?
A. Elective cesarean section at 38 weeks gestation
B. Use of forceps to expedite delivery
C. Administering HIV immunoglobulin and vaccine to the neonate
D. Zidovudine treatment of the mother during pregnancy and of the neonate after birth
E. Use of ventouse to expedite delivery
75. A 93-year-old woman is sent to your office from the nursing home for evaluation of vaginal bleeding. She is a poor historian and history is provided by her caregiver. Per her caregiver, she has a history of cerebrovascular accident with residual weakness, myocardial infarction, hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic renal insufficiency. She has been wheelchair- bound and living in the nursing home since her stroke five years ago. She takes multiple medications. Her temperature is 37.2°C (98.9°F), blood pressure is 176/76, pulse is 74/min and respirations are 14/min. She is awake, alert, and oriented to person, place and time. Physical examination reveals a friable, bleeding vaginal mass 3 cm in size, and a malodorous vaginal discharge. The remainder of the examination reveals left-sided spasticity and weakness. Biopsy of the mass reveals squamous cell carcinoma of the vagina, that does not extend to the pelvic wall. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis shows no evidence of metastasis. You call the patient's daughter, who is the power of attorney, and she requests that you do the best you can. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Surgical resection
B. Radiation therapy
C. Combination chemotherapy
D. Biologic agent therapy
E. Send her to hospice
76. A 32-year-old woman who presents with menometrorrhagia is found to have a 4.0-cm mass within her left ovary. This mass is resected surgically and a histologic section reveals the tumor to be composed of small polygonal cells growing sheets and anastomosing cords. Rare Call-Exner bodies are present. The tumor cells are found to stain positively with an immunoperoxidase stain against inhibin. Which one of the following is most likely to be secreted by these tumor cells?
A. Acid phosphatase
B. α-Fetoprotein
C. β-Human chorionic gonadotropin
D. Estrogen
E. Testosterone
7. A 28-year-old primigravid woman at 34 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. She had intense abdominal pain and became agitated and restless in the ambulance. She has mild vaginal bleeding and diffuse abdominal pain. She is on continuous fetal heart monitoring. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests and fetal growth have been normal. Prenatal ultrasound at the 16th week showed no abnormalities and an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. Her blood pressure is 110/60mmHg, pulse is 110/min and respirations are 32/min. Physical examination shows hyperventilation, cold extremities and a distended abdomen with irregular contours. Fetal heart monitoring shows repetitive late decelerations and a long-term variability of 2 cycles/min. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A Abruptio placenta
B. Placenta previa
C. Vasa previa
D. Uterine rupture
E. Rupture of ectopic pregnanc
78. A 22-year-old, gravida 1, para 0, at 13 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of vaginal discharge and lower abdominal discomfort. She has had no passage of tissue from her vagina. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. She has no history of trauma. Her temperature is 37.0C (98.7F), blood pressure is 128/80 mmHg, pulse is 76/min and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination shows a closed cervix, a slightly tender uterus with a size consistent with gestational age, free adnexae and scant bright red bleeding from the introitus. Ultrasonogram in the emergency department shows normal fetal heart motion. She is anxious and concerned about her baby. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Incomplete abortion
B. Threatened abortion
C. Completed abortion
D. Inevitable abortion
E. Ectopic pregnancy
79. A 16-year-old teenage girl presents to your office with her mother complaining of primary amenorrhea. Her past medical history is not significant. Her family history is significant for hypothyroidism in her mother. Her vital signs are normal. Examination reveals absent breasts, as well as pubic and axillary hair. The uterus and gonads are visualized on ultrasound, and the FSH level is increased. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Determine serum estrogen level
B. GnRH stimulation test
C. Determine Prolactin and TSH levels
D. Gonadal biopsy
E. Karyotype
80. A 24-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 34 weeks' gestation comes for a routine prenatal visit. Her dates were confirmed by first trimester ultrasonogram. She has no painful uterine contractions. Her previous pregnancy was uncomplicated and ended with a normal vaginal delivery. Her vitals are stable and fetal heart tones are reassuring. Physical examination shows a closed cervix, vertex is palpable at the fundus, and the presenting part is not engaged. Which of the following is the appropriate next step in management?
A. Routine follow-up
B. Attempt external cephalic version
C. Attempt internal cephalic version
D. Discuss cesarean section with the patient
E. Admit the patient and monitor closely
81. A 32-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 38 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital for labor pains. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests and fetal growth have been normal. Prenatal ultrasound at the 16th week showed no abnormalities and an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. In her second pregnancy, she had to undergo cesarean section. The woman is admitted to the delivery room and fetal heart and uterine contraction monitoring is started. Her blood pressure is 100/60mmHg, pulse is 115/min and respirations are 26/min. Pelvic examination shows the cervix is 60% effaced and 6cm dilated. Uterine contractions are regular and occurring every 4 minutes. Fetal heart tracing shows no abnormalities. Suddenly, the patient starts complaining of an intense lower abdominal pain. She is restless and vaginal bleeding is noted. Fetal heart monitoring shows variable decelerations, and the fetus has shifted to the ‘-2' station from '0' station Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Placental abruption
B. Vasa previa
C. Uterine rupture
D. Endometritis
E. Bladder distention
82. A 28-year-old nulliparous woman presents to your office complaining of fatigue, low mood, and amenorrhea. She says that it all started two months ago and progressively worsened. She is sexually active and uses condoms for contraception. Her medical history is unremarkable, and she denies taking any drugs or medications. Examination reveals dry skin, short eyebrows, a painless and enlarged thyroid gland, and galactorrhea. The uterus has a normal size, and the adnexae are not palpable. Initial investigations reveal the following: Serum pregnancy test: Negative Free T4: 2.5 µg/dL (N= 5- 12) SerumTSH: 11 .0 µU/ml (N= 0.5-5.0) Prolactin: 30 ng/ml (< 20 ng/ml) Antimicrosomal antibodies: Positive Of the following, which represents the association between hypothyroidism and hyperprolactinemia in the above patient?
A. TRH stimulates prolactin production
B. TRH stimulates dopamine production
C. TSH inhibits dopamine production
D. TSH stimulates dopamine production
E. Antimicrosomal antibodies stimulate dopamine production
83. A 23-year-old female comes to your office to review her daily prescription medications. She had a positive pregnancy test three days ago despite strict contraception. Her last menstrual period was 5 weeks ago. She is on albuterol and beclomethasone inhalers for bronchial asthma, isotretinoin for acne, and lithium for bipolar disorder. Her bipolar disorder has been stable for the past several years. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. Physical examination shows no abnormalities; vital signs are stable. Which of the following is the most appropriate advice for this patient?
A. Ask her to stop beclomethasone and lithium
B. Ask her to stop beclomethasone, isotretinoin and lithium
C. Ask her to stop isotretinoin and wean lithium
D. Ask her to stop all 4 medications
E. Ask her to continue all 4 medications
84. A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 32 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of acute onset severe uterine contractions and moderate vaginal bleeding. Her first pregnancy was uncomplicated. She has a history of cocaine addiction but she is now participating in a drug rehabilitation program. Ultrasonogram performed at the 16th week showed no abnormalities and an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.7F), blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, pulse is 90/min and respirations are 15/min. Physical examination shows uterine tenderness, hyperactivity, and increased uterine tone. Fetal heart tracing shows 140/min with good long-term and beat-to-beat variability. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A Abruptio placenta
B. Placenta previa
C. Vasa previa
D. Uterine rupture
E. Normal labor
85. A 39-year-old woman presents with increasing abdominal distention and pelvic pain. A CT scan finds a slight amount of fluid in the pleural cavity and also a 3.5-cm tumor of the right ovary. The tumor is resected and histologic sections reveal the tumor to be composed of spindle-shaped cells. These cells did not stain with an oil red O special stain. Which of the following types of ovarian tumor is most likely to produce this constellation of findings?
A. Epithelial tumor
B. Stromal tumor
C. Germ cell tumor
D. Surface tumor
E. Metastatic tumor
86. During the evaluation of infertility in a 25-year-old female, a hysterosalpingogram showed evidence of Asherman syndrome. Which one of the following symptoms would you expect this patient to have?
A. Hypomenorrhea
B. Oligomenorrhea
C. Menorrhagia
D. Metrorrhagia
E. Dysmenorrhea
87. During the evaluation of secondary amenorrhea in a 24-year-old woman, hyperprolactinemia is diagnosed. Which of the following conditions could cause increased circulating prolactin concentration and amenorrhea in this patient?
A. Stress
B. Primary hyperthyroidism
C. Anorexia nervosa
D. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
E. Polycystic ovarian disease
88. A 36-year-old morbidly obese woman presents to your office for evaluation of irregular, heavy menses. An office endometrial biopsy shows complex hyperplasia of the endometrium without atypia. The hyperplasia is most likely related to the excess formation in the patient’s adipose tissue of which of the following hormones?
A. Estriol
B. Estradiol
C. Estrone
D. Androstenedione
E. Dehydroepiandrosterone
89. A couple presents for evaluation of primary infertility. The evaluation of the woman is completely normal. The husband is found to have a left varicocele. If the husband’s varicocele is the cause of the couple’s infertility, what would you expect to see when evaluating the husband’s semen analysis?
A. Decreased sperm count with an increase in the number of abnormal forms
B. Decreased sperm count with an increase in motility
C. Increased sperm count with an increase in the number of abnormal forms
D. Increased sperm count with absent motility
E. Azoospermia
90. A 59-year-old patient with a 2-year history of metastatic breast cancer presents with the acute onset of severe low back pain. She underwent a radical mastectomy and lymphadenectomy 3 years ago. Four of seven nodes were positive at the time of her original diagnosis. One year ago she developed an asymptomatic metastasis to her right femur. On physical examination, she is in severe discomfort and finds movement extremely difficult. She has exquisite tenderness in the lumbar vertebral area, and any motion of her legs or lower back produces extreme pain. An emergent MRI reveals large lytic lesions in L3 and L4. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
(A) Discuss her wishes regarding cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
(B) Refer her to a pain management consultant
(C) Prescribe bed rest with high-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
(D) Schedule her for radiation therapy to the lumbar spine
(E) Schedule her for an emergency nuclear bone scan
91. A 22-year-old woman comes to the physician with her husband because of vaginal irritation and a malodorous vaginal discharge. Her symptoms started 4 days ago. She also notes pain with intercourse and dysuria. Pelvic examination reveals vaginal and cervical erythema and a copious greenish, frothy discharge. The pH of this discharge is 6.0. A wet preparation is done with normal saline, which shows numerous flagellated organisms that are slightly larger than the surrounding white blood cells. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
(A) Do not treat the patient or her partner
(B) Treat only the patient with metronidazole
(C) Treat the patient and her partner with metronidazole
(D) Treat only die patient with penicillin
(E) Treat the patient and her partner with penicillin
92. A 24-year-old woman asks her physician about the possibility of genetic screening for BRCA1 mutations. Her mother died of breast carcinoma at age 44, and a sister had a diagnosis of in situ ductal carcinoma at age 38. Which of the following is the most appropriate advice to give this woman?
(A) Explain that BRCA1 mutations are not associated with an increased risk of breast cancer
(B) Recommend screening only if she is of Ashkenazi Jewish descent
(C) Recommend counseling before genetic screening is undertaken
(D) Suggest prophylactic bilateral mastectomy instead of screening
93. A 29-year-old woman presents with complaints of a vaginal discharge. She has had two sexual partners over the past 4 weeks, and she reports that she uses oral contraceptives and that her partners were not using condoms. Examination shows she is afebrile, with no lymphadenopathy. Pelvic examination shows no ulcers, but a thick white discharge is noted at the cervical os on speculum examination. A Gram stain of the discharge reveals gram-negative diplococci. A sample of the discharge is also sent out for culture. The patient is appropriately treated and returns unhappily 3 weeks later with identical symptoms. A Gram stain of the discharge is again done, and this time reveals no organisms. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms
(A) Noncompliance with antibiotic therapy
(B) Reinfection due to an occult urethral source
(C) Reinfection from an untreated sexual partner
(D) A resistant strain of the original organisms
(E) An undetected, underlying immunosuppression
94. An 18-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea and is found to have normal secondary sex characteristics and normal-appearing external genitalia. Her first menstrual period was at age 13, and her cycle has been unremarkable until now. She states that her last menstrual period was 8 weeks prior to this visit. A urine test for hCG is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Intrauterine pregnancy
C. Stein-Leventhal syndrome
D. Turner syndrome
E. Weight loss syndrome
95. A 24-year-old woman delivers a normal 8-lb baby boy at 40 weeks of gestation. She has no history of drug abuse, and her pregnancy was unremarkable. Examination had revealed the placenta to be located normally, but following delivery the woman fails to deliver the placenta and subsequently develops massive postpartum hemorrhage and shock. Emergency surgery is performed to stop the bleeding. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her postpartum bleeding?
A. An abruptio placenta
B. A placenta previa
C. A placenta accreta
D. A hydatidiform mole
E. An invasive mole
96. A 26-year-old woman develops acute lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. While in the bathroom she passes a cast of tissue composed of clot material and then collapses. She is brought to the hospital, where a physical examination reveals a soft, tender mass in right adnexa and pouch of Douglas. Histologic examination of the tissue passed in the bathroom reveals blood clots and decidualized tissue. No chorionic villi or trophoblastic tissue are present. Which of the following conditions is most likely present in this individual?
A. Aborted intrauterine pregnancy
B. Complete hydatidiform mole
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Endometrial hyperplasia
E. Partial hydatidiform mole A
29-year-old woman presents for a routine prenatal visit. She is 24 weeks pregnant by last menstrual period and ultrasound. She does not have any medical problems and does not take any medications. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. She works as a financial advisor in a local firm. She and her husband have been monogamous since getting married 5 years ago. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. At the end of the visit she tells you that her newborn niece recently had a group B streptococcal infection and she is afraid that her child might develop the same. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
A. Your niece would not have developed the infection if the obstetrician had followed the standard of care.
B. You do not have any risk factors of harboring or transmitting that infection to your child.
C. Only a small percentage of unfortunate children develop this infection. Most children will be fine.
D. I understand your concern. Let me take vaginal and rectal swabs for culture now.
E. I understand your concern. I will test for the infection two weeks prior to the expected date of delivery.
97. A 19-year-old woman presents to the physician's office for routine physical examination and Pap smear. She has no complaints. She has had 2 sexual partners in the past six months and takes oral contraceptive pills. She has no significant past medical history and takes no other medications. She has no known drug allergies. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F) and blood pressure is 120/72mm Hg. Complete physical exam including pelvic examination is unremarkable. Cervical swab is sent for nucleic acid amplification of Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. One week later, the nucleic acid amplification test returns positive for Chlamydia infection. The patient is still asymptomatic. What is the most appropriate next step in the management?
A. Repeat the test for confirmation
B. Reassurance and no treatment at this time
C. One dose of intramuscular ceftriaxone
D. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
E. Single dose azithromycin
98. A 25-year-old woman delivered a baby boy at 38 weeks gestation. The newborn has a small body size with microcephaly, hypoplasia of the distal phalanges of the fingers and toes, excess hair and a cleft palate. He weighs 2.5kg (5.5lb). Further history or evaluation of the mother would most likely reveal which of the following:
A Untreated syphilis
B. Phenytoin use
C. Alcohol abuse
D. Cocaine abuse
E. Azithromycin use
99. A 30-year-old obese white female comes to the physician with a six months history of oligomenorrhea. She never had this problem before. She has no galactorrhea. She has gained significant weight over the past two years despite a regular exercise program. She has also experienced hair loss during this time. She has had regular Pap smears since the age of 20; pap smears have shown no abnormalities. She takes no medications. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. Her mother has a history of endometrial carcinoma and her grandmother had a history of ovarian carcinoma. Physical examination shows male pattern baldness. Abdominal and pelvic examination shows no abnormalities. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Serum prolactin level and thyroid function tests are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Screening mammogram
B. Oral glucose tolerance test
C. CA-125 levels , annually
D. Diagnostic laparoscopy
E. Iron studies
100. A 22-year-old primigravid woman at 10 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain. She was cleaning the house when she suddenly started feeling colicky pain in the suprapubic area. The pain did not subside after resting, and a few minutes later a tissue-like substance passed through her vagina along with moderate bleeding. The pain subsequently ceased, but she still has mild discomfort. Her temperature is 37.0C (98.7F), blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg, pulse is 90/min and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination shows a closed cervix and blood pooled in the vaginal vault. Ultrasonogram shows a vacant uterine cavity and free adnexae. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Incomplete abortion
B. Threatened abortion
C. Molar pregnancy
D. Inevitable abortion
E. Complete abortion
101. A 26-year-old woman comes to the physician for follow-up after a recent spontaneous abortion at 14 weeks gestation. She had one other spontaneous first trimester abortion two years ago. She has no other medical problems and does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. Review of systems reveals photosensitivity and occasional hematuria. On examination, you observe a bilateral malar rash. What is the most likely pathophysiology for her abortions?
A. Lupus anticoagulant
B. Vasospasm
C. Chromosomal abnormalities
D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
E. Infection
102. A 29-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 0, comes for a routine prenatal visit. According to her history, she is at 16-weeks gestation. She had a first trimester miscarriage during her previous pregnancy. She does not take any vitamin supplementation. Vital signs are stable and physical examination is unremarkable. Initial laboratory studies show increased maternal serum alpha- fetoprotein (MSAFP) levels. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the abnormal laboratory finding?
A. Neural tube defect
B. Edward syndrome
C. Down syndrome
D. Omphalocele
E. Gestational age error
103. A 26-year-old woman in the third trimester of her first pregnancy develops persistent headaches and swelling of her legs and face. Early during her pregnancy, a physical examination was unremarkable; however, now her blood pressure is 170/105 mm Hg and urinalysis reveals slight proteinuria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Eclampsia
B. Gestational trophoblastic disease
C. Nephritic syndrome
D. Nephrotic syndrome
E. Preeclampsia
104. A 22-year-old nulliparous woman has recently become sexually active. She consults you because of painful coitus, with the pain located at the vaginal introitus. It is accompanied by painful involuntary contraction of the pelvic muscles. Other than confirmation of these findings, the pelvic examination is normal. Which of the following is the most common cause of this condition?
A. Endometriosis
B. Psychogenic causes
C. Bartholin gland abscess
D. Vulvar atrophy
E. Ovarian cyst
105. A 39-year-old patient is contemplating discontinuing birth control pills in order to conceive. She is concerned about her fertility at this age, and inquires about when she can anticipate resumption of normal menses. You counsel her that by 3 months after discontinuation of birth control pills, what proportion of patients will resume normal menses?
A. 99%
B. 95%
C. 80%
D. 50%
E. 5%
106. A 36-year-old woman presents to your office for contraception. She has had three vaginal deliveries without complications. Her medical history is significant for hypertension, well- controlled with a diuretic, and a seizure disorder. Her last seizure was 12 years ago. Currently she does not take any antiepileptic medications. She also complains of stress-related headaches that are relieved with an over-the-counter pain medication. She denies any history of surgeries. She is divorced, smokes one pack of cigarettes per day, and has three to four alcoholic drinks per week. On examination, her vital signs include weight 90 kg, blood pressure 126/80 mm Hg, pulse 68 beats per minute, respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute, and temperature 36.4C (97.6F). Her examination is normal except for some lower extremity nontender varicosities. She has taken birth control pills in the past and wants to restart them because they help with her cramps. Which of the following would contradict the use of combination oral contraceptive pills in this patient?
A. Varicose vein
B. Tension headache
C. Seizure disorders
D. Smoking in a woman over 35 years of age
E. Mild essential hypertension
107. A 30-year-old woman presents for a physical examination for work. She denies any medical problems or surgeries in the past. She has had no pregnancies. She is sexually active and has been using oral contraceptive pills for the past 6 years. She denies any allergies to medications. On examination, her weight is 62 kg, blood pressure 120/78 mm Hg, pulse 76 beats per minute, respiratory rate 15 breaths per minute, temperature 36.8C (98.4F). Her physical examination is normal. Laboratory evaluation is also done. Which direct effect of birth control pills could be noted in the laboratory results?
A. Decreased glucose tolerance
B. Decreased binding globulins
C. Decreased high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol
D. Decreased triglycerides
E. Decreased hemoglobin concentration
108. A 32-year-old woman presents to your office to discuss contraception. She has recently stopped breast-feeding her 8-month-old son and wants to stop her progestin-only pill because her cycles are irregular on it. You recommend a combination pill to help regulate her cycle. You also mention that with estrogen added, the contraceptive efficacy is also higher. In combination birth control pills, which of the following is the primary contraceptive effect of the estrogenic component?
A. Conversion of ethinyl estradiol to mestranol
B. Atrophy of the endometrium
C. Suppression of cervical mucus secretion
D. Suppression of luteinizing hormone (LH) secretion
E. Suppression of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) secretion
109. A 19-year-old primigravid woman at 12 weeks gestation comes to the physician for a routine prenatal visit. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated to date, and her past medical history is unremarkable. Her medications include a multivitamin with iron and a folate supplement daily. She has no known drug allergies. Examination shows a uterus consistent in size with 12 weeks gestation. Clean-catch urine culture grows >100,000 colony-forming units/ml of Escherichia coli Sensitivity testing on the bacteria is pending. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy for this patient?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Doxycycline
D. No antibiotic therapy
E. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
110. A 27-year-old woman comes to the physician for preconception counseling. She takes no medication. Her menses are regular, are moderate in amount, and last 5-6 days. Her diet is well balanced. Her grandparents are from Greece. Her husband's family is also of Mediterranean ancestry. Her mother and sister have been diagnosed with anemia, but she does not know the types. The presence of thalassemia anemia in her family is suspected. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial screening test?
A. Complete blood count in the patient
B. Hemoglobin electrophoresis testing in the patient
C. Hemoglobin electrophoresis testing in the patient and her husband
D. Iron level, total iron-binding capacity, and ferritin level in the patient
E. Solubility testing in the patient
111. A 28-year-old woman at 30 weeks gestation comes to the physician because of 2 days of a near absence of fetal movements. This is only her second prenatal visit because she has skipped many appointments. She has a medical history significant for chronic hepatitis C infection and a MRSA skin abscess that was drained. She smokes cigarettes and uses heroin, cocaine and alcohol. She says that she is trying hard to be sober. Her temperature is 37.0° C (98.7° F), blood pressure is 138/85 mm Hg and pulse is 80/min. Physical examination shows a fundal height of 26 cm (10.2in). Fetal heart tones are heard by Doppler. Nonstress test (NST) shows no accelerations. After vibroacoustic stimulation, NST is still not reactive so a biophysical profile is ordered and shows a score of 2. Her lab work showed the following: Complete blood count: Hemoglobin: 8.0 g/L MCV: 105fl Platelets: 120,000/mm3 Leukocyte count: 3,500/mm3 Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Repeat non-stress test, twice weekly
B. Perform contraction stress test
C. Administer corticosteroids and repeat biophysical profile in 24 hours
D. Assess for fetal lung maturity and deliver if it is achieved
E. Deliver the baby immediately
112. A 22-year-old woman comes to your office at 10 weeks gestation for her first prenatal visit. Her obstetrical history is significant for a spontaneous abortion at 12 weeks gestation one year ago. She states that her mother has hypothyroidism, and she asks you to order thyroid function tests for her. She denies any symptoms, and her physical examination is unremarkable. Ultrasound reveals an intrauterine gestation with normal fetal cardiac activity. Which of the following results is most likely to be expected in this patient?
A. Normal total T 4, normal TSH
B. Decreased free T4, decreased TSH
C. Increased total T4, normal TSH
D. Increased free T4, decreased TSH
E. Decreased total T4, increased TSH
113. A 24-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 16 weeks' gestation comes to you for a routine prenatal visit. She has had mild constipation. She has had no nausea, vomiting, fever, burning urination, back pain, or other complaints. She has no history of urinary tract infections. She takes iron and folic acid supplements. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. She is afebrile; her blood pressure is 124/74 mm Hg and pulse is 78/min. Examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 16-week gestation. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Urinalysis is within normal limits. A routine clean-catch urine culture grows greater than 100,000 colonies/ml of Escherichia coli. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Nitrofurantoin for 7 days
B. Ciprofloxacin for 3 days
C. Reassurance and routine follow-up
D. Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole for 7 days
E. Obtain renal ultrasonogram
114. A 22-year-old woman presents to your office for her well-woman examination and contraception. She has no medical problems or prior surgeries. She does not smoke or drink. Her vital signs and physical examination are normal. You explain the risks and benefits of combination oral contraceptive pills to the patient. She wants to know how they will keep her from getting pregnant. Which of the following mechanisms best explains the contraceptive effect of birth control pills that contain both synthetic estrogen and progestin?
A. Direct inhibition of oocyte maturation
B. Inhibition of ovulation
C. Production of uterine secretions that are toxic to developing embryos
D. Impairment of implantation hyperplastic changes of the endometriu
E. Impairment of sperm transport caused by uterotubal obstruction
115. A 45-year-old white female has undergone a right mastectomy for a node-negative, estrogen and progesterone receptor-positive tumor. She is scheduled to begin adjuvant therapy with tamoxifen. Her menstrual cycles are regular and her last menstrual period was 15 days ago. She has many concerns about tamoxifen therapy and would like to know its risks and benefits. Which of the following is she at risk for?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Vaginal candidiasis
C. Endometrial cancer
D. Ovarian cancer
E. Ischemic optic neuropathy
116. A 25-year-old woman at 28 weeks gestation comes to the ER because of strong, regular and painful uterine contractions that started 4 hours earlier with the passage of clear fluid from her vagina. She denies any vaginal bleeding. She has had no prenatal care. Vital signs are normal. A sterile speculum examination shows pooling of amniotic fluid within the vagina, and a cervix that is 4 cm dilated and 80% effaced. Ultrasonogram in the emergency department shows an amniotic fluid index of 4 and bilateral renal agenesis in the fetus. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Allow spontaneous vaginal delivery
B. Consent for cesarean section
C. Administer corticosteroids
D. Amnioinfusion and tocolysis
E.Administer oxytocin
117. A 25-year-old G2 P 1woman at 12 weeks gestation comes to the physician because of foul smelling vaginal discharge. She is sexually active and reports no previous problems. Speculum examination reveals a grayish, foul-smelling discharge, but no erythema or edema is noted on the vaginal walls or the vulva. There is no cervical or adnexal tenderness. A saline wet mount examination reveals numerous epithelial cells coated with bacteria. No white blood cells are seen. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient?
A. Metronidazole
B. Acyclovir
C. Doxycycline
D. Fluconazole
E. Azithromycin
118. A 35-year-old African-American marathon runner presents to the gynecologist complaining of secondary amenorrhea that developed three months ago. Her cycles are normally 28 days long, and her menses last three to five days with moderate flow. One year ago, the woman adopted a vigorous exercise regimen that lasted between three and five hours every day. Since then, her BMI has declined from 23.4 to 16.5. She has been winning many local races and is considering increasing the difficulty of her exercise regimen, but would like to address the issue of her amenorrhea first. Physical examination reveals a thin woman with well-defined musculature but is otherwise unremarkable. Pregnancy test is negative. What is the most likely etiology of her amenorrhea?
A. Kwashiorkor
B. Testosterone deficiency
C. Estrogen deficiency
D. Progesterone deficiency
E. Prolactin excess
119. A 23-year-old primigravid woman comes to your office for her first prenatal visit. She is working as an aerobics instructor and is concerned about the effect her exercise schedule might have on the pregnancy. She teaches 30 minutes daily in the morning and does not feel fatigued. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. Vital signs are normal and physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the best advice to give this patient?
A. "You need to reduce the duration of exercise time to 15 minutes per day"
B. "You need to reduce the intensity of exercise"
C. "You should continue your current aerobic exercise schedule"
D. "You may have prolonged labor during delivery"
E. "You can even intensify your training efforts if you want"
120. A 25-year-old primigravid woman at 37 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of severe uterine contractions and moderate vaginal bleeding. She has been followed for pre-eclampsia since her 32nd week of gestation. She is currently having intermittent bleeding. Ultrasonogram in the emergency department shows placental abruption and an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. Placenta previa is ruled out. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.7F), blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, pulse is 99/min and respirations are 20/min. Physical examination shows uterine tenderness and hyperactivity, increased uterine tone and vaginal bleeding. Her cervix is 1em dilated and 10% effaced at the time of admission. Fetal heart tracing shows a rate of 11 0/min, a long-term variability of 4 cycles/min and a beat-to-beat variability of 20/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Induction of labor
B. Emergency cesarean section
C. Scheduled cesarean section within next 48 hours
D. Tocolysis to prevent the abruption from evolving
E. Conservative management in hospital
121. A 27-year old woman comes to the physician for evaluation of infertility. She and her 31-year-old husband have not been able to conceive after 12 months of unprotected and frequent intercourse. She has regular 28-day menstrual cycles and during the menstrual cycles she develops mild pelvic pain and bilateral breast tenderness. She has no pain during sexual intercourse. Her blood pressure is 128/76 mm Hg and pulse is 82/min. Physical examination is completely unremarkable. Which of the following could most likely be abnormal in this patient?
A. Serum prolactin level
B. Hysterosalpingogram
C. Mid luteal serum progesterone level
D. Serum testosterone level
E. Serum inhibin B level
122. A 22-year-old woman comes to your office at 10 weeks gestation for her first prenatal visit. Her obstetrical history is significant for a spontaneous abortion at 12 weeks gestation one year ago. She states that her mother has hypothyroidism, and she asks you to order thyroid function tests for her. She denies any symptoms, and her physical examination is unremarkable. Ultrasound reveals an intrauterine gestation with normal fetal cardiac activity. Which of the following results is most likely to be expected in this patient?
A Normal total T4, normal TSH
B. Decreased free T4, decreased TSH
C. Increased total T4, normal TSH
D. Increased free T4, decreased TSH
E. Decreased total T4, increased TSH
123. A 24-year-old primigravid woman at 10 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding. She has colicky pain in the suprapubic region radiating to the back. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.7F), blood pressure is 110/76 mmHg, pulse is 84/min and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination shows a dilated cervix and products of conception are seen through it. Blood for grouping and typing is sent. The patient is treated appropriately, and all products of conception are evacuated. She is stabilized and transferred to the ward. Laboratory studies there show: Hematocrit: 33% WBC: 6,000/mm3 Blood type: AB; Rh negative Antibody titer: 1:4 Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Monitor coagulation profile
B. Administer RhoGAM
C. Obtain karyotyping of the mother
D. Screening for TORCH infections
E. Order anti-nuclear antibodies
124. A 7-year-old girl is seen in your office after her mother began to notice significant changes in her physical appearance. The mother says that she first noticed the development of her daughter's breasts, and she became more worried when her daughter developed both axillary and pubic hair. The patient's grandmother told the mother not to worry because two of the patient's aunts entered puberty at an early age. The patient has not had any behavioral changes or a decline in her school performance, and she denies headaches, visual changes, or vomiting. Physical examination reveals the presence of axillary hair, pubic hair at Tanner stage 3, and breast development at Tanner stage 4. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. GnRH stimulation test results in an increase of LH. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
A. Reassurance
B. Cyproterone acetate
C. Danazol therapy
D. GnRH agonist therapy
E. Medroxyprogesterone acetate therap
125. A 38-year-old Caucasian female presents to the office complaining of lethargy, weight gain and fatigue. She denies headaches, pruritus or urine discoloration. She just gave birth 2 months ago via vaginal delivery; her baby is in good health and receives formula nutrition. Her delivery was complicated by vaginal bleeding that required blood transfusion, and postpartum endometritis that rapidly responded to antibiotics. She has not had any menstrual periods following delivery. Physical examination shows sparse pubic hair, dry skin and delayed tendon reflexes. Urinalysis shows no glucose or ketones. Which of the following is most likely to be responsible for this patient's condition?
A. Infiltrative disorder
B. Autoimmune tissue destruction
C. Lschemic necrosis
D. Drug effect
E. Neoplasia
126. A 37-year-old woman comes to the physician because of intermenstrual bleeding and heavy menses. Her other medical problems include hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and hyperlipidemia. Her blood pressure is 144/86 mm Hg. Her BMI is 40 kg/m2. Physical examination shows no obvious abnormalities. Endometrial biopsy shows "complex hyperplasia without atypia." She has three young healthy children and does not want more children in the future. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Hysterectomy
B. Cyclic progestins
C. Low dose oral contraceptives
D. Estrogen replacement
E. Endometrial ablation
127. A 24-year-old gravida 2, para 1, African American woman at 12 weeks gestation comes for her first prenatal visit. Except for early morning mild headaches and nausea she has no other symptoms. Physical examination shows mild bilateral ankle edema. Blood pressure is measured twice 15 minutes apart and is 150/96 mmHg on both occasions. Blood is drawn for laboratory tests and the patient is sent home with a follow-up appointment 3 days later. She returns 3 days later and repeat blood pressure is the same. Laboratory studies show: Urinalysis: Protein: negative Blood: negative Glucose: negative Ketones: negative Leukocyte esterase: negative Nitrites: negative WBC:1-2/hpf RBC: 1-2/hpf Chemistry panel Serum sodium: 150 mEq/L Serum potassium: 2.5 mEq/L Chloride: 100 mEq/L Bicarbonate: 23 mEq/L Blood urea nitrogen (BUN): 14 mg/dL Serum creatinine: 0.8 mg/dL Ultrasonogram reveals intrauterine gestation consistent with dates; no abnormalities noted. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Preeclampsia
B. Chronic hypertension
C. Molar pregnancy
D. Transient hypertension of pregnancy
E. Normal pregnancy
128. An 18-year-old woman arrives in your clinic with primary amenorrhea, sexual infantilism, and clitoromegaly. She has a history of ambiguous external genitalia noted at birth. Reviewing her records, you see that laparotomy performed at 17 months of age revealed normal internal female genitalia and ovarian biopsy performed at that time revealed normal-appearing primordial follicles. Laboratory studies today reveal a normal female karyotype and high serum testosterone and androstenedione concentrations. Estradiol and estrone are undetectable in the serum. Serum FSH and LH concentrations are high. Pelvic imaging shows multiple ovarian cysts. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
B. Aromatase deficiency
C. McCune-Albright syndrome
E. Galactosemia
D. Kallmann's syndrome
129. A 32-year-old woman, gravida 1, is in active labor. Lumbar epidural anesthesia is being used for pain control. She is having contractions every two to three minutes. The cervix is 4 cm dilated. Fetal heart rate is reassuring. Her blood pressure is 90/55 mmHg and heart rate is 120/min. What is the most probable cause of her hypotension?
A. Depressed myocardial contractility
B. Intravascular fluid loss
C. Blood venous pooling
D. Blood redistribution to the upper trunk
E. CNS involvement
130. A 29-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 37 weeks gestation was admitted to the hospital. Her previous pregnancy was uncomplicated and she delivered a 3,500 g (7.7lb) baby vaginally. The current pregnancy demonstrated a breech presentation at 30 weeks gestation. A repeat ultrasonogram now shows persistent frank breech presentation with an estimated fetal weight of 2,800 g (6 lb). No fetal or uterine abnormalities are noted. She has intact membranes. Examination shows a closed cervix. Fetal heart monitoring is reassuring. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Cesarean section
B. External cephalic version
C. Internal podalic version
D. Allow normal vaginal delivery
E. Apply forceps now
131. A 24-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 34 weeks' gestation comes for a routine prenatal visit Her dates were confirmed by first trimester ultrasonogram. She has no painful uterine contractions. Her previous pregnancy was uncomplicated and ended with a normal vaginal delivery. Her vitals are stable and fetal heart tones are reassuring. Physical examination shows a closed cervix, vertex is palpable at the fundus, and the presenting part is not engaged. Which of the following is the appropriate next step in management?
A. Routine follow-up
B. Attempt external cephalic version
C. Attempt internal cephalic version
D. Discuss cesarean section with the patient
E. Admit the patient and monitor closely
132. A 24-year-old African American female presents in the 35th week of an uncomplicated pregnancy with numbness and burning in her right palm. She says the sensation is so uncomfortable that it frequently makes it difficult to sleep Which of the following is the best initial treatment for this patient?
A. Indomethacin
B. Oral corticosteroids
C. Local corticosteroid injection
D. Wrist splinting
E. Decompression surgery
133. A 27-year-old female at 30 weeks gestation complains of difficulty hearing, especially on the right side. She denies any ear pain or discharge. Her pregnancy was complicated by acute pyelonephritis at 22 weeks gestation, which was treated with antibiotics. She does not smoke or consume alcohol, and she eats a balanced diet. She has no preexisting medical problems and takes no medications aside from a multivitamin. Her blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg and heart rate is 75/min. Cardiac and pulmonary examinations are unremarkable. No focal abnormalities are found on neurologic examination. When a tuning fork is placed on the right mastoid process, she appreciates the tone louder than when it is held near the external auditory meatus. Audiometry shows right low-frequency hearing loss. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's complaints?
A. Antibiotic treatment
B. Hypertension of pregnancy
C. Meniere's disease
D. Otosclerosis
E. Chronic otitis media
134. A 29-year-old woman presents for her first prenatal visit. She is 10 weeks pregnant as determined by her last menstrual period. She does not have any medical problems and does not take any medications. She is devoutly religious and has been in a monogamous relationship with her husband since getting married 5 years ago. They live in a house built in 1983 where she works as a homemaker. Her husband is an accountant. She does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcohol. Her physical exam is within normal limits. Which of the following screening tests is indicated at this time?
A. Rapid plasma reagin test
B. Hepatitis C antibody
C. Serum lead level
D. Red blood cell folic acid level
E. Chlamydia PCR
135. A 35-year-old female complains of nipple discharge. The discharge is from both breasts, brown in color and occurs intermittently. She has two children who are 5 and 8 years old. She has not been recently pregnant. Her last menstrual period was one week ago. She describes no other symptoms. Examination shows normal breasts without palpable lumps or nipple abnormalities. Brownish discharge is expressed from the nipples, and it is guaiac negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Mammogram
B. Ultrasonogram
C. Cytologic examination
D. Serum prolactin and TSH levels
E. Surgical evaluation
136. A 19-year-old primigravid woman at 34 weeks' gestation presents for a routine prenatal visit. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated to date. Her past medical history is unremarkable. She takes one multivitamin and one iron tablet daily. She has no known drug allergies. Physical examination shows a uterus consistent in size with 34 weeks gestational age. Routine clean-catch urine culture grows greater than 100,000 colonies/ml of Escherichia coli Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
A Amoxicillin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Clindamycin
D. Doxycycline
E. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
137. Five patients present for contraceptive counseling, each requesting that an IUD be inserted. Which of the following is a recognized contraindication to the insertion of an IUD?
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Previous pregnancy with an IUD
C. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
D. Cervical conization
E. Chorioamnionitis in previous pregnancy
138. A 30-year-old woman presents to your office for her well-woman examination and contraception. She has two prior vaginal deliveries without any complications. Her medical and surgical histories are negative. Her family history is significant for coronary heart disease in her father and breast cancer in her mother diagnosed at the age of 62 years. In addition to effective contraception, health benefits for women taking oral combination contraceptives include which of the following?
A. Decreased risk of lung cancer
B. Decreased incidence of benign breast disease
C. Decreased diastolic hypertension
D. Decreased risk of cervical cancer
E. Decreased incidence of thromboembolism
139. A couple presents to your office to discuss permanent sterilization. They have three children and are sure they do not want any more. You discuss the risk and benefits of surgical sterilization. Which of the following statements is true regarding surgical sterilizations?
A. They cannot be performed immediately postpartum.
B. They have become the second most common method of contraception for white couples between 20 and 40 years of age in the United States.
C. They can be considered effective immediately in females (bilateral tubal ligation).
D. They can be considered effective immediately in males (vasectomy).
E. Tubal ligation should be performed in the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle.
140. A couple presents to your office to discuss sterilization. They are very happy with their four children and do not want any more. You discuss with them the pros and cons of both female and male sterilization. The 34-yearold male undergoes a vasectomy. Which of the following is the most frequent immediate complication of this procedure?
A. Infection
B. Impotence
C. Hematoma
D. Spontaneous reanastomosis
E. Sperm granulomas
141. A 22-year-old woman is being followed by her family physician during her first pregnancy. She is currently at 28 weeks' gestation, feeling well, and gaining an appropriate amount of weight. She has not had sexual intercourse for the past 15 weeks. Her first prenatal exam was at 12 weeks' gestation, at which time her HIV, chlamydia, gonorrhea, Rh(D)-antibody, and urine cultures were negative. Her blood type is A negative. She does not know who the father of the child is but is excited to raise the child with the help of her mother. She is unable to recall or confirm her immunization status for a number of vaccines. Which of the following measures is warranted at this time?
A. MMR vaccination
B. Urine culture
C. Rh(D) antibody test
D. HIV antibody test
E. Pneumococcal vaccine
142. A 28-year-old woman presents to her obstetrician for her first prenatal visit. She is at 8 weeks' gestation as determined by her last menstrual period. She has no medical problems and takes no medications. She does not smoke cigarettes and stopped drinking alcohol when she decided to become pregnant. She has no history of illicit drug use and has never been diagnosed with a sexually transmitted disease. She has been in a monogamous relationship with her husband for the past one year. Her family history is unremarkable. Her BMI is 23 kg/m2. Her physical examination, including vital signs, is within normal limits. Which of the following preventive measures is warranted at this visit?
A. Influenza vaccine
B. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
C. Hepatitis C antibody testing
E. Fasting blood sugar
D. Chlamydia PCR
143. A 16-year-old girl presents for evaluation of acne, which has been getting progressively worse over the past 2 weeks. Her medical history is significant for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) for which she has been taking prednisone for a recent exacerbation. Hydroxychloroquine is her only other medicine. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs and her menstrual cycle is regular. On physical examination, her blood pressure is 110/76 mmHg and her pulse is 72/min. Her BMI is 22 kg/m2. Distributed over the face, arms and trunk are monomorphous erythematous papules. There are no open or closed comedones. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her acne?
A. Adolescent acne
B. Androgen abuse
C. Polycystic ovarian disease
D. Medication side effect
E. Systemic lupus erythematosus
144. A 34-year-old sexually active female comes to your office because of urinary frequency and dysuria for two days. She has had two such episodes in the past, each treated with oral antibiotics. Physical examination reveals suprapubic tenderness and her urinalysis is positive for nitrite, leukocyte esterase, many W BC, and a moderate amount of bacteria. Which of the following is the most common reason for the higher incidence of urinary tract infections in females than in males?
A. Closer proximity of the urethral meatus to the anus in females
B. Frequent use of spermicide and diaphragms in females
C. Shorter urethral length in females
D. Higher post-void urine residual in females
E. Hormonal fluctuation of females
145. A 16-year-old girl is brought to your office by her mother for evaluation of primary amenorrhea. Her older sister had her first period at age 13. Vitals signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows absence of breast development and external genitalia at Tanner stage 1. Examination shows no other abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Estrogen levels
B. Serum LH levels
C. Serum FSH levels
D. Karyotyping
E. GnRH stimulation test
146. You are asked to consult on a 31-year-old woman who is at 26 weeks’ gestation and who has had fever for 2 days. She states that she starting feeling fevers and chills approximately 3 days ago. These symptoms have worsened since that time and she has also experienced myalgias, back pain, malaise, and upper respiratory complaints. She was initially diagnosed with the flu, but her condition seems to be worsening. Her prenatal course has been otherwise uncomplicated. She has no past medical or surgical history. Her past obstetric history is significant for a normal spontaneous vaginal delivery 3 years ago. She takes no medications and is allergic to sulfa drugs. Her physical examination is significant for a temperature of 38.3 C (101.0 F) and mild abdominal tenderness. Her urine culture is negative. Her obstetrician performed an amniocentesis yesterday that demonstrated gram-positive rods. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
A. Clostridium difficile
B. Escherichia coli
C. Lactobacillus bulgaricus
D. Listeria monocytogenes
E. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
147. A 31-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a preoperative evaluation. She is undergoing an infertility workup and a laparoscopy is planned. She and her husband have been trying to have a child for the last 5 years, but have not had any success. Over that time period, this woman has suffered three miscarriages. Her past medical history is remarkable for anemia, a history of depression, and a deep venous thrombus suffered during her first pregnancy. Her review of systems reveals diffuse arthralgias, but is otherwise unremarkable. She is currently not taking any medications, though she does report having a drug reaction to prenatal vitamins. Early in pregnancy, she had a red facial rash across her face that spared her nasolabial folds. Physical examination today is unremarkable. Laboratory studies, with the exception of a prothrombin time elevated to two times greater than normal, are unremarkable. Which of the following studies will most likely explain this patient’s laboratory abnormality?
A. Assay for cardiolipin antibody
B. Blood smear with manual review
C. Screening for Factor V Leiden mutation
D. Ristocetin cofactor analysis
E. Serologic test for syphilis
148. A 30-year old woman has irregular menses. She reports that her last menstrual period (LMP) was 8 weeks ago. She has been experiencing vaginal spotting and left lower quadrant pain. She is afebrile. She has a normal size uterus and mild tenderness in the right lower quadrant with no rebound tenderness. A human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) beta-subunit level of 1400 mIU/ml is reported in her records from an obstetrics visit 2 days ago. Which of the following is the appropriate management?
A. Perform a pelvis ultrasound
B. Perform a culdocentesis
C. Repeat hCG measurement in 1 week
D. Repeat hCG measurement in 24 hours
E. Refer for diagnostic laparoscopy
149. You are asked to consult on a 23-year-old woman who is 18hours status-post cesarean delivery. She presented 20 hours ago, at 32 weeks’ gestation, with vaginal bleeding and contractions and a nonreassuring fetal heart rate tracing. She was rushed to the operating room for an emergent cesarean delivery. The placenta had a large retroplacental clot. The infant is in the neonatal intensive care unit. On examination, the patient has a temperature of 37.7 C (99.9 F), blood pressure of 110/60 mm Hg, pulse of 124/min, and respirations of 14/min. The patient has bleeding from her abdominal incision and her intravenous sites. Laboratory studies show: Hematocrit: 18% Leuckocytes: 16,000/mm3 Platelets: 62,000/mm3 Prothrombin time: 60sec Partial thromboplastin time: 100sec Appropriate management includes which of the following?
A. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
B. Heparin
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Penicillin
E. Terbutaline
150. A 27-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 0 (termination of pregnancy ´ 3) comes to your office for an annual examination. Over the past year she has been in good health except for recurrent upper respiratory tract infections. She smokes ½ pack of cigarettes per day. She has tried to stop smoking three times but is not ready to try again to stop now. She takes a combined oral contraceptive pill (OCP) with 35μg of estrogen in it. She takes no other medications and has no known drug allergies. Physical examination, including breast and pelvic exams, is significant for intermittent wheezes on chest auscultation. Regarding her birth control choice, which of the following is the most appropriate counseling?
A. Change to a combined OCP with 50-μg estrogen
B. Continue on the present OCP
C. Stop the OCP immediately
D. Stop the OCP over the next 2 years
E. Take a daily baby aspirin with the OCP
151. A 20-year-old female comes to the physician because she has never had a period. She has no medical problems, has never had surgery, and takes no medications. Examination shows that she is a tall female with long extremities. She has normal size breasts, although the areolas are pale. She has little axillary hair. Pelvic examination is significant for scant pubic hair and a short, blind-ended vaginal pouch. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. No intervention is necessary
B. Bilateral gonadectomy
C. Unilateral gonadectomy
D. Bilateral mastectomy
E. Unilateral mastectomy
152. A 54-year-old woman comes to the physician for an annual examination. She has no complaints. For the past year, she has been taking tamoxifen for the prevention of breast cancer. She was started on this drug after her physician determined her to be at high risk on the basis of her strong family history, nulliparity, and early age at menarche. She takes no other medications. Examination is within normal limits. Which of the following is this patient most likely to develop while taking tamoxifen?
A. Breast cancer
B. Elevated LDL cholesterol
C. Endometrial changes
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Osteoporosis
153. A 22-year-old woman comes to the physician for an annual examination. She has been sexually active since the age of 15 and has not had regular Pap smears or examinations. She is currently sexually active with multiple partners and intermittently uses condoms. She has no medical problems and takes no medications. Her examination is unremarkable. Her Pap smear is described as satisfactory but limited by the absence of endocervical cells. It is otherwise within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Repeat the Pap smear in 1 year
B. Repeat the endocervical portion of the Pap test as soon as possible
C. Perform colposcopy with colposcopically directed biopsies
D. Perform laparoscopy with laparoscopically directed biopsies
E. Perform exploratory laparotomy
154. A 24-year-old woman comes to the physician because of right lower quadrant abdominal pain. She has had the pain off and on for the past month, but it is now increasing. She has no other symptoms and no medical problems. Examination reveals a mildly tender, right adnexal mass. Pelvic ultrasound shows a 7 cm right adnexal complex cyst. Urine hCG is negative. The patient is taken to the operating room for laparotomy and right ovarian cystectomy. Microscopically the cyst has cartilage, adipose tissue, intestinal glands, hair, and a calcification that appears to be a tooth. There is also a large amount of thyroid tissue. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Corpus luteum
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Gastric carcinoma
D. Struma ovarii
E. Thyroid carcinoma
155. A 60-year-old woman comes to the physician for an annual examination. She has no complaints. She had her last menstrual period at age 55 and has had no vaginal bleeding since. She has no medical problems and has never had surgery. She takes no medications and has no allergies to medications. The physical examination is unremarkable. She is concerned about cancer and wants to know which type is the major cause of cancer death in women. Which of the following is the correct response?
A. Breast cancer
B. Cervical cancer
C. Endometrial cancer
D. Lung cancer
E. Ovarian cancer
156. A 19-year-old female comes to the physician because of left lower quadrant pain for 2 months. She states that she first noticed the pain 2 months ago but now it seems to be growing worse. She has had no changes in bowel or bladder function. She has no fevers or chills and no nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The pain is intermittent and sometimes feels like a dull pressure. Pelvic examination is significant for a left adnexal mass that is mildly tender. Urine hCG is negative. Pelvic ultrasound shows a 6 cm complex left adnexal mass with features consistent with a benign cystic teratoma (dermoid). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Repeat pelvic examination in 1 year
B. Repeat pelvic ultrasound in 6 weeks
C. Prescribe the oral contraceptive pill
D. Perform hysteroscopy
E. Perform laparotomy
157. A 32-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 37 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She has no current complaints. Her past medical history is significant for hepatitis C infection, which she acquired through a needle stick injury at work as a nurse. She is hepatitis B and HIV negative. She takes no medications and has no allergies to medications. Her prenatal course has been uncomplicated. She wants to know whether she can have contact with the baby or breast-feed given her hepatitis C status. Which of the following is the correct response?
A. There is no evidence that breast-feeding increases HCV transmission
B. There is strong evidence that breast-feeding increases HCV transmission
C. Complete isolation is not needed but breast-feeding is prohibited
D. The patient should be completely isolated from the baby
E. Casual contact with the baby is prohibited
158. A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 22 weeks' gestation comes to the physician with complaints of burning with urination and frequent urination. Her prenatal course has been uncomplicated except for a urinary tract infection (UTI) with E. Coli at 12 weeks' gestation, which was treated at that time. Physical examination is unremarkable. Urine culture demonstrates greater than 100,000 colony-forming units per milliliter of E. coli. After treating this patient for her current infection, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. No further treatment or diagnostic study is necessary
B. Prophylactic antibiotics for the remainder of the pregnancy
C. Intravenous antibiotics for the remainder of the pregnancy
D. Intravenous pyelogram
E. Abdominal CT Scan
159. A 22-year-old woman in labor progresses to 7 cm dilation, and then has no further progress. She therefore undergoes a primary cesarean section. Examination 2 days after the section shows a temperature of 39.1 C (102.4 F), blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg, pulse of 90/min, and respirations of 14/min. Lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Her abdomen is moderately tender. The incision is clean, dry, and intact, with no evidence of erythema. Pelvic examination demonstrates uterine tenderness. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
A. Ampicillin
B. Ampicillin-gentamicin
C. Clindamycin-gentamicin
D. Clindamycin-metronidazole
E. Metronidazole
160. A 64-year-old woman undergoes a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo- oophorectomy for uterine prolapse. On postoperative day 1, a complete blood count shows the following: Leukocytes.......5500/mm3 Hematocrit.......36% Platelets...........245,000/mm3 By postoperative day 2, the patient is alert and able to ambulate without difficulty. She has no complaints. She has not taken in nutrition orally but is receiving IV fluids. She is voiding without difficulty and has passed flatus. Her temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 124/72 mm Hg, pulse is 86/min, and respirations are 12/min. Examination shows her abdomen to be soft, nontender, and non-distended. The incision is clean, dry, and intact. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is a reason for keeping this patient hospitalized for a longer period of time?
A. Absent oral intake
B. Evidence of infection
C. Hematocrit
D. Urinary tract function
E. Vital signs
161. A 39-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 40 weeks' gestation comes to the labor and delivery ward after a gush of fluid with regular, painful contractions every two minutes. She is found to have rupture of the membranes and to have a cervix that is 5 centimeters dilated, a fetus in vertex presentation, and a reassuring fetal heart rate tracing. She is admitted to the labor and delivery ward. Two hours later she states that she feels hot and sweaty. Temperature is 38.3 C (101 F). She has mild uterine tenderness. Her cervix is now 8 centimeters dilated and the fetal heart tracing is reassuring. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
A. Administer antibiotics to the mother after vaginal delivery
B. Administer antibiotics to the mother now and allow vaginal delivery
C. Perform cesarean delivery
D. Perform cesarean delivery and then administer antibiotics to the mother
E. Perform intra-amniotic injection of antibiotics
162. A 43-year-old primigravid woman at 10 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She is feeling well except for some occasional nausea. She has had no bleeding from the vagina, abdominal pain, dysuria, frequency, or urgency. She has asthma for which she occasionally uses an inhaler. Examination is normal for a woman at 10 weeks gestation. Urine dipstick is positive for nitrites and leukocyte esterase and a urine culture shows 50,000 colony forming units per milliliter of Escherichia coli. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Wait to see if symptoms develop
B. Resend another urine culture
C. Obtain a renal ultrasound
D. Treat with oral antibiotics
E. Admit for intravenous antibiotics
163. A 29-year-old primigravid woman at 34 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. At 28 weeks, she failed her 50-g, 1-hour oral glucose-loading test. She also failed her follow-up 100-g, 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test, with a normal fasting glucose, but abnormal 1, 2, and 3-hour values. Over the past several weeks, she has maintained good control of her fasting and 2-hour postprandial glucose levels by adhering to the diet recommendations of her physician. She asks the physician what effect her type of diabetes can have on her or her fetus. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
A. Gestational diabetes is associated with fetal anomalies
B. Gestational diabetes is associated with intrauterine growth restriction
C. Gestational diabetes is associated with macrosomia
D. Gestational diabetes is not associated with future diabetes
E. Gestational diabetes with normal fasting glucose is associated with stillbirth
164. A 36-year-old primigravid woman at 36 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She is experiencing good fetal movement and has had no loss of fluid, bleeding from the vagina, or contractions. She has no complaints. Her past medical history is significant for mitral stenosis, which she developed after an episode of rheumatic fever as a child. She also has asthma for which she uses an albuterol inhaler daily. She has herpes outbreaks approximately once a year. At her last visit she was found to be positive for Group B Streptococcus colonization. For which of the following disease processes would this patient benefit by having a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery at the time of delivery?
A. Asthma
B. Group B Streptococcus (GBS) colonization
C. Herpes
D. Mitral stenosis
E. This patient would not benefit from a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery
165. A 32-year-old, HIV-positive, primigravid woman comes to the physician for a prenatal visit at 30 weeks. Her prenatal course has been notable for her use of zidovudine (ZDV) during the pregnancy. Her viral load has remained greater than 1000 copies per milliliter of plasma throughout the pregnancy. She has no other medical problems and has never had surgery. Examination is appropriate for a 30-week gestation. She wishes to do everything possible to prevent the transmission of HIV to her baby. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Offer elective cesarean section after amniocentesis to determine lung maturity
B. Offer elective cesarean section at 38 weeks
C. Offer elective cesarean section at 34 weeks
D. Recommend forceps-assisted vaginal delivery
E. Recommend vaginal delivery
166. A 14-year-old girl comes to the office for a health maintenance evaluation. She is concerned that she has not yet started her menstrual cycle. Her height has increased by 3 inches since her last visit 1 year ago, and her weight is up by 10 pounds. On physical examination, the physician notes a general enlargement of her breasts and areola. Examination of her genital area reveals pubic hair that is coarse and dark and extends past the medial border of the labia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Constitutional delay
B. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
C. Dysmenorrhea
D. Primary amenorrhea
E. Secondary amenorrhea
167. During a routine return OB visit, an 18-year-old G1P0 patient at 23 weeks gestational age undergoes a urinalysis. The dipstick done by the nurse indicates the presence of trace glucosuria. All other parameters of the urine test are normal. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of the increased sugar detected in the urine?
A. The patient has diabetes.
B. The patient has a urine infection
C. The patient’s urinalysis is consistent with normal pregnancy
D. The patient’s urine sample is contaminated.
E. The patient has kidney disease.
168. A 29-year-old G1P0 patient at 24 weeks gestational age presents to your office complaining of some shortness of breath that is more intense with exertion. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medication. The patient denies any chest pain. She is concerned because she has always been very athletic and cannot maintain the same degree of exercise that she was accustomed to prior to becoming pregnant. On physical examination, her pulse is 72 beats per minute. Her blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. Cardiac examination is normal. The lungs are clear to auscultation and percussion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to pursue in the workup of this patient?
A. Refer the patient for a ventilation-perfusion scan to rule out a pulmonary embolism
B. Perform an arterial blood gas
C. Refer the patient to a cardiologist
D. Reassure the patient
E. Order an ECG
169. The shortest distance between the sacral promontory and the symphysis pubis is called which of the following?
A. Interspinous diameter
B. True conjugate
C. Diagonal conjugate
D. Obstetric (OB) conjugate
E. Biparietal diameter
170. A patient presents in labor at term. Clinical pelvimetry is performed. She has an oval-shaped pelvis with the anteroposterior diameter at the pelvic inlet greater than the transverse diameter. The baby is occiput posterior. The patient most likely has what kind of pelvis?
A. A gynecoid pelvis
B. An android pelvis
C. An anthropoid pelvis
D. A platypelloid pelvis
E. An androgenous pelvis
171. On pelvic examination of a patient in labor at 34 weeks, the patient is noted to be 6 cm dilated, completely effaced with the fetal nose and mouth palpable. The chin is pointing toward the maternal left hip. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Transverse lie
B. Mentum transverse position
D. Brow presentation
E. Vertex presentation
C. Occiput transverse position
172. A 24-year-old female comes to the physician because of increasing facial acne and recent menstrual irregularities. She has no significant past medical history and she takes no medications. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. She weighs 170lb (77 Kg) and is 62 in (155 cm) tall. Physical examination shows moderate acne on her face and prominent hair on the upper lip. For which of the following conditions is she at greater risk than the general population?
A. Ovarian cancer
B. Vaginal cancer
C. Endometriosis
D. Endometrial carcinoma
D. Endometrial carcinoma@ E. Adrenal carcinoma
Other
Please Specify:
173. A 54-year-old female comes to the physician because of involuntary loss of urine. She states "Doc, whenever I laugh, cough, or sneeze, I am unable to hold my urine. I am afraid to leave the house." She has no involuntary loss of urine while sleeping. She had a hysterectomy four years ago. She has had no trauma to her head or back. She has no other medical problems and takes no medications. Physical examination shows a relaxed anterior vaginal wall. Neurological examination shows no abnormalities. A cotton-tipped swab test reveals a urethral straining angle of 45 degrees when intra-abdominal pressure is increased. Urinalysis shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is most beneficial long-term management for this patient?
A. Oxybutynin therapy
B. Bethanechol
C. Alpha blockers
D. Oral hormone replacement therapy
E. Urethropexy
174. A 34-year-old primigravida develops severe postpartum bleeding requiring aggressive volume resuscitation and transfusion of 5 units of packed red blood cells. Her pregnancy was complicated by mild hypertension and trace proteinuria that was treated with low-dose methyldopa. Her mother suffered from premature menopause and severe osteoporosis. Seven days after giving birth, she has failed to lactate. Her urinalysis is insignificant and her blood pressure has ranged from 95 to110 mmHg systolic and 69 to 75 mmHg diastolic. Fundoscopy shows no retinal changes. Which of the following is most likely deficient in this patient?
A. lnhibin
B. Progesterone
C. Aldosterone
D. Prolactin
E. Oxytocin
175. A 27-year-old primigravid woman at 10 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding and cramping lower abdominal pain. She continues to have cramping in the ER. Her temperature is 37.0° C (98.7° F), blood pressure is 100/76 mmHg, pulse is 84/min and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination shov1s an effaced and dilated cervix. Gestational tissue is visualized through the internal cervical os. Bimanual examination shows the uterus is soft and enlarged, and vaginal bleeding is seen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Inevitable abortion
B. Threatened abortion
C. Molar pregnancy
D. Complete abortion
E. Missed abortion
176. A 24-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 26 weeks' gestation comes to the physician complaining of aching and swelling in both legs. The aching of her legs is worst at night. She has no shortness of breath or chest pain. She has no past medical history. Her temperature is 36.9° C (98.2° F), blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and pulse is 78/min. Physical examination shows symmetrical pitting edema of both calves with no tenderness of either calf. Urinalysis shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Doppler ultrasonogram of both lower extremities
B. Admit for monitoring of her condition
C. Start low molecular weight heparin
D. Reassurance and routine follow-up
E. Order echocardiogram and serum albumin levels
177. A 28-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 0, aborta 1, at 30 weeks' gestation comes to the physician because of a decrease in fetal movements. She has felt no fetal movements the past 18-hours. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests, and fetal growth have been normal up to this point. Triple test was performed at 14-weeks and showed no abnormalities. Her first pregnancy was terminated because her fetus was diagnosed with Down's syndrome. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. Fetal heart tones are heard by Doppler. Non-stress test is non-reactive; therefore, biophysical profile is performed and shows a score of 8. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Reassurance and repeat biophysical profile in one week
B. Perform contraction stress test
C. Give steroids and repeat biophysical profile within 24h
D. Advise continuous home fetal monitoring
E. Deliver the baby immediately
178. A 24-year-old primigravid woman at 10 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding. She has colicky pain in the suprapubic region radiating to her back. Her temperature is 37.0° C (98.7° F), blood pressure is 110/76 mm Hg, pulse is 84/min, and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination shows a dilated cervix and the products of conception are seen through it. Blood is sent to the laboratory for type and antibody screen. The patient is treated with dilation and curettage and all products of conception are evacuated. She is stabilized and transferred to the ward. Her laboratory results are as follows: Hematocrit: 32% Leukocyte count: 8,000 cells/µL Blood type: AB; Rh-negative Anti-Rh antibody titer: 1:4 Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Monitor coagulation profile
B. Administer anti-D immune globulin
C. Obtain karyotyping of the mother
D. Screening for TORCH infections
E. Order anti-nuclear antibodies
F. No further workup or therapy
179. A 30-year-old G2P2 woman comes to the physician with fatigue, mood swings, irritability, breast tenderness, abdominal bloating, and headaches that occur monthly. The symptoms are worse just before her menses and resolve by the third day of her menstrual cycle. The symptoms interfere with her daily activities, including her proficiency at work. The patient's only current medication is a multivitamin. She uses spermicidal foam and condoms for birth control. Her menses are regular. Her sister was diagnosed with hypothyroidism and takes levothyroxine. Examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
A. Menopausal transition
B. Migraine
C. Normal menstrual cycle
D. Premenstrual syndrome
E. Somatization
180. A 29-year-old woman presents for a routine prenatal visit She is 24 weeks pregnant by last menstrual period and ultrasound. She does not have any medical problems and does not take any medications. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. She works as a financial advisor in a local firm. She and her husband have been monogamous since getting married 5 years ago. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. At the end of the visit she tells you that her newborn niece recently had a group B streptococcal infection and she is afraid that her child might develop the same. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
A. Your niece would not have developed the infection if the obstetrician had followed the standard of care.
B. You do not have any risk factors of harboring or transmitting that infection to your child.
C. Only a small percentage of unfortunate children develop this infection. Most children will be fine.
D. I understand your concern. Let me take vaginal and rectal swabs for culture now.
E. I understand your concern. I will test for the infection 2 to 3 weeks prior to the expected date of delivery.
181. A 28-year-old nulliparous woman is being evaluated for infertility. She has no other medical problems. Pelvic examination reveals abundant mucus and a clear cervical secretion, which when lifted vertically extends in a long thread; pH is 6.5. This visit took place at which of the following phases of the menstrual cycle?
A. Early follicular phase
B. Ovulatory phase
C. Mid luteal phase
D. Late luteal phase
E. The secretion is abnormal
182. A 32-year-old, gravida 3, para 2 woman at 35 weeks gestation comes to the hospital because of regular and painful uterine contractions occurring every 5 - 6 minutes. She also has continuous leakage of clear fluid from her vagina that started 10 hours earlier. She has chronic hypertension and was prescribed methyldopa throughout pregnancy but has been noncompliant. She also has a history of drug abuse and has missed two previous antenatal appointments. Her temperature is 37.0° C (98.7° F), blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg, pulse is 80/min and respirations are 16/min. Sterile speculum examination shows pooling of amniotic fluid in the vagina; the cervix is 80% effaced and 3 cm dilated. Ultrasound shows a small for gestational age fetus in the vertex presentation with a decreased amniotic fluid index. Fetal heart monitoring shows repetitive late decelerations. Uterine contractions are now occurring every 4 minutes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Augmentation of labor
B. Tocolysis
C. Cesarean section
D. Betamethasone IM
E. Expectant management
183. The labor nurse calls you in your office regarding your patient who is 30 weeks pregnant and complaining of decreased fetal movement. The fetus is known to have a ventricular septal defect of the heart. The nurse has performed a nonstress test on the fetus. No contractions are seen. She thinks the tracing shows either a sinusoidal or saltatory fetal heart rate (FHR) pattern. Without actually reviewing the FHR tracing what can you tell the nurse?
A. The FHR tracing is probably not a sinusoidal FHR pattern because this pattern can be diagnosed only if the patient is in labor. tgdjkus
B. The FHR tracing is probably not a saltatory FHR pattern because this pattern is almost always seen during rather than before labor
C. The FHR tracing of the premature fetus should be analyzed by different criteria than tracings obtained at term.
D. Fetuses with congenital anomalies of the heart will invariably exhibit abnormal FHR patterns.
E. Neither sinusoidal nor saltatory fetal heart rate patterns are seen in premature fetuses because of the immaturity of their autonomic nervous systems.
184. You are counseling a 24-year-old woman who is a G2P1 at 36 weeks gestation. She delivered her first baby at 41 weeks gestation by cesarean section as a result of fetal distress that occurred during an induction of labor for mild preeclampsia. She would like to know if she can have a trial of labor with this pregnancy. Which of the following is the best response to this patient?
A. No, since she has never had a vaginal delivery.
B. Yes, but only if she had a low transverse cesarean section.
C. No, because once she has had a cesarean section she must deliver all of her subsequent children by cesarean section
D. Yes, but only if her uterine incision was made in the uterine fundus.
E. Yes, but only if she had a classical cesarean section.
185. A 32-year-old poorly controlled diabetic G2P1 is undergoing amniocentesis at 38 weeks for fetal lung maturity prior to having a repeat cesarean section. Which of the following laboratory tests results on the amniotic fluid would best indicate that the fetal lungs are mature?
A. Phosphatidylglycerol is absent
B. Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio of 1:1
C. Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio of 1.5:1
D. Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio of 2.0:1
E. Phosphatidylglycerol is present
186. A 24-year-old woman with chronic hypothyroidism presents to her gynecologist for her annual examination. She recently got married, and she and her husband would like to conceive. Her hypothyroidism is well controlled and stable on thyroxine, and she has no other medical conditions. She is healthy and does not smoke or drink alcohol. She would like to know if she should keep taking her thyroxine. Which of the following is the best advice to give this patient?
(A) “No, but we would want to keep your thyroid levels balanced for the sake of your baby, so you would be switched to methimazole”
(B) “No, thyroxine is generally accepted as safe during pregnancy, but if you are not comfortable taking it, there is no evidence that being hypothyroid will affect your baby”
(C) “No, thyroxine is not safe when taken during pregnancy; it is better for both you and your baby for you to be hypothyroid”
(D) “Yes, but we would likely decrease your thyroxine during pregnancy because pregnancy is accompanied by mild physiologic hyperthyroidism”
(E) “Yes, in fact we would likely need to increase your thyroxine during pregnancy to avoid hypothyroidism, which may adversely affect your baby”
187. A 32-year-old G3P3 woman is postoperative day 5 after an emergent cesarean section due to fetal distress. The patient progressed rapidly through passive labor without incident, but after her membranes were ruptured manually, a fetal scalp probe was placed in the active phase secondary to several runs of mid-late decelerations. Cesarean section was ultimately performed after 2 hours of active labor secondary to fetal distress. The patient presents now with a fever to 38.7°C (101.7°F) and uterine tenderness. Laboratory tests reveal a WBC count of 14,000/mm³, with 70% neutrophils and 4% bands. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
(A) Ampicillin and gentamicin
(B) Cefotaxime and levofloxacin
(C) Clindamycin and gentamicin
(D) Imipenem
(E) Metronidazole and doxycycline
188. A 32-year-old G3P3 woman presents to her obstetrician for help conceiving. She states her menstrual cycles have not been regular since the birth of her third child 3 years ago. Furthermore, although she readily became pregnant with her other three children, she has failed to become pregnant despite trying over the past 2 years. She has no significant past medical history and takes only prenatal vitamins. Although she says she has not been ill lately, she reports feeling “tired and cold all the time.” She also reports she has had trouble sleeping over the past several months. Her physical examination is normal. Laboratory tests show: WBC count: 9000/mm³ Hemoglobin: 8.0 g/dL Platelet count: 300,000/mm³ Hematocrit: 40% Thyroid-stimulating hormone level: 0.5μU/mL Free thyroxine: 2.0 ng/dL Luteinizing hormone: 0.5 mU/mL Follicle-stimulating hormone: 0.5 mU/mL Which of the following will this woman likely need to take to conceive?
(A) Clomiphene
(B) Levothyroxine
(C) Prednisone
(D) Progesterone
(E) Propylthiouracil
189. At a follow-up routine prenatal visit, the uterine fundus of a healthy 23-year-old pregnant woman is palpated halfway between her symphysis pubis and umbilicus. Which of the following is the most appropriate test to order at this stage of her pregnancy?
(A) serum human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) titer
(B) glucose tolerance test
(C) amniocentesis
(D) maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)
(E) cervical culture for group B Streptoccus (GBS)
190. A 64-year-old woman undergoes left radical mastectomy for breast cancer. A 4-cm infiltrating ductal carcinoma is found on pathologic examination. Four of 20 axillary lymph nodes are positive for malignancy. Neoplastic cells are immunoreactive for estrogen and progesterone receptors. No evidence of metastatic disease is found on bone scanning with 99mTc-labeled phosphate or chest x-ray films. The patient receives appropriate radiation therapy and multidrug chemotherapy. Which of the following is the most appropriate adjunctive therapy in this setting?
(A) Danazol
(B) Ethinyl estradiol
(C) Megestrol acetate
(E) Tamoxifen
(D) Oxytocin
192. A 32-year-old Caucasian primigravida presents to your office in her 30'" week of pregnancy. On review of systems, she complains of leg swelling and occasional heartburn. She denies abdominal pain or vaginal discharge. She eats a balanced diet and takes folic acid supplements. Her blood pressure is 165/100 mmHg and her heart rate is 90/min. Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?
A. Proteinuria
B. Ketonuria
C. Thrombocytosis
D. Splenomegaly
E. Fasting hyperglycemia
193. A 25-year-old woman in her 15th week of pregnancy presents with uterine bleeding and passage of a small amount of watery fluid and tissue. She is found to have a uterus that is much larger than estimated by her gestational dates. Her uterus is found to be filled with cystic, avascular, grapelike structures that do not penetrate the uterine wall. No fetal parts are found. Immunostaining for p57 was negative in the cytotrophoblasts and villi mesenchyme. Which of the following is the best diagnosis?
A. Partial hydatidiform mole
B. Complete hydatidiform mole
C. Invasive mole
D. Placental site trophoblastic tumor
E. Choriocarcinoma
194. A healthy, 32-year-old, primigravid woman at 12 weeks of gestation comes to the physician for a routine prenatal visit. She has no complaints. She does not use tobacco or alcohol. She has blood group O, Rh(O)+, and her husband has blood group AB, Rh(O)+. She is concerned about the risk of alloimmunization because her mother had that problem during her second pregnancy. Although the child will have a different blood group from the patient, alloimmunization is of little concern due to which of the following?
A. Immune response is depressed in pregnancy
B. ABO antigens are weakly antigenic
C. The mother is tolerant to the child's ABO antigens
E. Antibodies to ABO antigens are not hemolytic
D. Antibodies to ABO antigens cause mild disease in most newborns
195. A 76-year-old woman presents with complaints of severe vulvar itching for the past six months. She has tried over-the-counter topical lubricants without relief. Physical examination reveals numerous vulvar excoriations. The vulvar skin is thin, dry and white in color. The labia minora are difficult to visualize. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Vaginal Pap smear
B. Vulvar punch biopsy
C. Radical vulvectomy
D. Estrogen cream
E. Wet mount smear
196. A 32-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 30 weeks’ gestation comes to the hospital because of new onset painful, regular uterine contractions that began 5 hours ago. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. Her second pregnancy was complicated by preterm labor at 28 weeks’ gestation. She has no discharge, leakage of fluid or bleeding from the vagina; she has no dysuria or urgency. Her temperature is 37.0° C (98.7° F), blood pressure is 125/70 mmHg, pulse is 80/min and respirations are 18/min. Pelvic examination shows a soft, partially effaced and posterior cervix dilated to 2 cm. A Nitrazine test is negative. Non-stress test shows a reassuring fetal heart pattern and uterine contractions occurring every 7 minutes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Tocolysis
B. Amnioinfusion
C. Reassure and discharge home
D. Augment delivery
E. Cervical cerclage
197. A 20-year-old primigravid woman at 32 weeks gestation comes to the physician because of swelling in her hands and ankles. She has no headache, visual disturbances or epigastric pain. She has no previous medical problems. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. Her previous prenatal check-up at 28-weeks gestation was normal. Her medical records show no preexisting hypertension or proteinuria. Her blood pressure is 156/100 mmHg, and after 15 minutes of lateral rest, a repeat reading is 154/98mmHg. Physical examination shows 2+ pitting edema in both legs and hands. Deep tendon reflexes are normal. Fundoscopic examination shows no abnormalities. FetaI heart tones are audible by Doppler. Laboratory studies show: Hb: 13.0 g/dl Hct: 50% Platelets: 300,000/mm3 Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dl Urinalysis shows 1+ proteinuria, which is new. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Mild preeclampsia
B. Severe preeclampsia
C. Chronic hypertension
D. Transient hypertension of pregnancy
E. Eclampsia
198. A 17-year-old female comes to the physician's office for a routine physical examination. She has no complaints and has no previous medical problems. She has been having sex since the age of 14 and has had 3 sexual partners so far. Vital signs are stable and physical examination is unremarkable. Pap smear is performed and the report came back as "satisfactory for evaluation" and shows mild dysplasia (low grade intraepithelial lesion). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Repeat Pap smear in 2 weeks
B. Repeat Pap smear in 12 months
C. Reflex HPV testing
D. Colposcopy
E. Endometrial curettage
199. A 27-year-old primigravid woman at 28 weeks gestation comes to the physician's office because she has not felt any fetal movements for the past 48 hours. Her pregnancy thus far has been uncomplicated. Prenatal ultrasound at the 12th week of gestation showed an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates and showed no abnormalities. She has no history of trauma. She has no history of serious illness. Review of systems reveals no abnormalities. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. Fetal heart tones are not heard by Doppler. Vital signs are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Induction of labor
B. Non-stress test
C. Serial beta-hCG
D. Monitor coagulation profile
E. Real-time ultrasonogram
200. A 22-year-old woman presents with complaints of vaginal discharge and severe vulvar pruritus. She is otherwise healthy. Physical examination reveals a thin, malodorous vaginal discharge and marked vulvar and vaginal erythema. The pH of the vaginal discharge is 5.5. Microscopic examination of the discharge is most likely to reveal which of the following:
A. Pseudohyphae
B. Flagellated motile organisms
C. Clue cells
D. Multinucleated giant cells
E. Numerous eosinophils
201. A 57-year-old woman comes to the physician's office for evaluation of vaginal dryness, burning and dyspareunia. She also has dysuria and increased urinary frequency. The symptoms have been present for several months but have intensified recently. She has tried over-the-counter lubricants with little relief. Her last menstrual period was seven years ago. She takes hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension and pravastatin for hypercholesterolemia. Physical examination shows scarce pubic hair and reduced elasticity and turgor of the vulvar skin. Pale, dry and smooth vaginal epithelium is noted. Urine dipstick is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Ciprofloxacin for one w eek
B. Metronidazole for one w eek
C. Discontinue hydrochlorothiazide
D. Vaginal estrogen replacement
E. High-potency corticosteroid cream
202. A 33-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, comes for a routine prenatal visit. According to her history, she is at 18-weeks gestation. Her family history is significant for Down syndrome on her maternal side. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. Vital signs are normal, and physical examination is unremarkable. Initial laboratory studies show a decreased maternal serum alpha- fetoprotein (MSAFP). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Amniocentesis
B. Chorionic villus sampling
C. Ultrasonogram
D. Cordocentesis
E. Urinary estradiol levels
203. A 24-year-old woman presents to your office with a self-palpated breast lump. She discovered the mass 2 days ago while taking a shower and noted that it is mildly tender. Her menstrual periods are regular, occurring every 26 days. Her last menstrual period (LMP) was 3 weeks ago. Her past medical history is insignificant. She has no family history of breast cancer. Physical examination reveals a lump in the superior outer quadrant of the right breast without palpable lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most reasonable next step in the management of this patient?
A. Ask her to return shortly after the menstrual period
B. Order mammography
C. Proceed with fine needle aspiration biopsy
D. Suggest excisional biopsy
E. Reassure that the mass is benign and no follow-up is necessary
204. A 76-year-old woman presents with complaints of severe vulvar itching for the past six months. She has tried over-the-counter topical lubricants without relief. Physical examination reveals numerous vulvar excoriations. The vulvar skin is thin, dry and white in color. The labia minora are difficult to visualize. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Vaginal Pap smear
B. Vulvar punch biopsy
C. Radical vulvectomy
D. Estrogen cream
E. W et mount smear
191. A 23-year-old gravida 3, para 2 is admitted to the hospital at 31 weeks' gestation with painful uterine contractions. Her cervix is initially 3 cm dilated. Magnesium sulfate is started. Over the next 5 hours she progresses to full dilation. After a 1-hour second stage, she delivers a 2013-g (4- lb, 7-oz) newborn. In the neonatal intensive care unit, the infant develops respiratory distress and pneumonia. Over the following days the infant develops septicemia. Preliminary blood cultures demonstrate gram-positive cocci in chains. Treatment with which of the following would most likely have prevented this neonatal outcome?
(B) Gentamicin
(C) Naloxone
(D) Oxytocin
(E) Penicillin
205. A 30-year-old G2 P 1woman at 38 weeks gestation presents to the hospital complaining of regular and painful uterine contractions that started two hours earlier. Pelvic examination reveals bulging membranes, and her cervix is 50% effaced and dilated to 3 cm. Her pregnancy was complicated by first trimester hemorrhage of unknown cause. Her past medical history is unremarkable. After placing a fetal heart monitor and an external tocometer on the patient, you note 3 separate 15 beat/min decreases in the fetal heart rate not coinciding with uterine contractions, each lasting for 25 seconds. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Oxygen administration and change in maternal position
B. Artificial rupture of membranes
C. Amnioinfusion
D. Fetal scalp pH testing
E. Emergent cesarean section
206. A 15-year-old girl is being evaluated for primary amenorrhea. She is otherwise healthy and has no previous medical problems. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals normal breast development, normal pubic and axillary hair, and a blind vagina; the uterus and adnexae could not be appreciated. Pelvic ultrasonography reveals 2 ovaries and no uterus is seen. The karyotype is 46XX. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Mullerian agenesis
B. Androgen insensitivity
C. 5-alpha-reductase deficiency
D. Imperforate hymen
E. Turner's syndrome
207. A 24-year-old woman delivered a healthy baby by vaginal delivery at 36 weeks gestation. She had a prolonged premature rupture of the membranes, and mid forceps application was required during delivery. On the second postpartum day she complained of fever and chills. She cannot breast-feed because her "nipples are tender". Her temperature is 38.5C (101.3F), blood pressure is 120/55 mmHg and pulse is 92/min. Bimanual examination shows tender uterus and foul-smelling lochia. Her nipples are cracked but without surrounding erythema or warmth. Physical examination otherwise shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Normal postpartum
B. Puerperal mastitis
C. Endometritis
D. Deep venous thrombosis
E. Aspiration pneumonia
208. A 14-year-old female is brought to the physician's office for evaluation of excessive menstrual bleeding. She experienced menarche at age 13, and since then her menses have been irregular and unpredictable. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago and for the past week she has been having heavy menstrual bleeding. She has never been sexually active. Vital signs are stable. Her external genitalia are normal. She refused pelvic examination, and a pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
A. Bleeding disorder
B. Anovulation
C. Cervical polyp
D. Endometrial carcinoma
E. Uterine fibroids
209. A 26-year-old G1 P1 woman requests contraception after delivering a healthy baby three weeks ago. She is breastfeeding the child and plans to continue for at least six months. She does not want to get pregnant for at least one year. She has no medical problems and does not take any medication. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most preferred method of contraception you can advise for this patient?
A. Tubal ligation
B. Combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptives
C. Coitus interruptus
D. Progestin-only oral contraceptives
E. No contraception needed while nursing
210. A 20-year-old, G1 PO, woman at 35 weeks gestation comes to the hospital because of regular uterine contractions. She noticed a passage of clear fluid per vagina for the past 24 hours. She has no other symptoms. Her pregnancy thus far has been uncomplicated. Her temperature is 38.2° C (100.7° F), blood pressure is 120/68 mmHg, pulse is 110/min and respirations are 17/min. Speculum examination shows a closed cervix and clear fluid pooling in the vaginal fornix. The pH of the fluid is 7.5. Fetal heart monitoring shows a rate of 165/min and uterine contractions occurring every 3-4 minutes. Initial laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin: 10.2 g/L Platelets: 198,000/mm3 Leukocyte count: 18,500/mm3 Neutrophils: 86% Lymphocytes: 14% Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Abruptio placenta
B. Lntraamniotic infection
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Trichomonas vaginitis
D. Trichomonas vaginitis
211. A Caucasian couple presents to your office for infertility evaluation. They are unable to conceive after 14 months of unprotected sex. The woman is 23 years of age. Her menstrual periods are regular, occurring every 26 days. She denies perimenstrual pain or pelvic discomfort. Her last menstrual period was six days ago. Her past medical history is insignificant, and bimanual examination is normal. The man is 27 years old, He is not taking any medications, Physical examination, including external genitals, is normal. What is the best next step in the management of this couple?
A. Serum progesterone level
B. Hysterosalpingography
C. Semen analysis
D. Serum prolactin level of the woman
E. Laparoscopy
212. A 37-year-old woman comes to the physician for evaluation of infertility. She and her 39-year- old husband have not been able to conceive after 13 months of unprotected and frequent intercourse. She has 28-day regular menstrual cycles. The patient had a pregnancy with her husband at age 31. She has no other genitourinary complaints such as menorrhagia, dyspareunia or pelvic pain. She has no previous history of sexually transmitted diseases or abdominal surgery. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. She is an aerobics instructor and teaches 230-minute classes daily. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg and pulse is 84/min. Her body mass index is 23 kg/m2. Complete physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her condition?
A. Adrenal hyperplasia
B. Decreased ovarian reserve
C. Intense exercise
D. Premature ovarian failure
E. Uterine leiomyomas
213. A 24-year-old, gravida 0, para 0 woman comes to the physician because of an 8-week history of amenorrhea. She is sexually active and uses oral contraceptive pills for contraception. Her only other complaints are moderate fatigue and a decline in mood. She denies headaches, visual disturbances, and gastrointestinal symptoms. She has no other medical problems. She socially drinks alcohol and does not use tobacco or illicit drugs. She denies stress at home or work. She walks 1-2 miles every day. Her BMI is 24 kg/m2. Visual field test is within normal limits. Examination shows no hirsutism. Breast examination reveals a white, milky secretion upon expression of both nipples. Pelvic examination reveals a uterus of normal size. Initial investigations reveal a negative serum β-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) level. According to these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Measure serum TSH level
B. Order hysterosalpingogram
C. Measure serum LH and FSH levels
D. Order MRI of the brain with pituitary focus
E. Measure serum testosterone level
214. A 22-year-old woman (G2POA1) is being followed by her family physician for pregnancy. She is currently at 28 weeks' gestation, feeling well, and gaining an appropriate amount of weight. She has not had sexual intercourse during her pregnancy. Her first prenatal exam at 12 weeks' gestation showed a negative HIV, Chlamydia, gonorrhea, and urine cultures. Her blood type is A negative and Rh (D) negative. She has not communicated with the father of the child during the pregnancy but is excited to raise the child with the help of her mother. She is unable to recall or confirm her immunization status for a number of vaccines. Which of the following measures is warranted at this time?
A. MMR vaccination
B. Urine culture
D. HIV antibody test
E. Pneumococcal vaccine
215. A 29-year-old woman presents for her first prenatal visit. She is 10 weeks pregnant as determined by her last menstrual period. She does not have any medical problems and does not take any medications. She is devoutly religious and has been in a monogamous relationship with her husband since getting married 5 years ago. They live in a house built in 1983 where she works as a homemaker. Her husband is an accountant. She does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcohol. Her physical exam is within normal limits. Which of the following screening tests is indicated at this time?
A. Rapid plasma reagin test
B. Hepatitis C antibody
C. Serum lead level
D. Red blood cell folic acid level
E. Chlamydia PCR
216. A 17-year-old teenage girl presents to your office with a 10-month history of lower abdominal pain that radiates to the upper thighs and back. The pain is colicky in nature and usually starts a few hours prior to menses, lasting 3-4 days. Menses have occurred at regular 28-day intervals over the past 2 years. She has no inter-menstrual bleeding. She became sexually active 6-months ago and does not use contraception. Physical examination shows healthy external genitalia and well-developed secondary sexual characteristics; the uterus is normal in size and freely mobile. Examination shows no other abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her pelvic pathology?
A. Ureteric stone
B. Pelvic infection
C. Abnormal myometrial growth
D. Increased prostaglandins
E. Ectopic endometrial implants
217. A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 37 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of acute onset intense uterine contractions and vaginal bleeding. She has been followed closely for pre-eclampsia since her 32nd week of gestation. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.7F), blood pressure is 140/86mmHg, pulse is 92/min and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination shows uterine tenderness and hyperactivity and moderate vaginal bleeding. Pelvic examination shows an effaced and 3cm dilated cervix. Ultrasonography shows a fundic placenta and a fetus in the cephalic position. Fetal heart tracing shows 140/min with good long-term and beat-to-beat variability. After initial resuscitation the bleeding is stopped Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Vaginal delivery with augmentation of labor, if necessary
B. Emergency cesarean section
C. Perform tocolysis and schedule cesarean section within 48 hours
D. Forceps delivery
E. Conservative management at home
218. A wealthy executive donates five million dollars for the prevention of intrauterine growth restriction in the local county. Spending this money on which of the following programs would prevent the greatest number of cases of fetal growth restriction (FGR) in the population?
A. Alcoholic anonymous
B. Smoking cessation
C. Malnutrition prevention
D. Hypertension control
E. Infection control
219. A 20-year-old, G1PO, woman at 35 weeks gestation comes to the hospital because of regular uterine contractions and passage of clear fluid per vagina. She has no other symptoms. Her pregnancy thus far has been uncomplicated. Her temperature is 38.2 C (100.7 F), blood pressure is 120/68 mmHg, pulse is 110/min and respirations are 17/min. Speculum examination shows a closed cervix and clear fluid pooling in the vaginal fornix. The pH of the fluid is 7.5. Fetal heart monitoring shows a rate of 165/min and uterine contractions occurring every 3-4 minutes. Initial laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 10.2 g/L Platelets 198,000/mm3 Leukocyte count 18,500/mm3 Neutrophils 86% Lymphocytes 14% Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Abruptio placenta
B. Lntraamniotic infection
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Trichomonas vaginitis
E. Normal labor
220. A 30-year-old African-American woman with type- 1 diabetes and hypertension comes to the physician's office after obtaining a positive result from a home pregnancy test. She takes insulin and enalapril. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. Her temperature is 37.2 C (99.0F), blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, pulse is 72/min, and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. Her BUN is 18 mg/dl and creatinine is 1.4 mg/dl. A repeat β-HCG test performed in the office confirms pregnancy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Stop enalapril and start furosemide
B. Continue enalapril and add methyldopa
C. Stop enalapril and start labetalol
D. Stop enalapril and start losartan
E. Continue current therapy
221. An 81-year-old woman presents to your office complaining that her uterus fell out 2 months ago. She has multiple medical problems, including chronic hypertension, congestive heart failure, and osteoporosis. She is limited to sitting in a wheelchair because of her health problems. Her fallen uterus causes significant pain. On physical examination, the patient is frail and requires assistance with getting on the examination table. She has complete procidentia of the uterus. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Reassurance
B. Placement of a pessary
C. Vaginal hysterectomy
D. Le Fort procedure
E. Anterior colporrhaphy
222. A 78-year-old woman with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, chronic hypertension, and history of myocardial infarction requiring angioplasty presents to your office for evaluation of something hanging out of her vagina. She had a hysterectomy for benign indications at age 48. For the past few months, she has been experiencing the sensation of pelvic pressure. Last month she felt a bulge at the vaginal opening. Two weeks ago something fell out of the vagina. On pelvic examination, the patient has total eversion of the vagina. There is a superficial ulceration at the vaginal apex. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
A. Biopsy of the vaginal ulceration
B. Schedule abdominal sacral colpopexy
C. Place a pessary
D. Prescribe oral estrogen
E. Prescribe topical vaginal estrogen cream
223. A 40-year-old G3P3 comes to your office for a routine annual GYN examination. She tells you that she gets up several times during the night to void. On further questioning, she admits to you that during the day she sometimes gets the urge to void, but sometimes cannot quite make it to the bathroom. She attributes this to getting older and is not extremely concerned, although she often wears a pad when she goes out in case she loses some urine. This patient is very healthy otherwise and does not take any medication on a regular basis. She still has regular, monthly menstrual periods. She has had three normal spontaneous vaginal deliveries of infants weighing between 7 and 8 lb. An office dipstick of her urine does not indicate any blood, bacteria, WBCs, or protein. Her urine culture is negative. Based on her office presentation and history, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Urinary stress incontinence
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Overflow incontinence
D. Bladder dyssynergia
E. Vesicovaginal fistula
224. A 38-year-old woman presents to your office complaining of urinary incontinence. Her symptoms are suggestive of urge incontinence. She admits to drinking several large glasses of iced tea and water on a daily basis because her mother always told her to drink lots of liquids to lower her risk of bladder infections. Urinalysis and urine culture are negative. After confirming the diagnosis with physical examination and office cystometrics, which of the following treatments should you recommend to the patient as the next step in the management of her problem?
A. Instruct her to start performing Kegel exercises.
B. Tell her to hold her urine for 6 hours at a time to enlarge her bladder capacity.
C. Instruct her to eliminate excess water and caffeine from her daily fluid intake.
D. Prescribe an anticholinergic.
E. Schedule cystoscopy.
225. A 45-year-old woman with previously documented urge incontinence continues to be symptomatic after following your advice for conservative self-treatment. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Prescribe Ditropan (oxybutynin chloride).
B. Prescribe Estrogen therapy.
C. Schedule a retropubic suspension of the bladder neck.
D. Refer her to a urologist for urethral dilation.
E. Schedule a voiding cystourethrogram.
225. A 45-year-old woman with previously documented urge incontinence continues to be symptomatic after following your advice for conservative self-treatment. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Prescribe Ditropan (oxybutynin chloride).
B. Prescribe Estrogen therapy.
C. Schedule a retropubic suspension of the bladder neck.
D. Refer her to a urologist for urethral dilation.
E. Schedule a voiding cystourethrogram.
226. An 18-year-old G0 comes to see you complaining of a 3-day history of urinary frequency, urgency, and dysuria. She panicked this morning when she noticed the presence of bright red blood in her urine. She also reports some midline lower abdominal discomfort. She had intercourse for the first time 5 days ago and reports that she used condoms. On physical examination, there are no lacerations of the external genitalia, there is no discharge from the cervix or in the vagina, and the cervix appears normal. Bimanual examination is normal except for mild suprapubic tenderness. There is no flank tenderness, and the patient’s temperature is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Chlamydia cervicitis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Acute cystitis
D. Acute appendicitis
E. Monilial vaginitis
226. An 18-year-old G0 comes to see you complaining of a 3-day history of urinary frequency, urgency, and dysuria. She panicked this morning when she noticed the presence of bright red blood in her urine. She also reports some midline lower abdominal discomfort. She had intercourse for the first time 5 days ago and reports that she used condoms. On physical examination, there are no lacerations of the external genitalia, there is no discharge from the cervix or in the vagina, and the cervix appears normal. Bimanual examination is normal except for mild suprapubic tenderness. There is no flank tenderness, and the patient’s temperature is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Chlamydia cervicitis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Acute cystitis
D. Acute appendicitis
E. Monilial vaginitis
227. A 28-year-old woman presents to your office with symptoms of a urinary tract infection. This is her second infection in 2 months. You treated the last infection with Bactrim DS for 3 days. Her symptoms never really improved. Now she has worsening lower abdominal discomfort, dysuria, and frequency. She has had no fever or flank pain. Physical examination shows only mild suprapubic tenderness. Which of the following is the best next step in the evaluation of this patient?
A. Urine culture
B. Intravenous pyelogram
C. Cystoscopy
D. Wet smear
E. CT scan of the abdomen with contrast
227. A 28-year-old woman presents to your office with symptoms of a urinary tract infection. This is her second infection in 2 months. You treated the last infection with Bactrim DS for 3 days. Her symptoms never really improved. Now she has worsening lower abdominal discomfort, dysuria, and frequency. She has had no fever or flank pain. Physical examination shows only mild suprapubic tenderness. Which of the following is the best next step in the evaluation of this patient?
A. Urine culture
B. Intravenous pyelogram
C. Cystoscopy
D. Wet smear
E. CT scan of the abdomen with contrast
228. A 17-year-old teenage girl presents to your office with a 10-month history of lower abdominal pain that radiates to the upper thighs and back. The pain is colicky in nature and usually starts a few hours prior to menses, lasting 3-4 days. Menses have occurred at regular 28-day intervals over the past 2 years. She has no inter-menstrual bleeding. She became sexually active 6-months ago and does not use contraception. Physical examination shows healthy external genitalia and well-developed secondary sexual characteristics; the uterus is normal in size and freely mobile. Examination shows no other abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her pelvic pathology?
A. Ureteric stone
B. Pelvic infection
C. Abnormal myometrial growth
D. Increased prostaglandins
E. Ectopic endometrial implants
228. A 17-year-old teenage girl presents to your office with a 10-month history of lower abdominal pain that radiates to the upper thighs and back. The pain is colicky in nature and usually starts a few hours prior to menses, lasting 3-4 days. Menses have occurred at regular 28-day intervals over the past 2 years. She has no inter-menstrual bleeding. She became sexually active 6-months ago and does not use contraception. Physical examination shows healthy external genitalia and well-developed secondary sexual characteristics; the uterus is normal in size and freely mobile. Examination shows no other abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her pelvic pathology?
A. Ureteric stone
B. Pelvic infection
C. Abnormal myometrial growth
D. Increased prostaglandins
E. Ectopic endometrial implants
229. A 23-year-old G3POA2 female presents to your clinic at an estimated 12 weeks of gestational age. She is a new patient and has come to your clinic to seek an elective abortion. She has had two elective abortions in the past because of unplanned pregnancy. She has no past medical history and takes no medications. Her physical examination is within normal limits and a limited ultrasound examination was able to detect fetal heart tones. You and your partners have a strict policy against performing abortions because some members of the group object to the procedure. You decide it would be best to stick to this policy; however, the patient becomes angry and tells you that she will sue you if you do not perform the procedure. What is the best response to this patient?
A. "You can do what you want. I cannot do the abortion because of our group policy"
B. "If you wanted to have an abortion why did you not come earlier?"
C. "I don't think any physician will perform an abortion at this gestational age."
D. "I can refer you to another physician who will perform the procedure"
E. "If we keep doing abortions, then your uterus can get scarred and you may not be able to become pregnant again
229. A 23-year-old G3POA2 female presents to your clinic at an estimated 12 weeks of gestational age. She is a new patient and has come to your clinic to seek an elective abortion. She has had two elective abortions in the past because of unplanned pregnancy. She has no past medical history and takes no medications. Her physical examination is within normal limits and a limited ultrasound examination was able to detect fetal heart tones. You and your partners have a strict policy against performing abortions because some members of the group object to the procedure. You decide it would be best to stick to this policy; however, the patient becomes angry and tells you that she will sue you if you do not perform the procedure. What is the best response to this patient?
A. "You can do what you want. I cannot do the abortion because of our group policy"
B. "If you wanted to have an abortion why did you not come earlier?"
C. "I don't think any physician will perform an abortion at this gestational age."
D. "I can refer you to another physician who will perform the procedure"
E. "If we keep doing abortions, then your uterus can get scarred and you may not be able to become pregnant again
230. A 24-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 26 weeks' gestation comes to the physician complaining of aching and swelling in both legs. The aching of her legs is worst at night. She has no shortness of breath or chest pain. She has no past medical history. Her temperature is 36.9 C (98.2F), blood pressure is 11 0/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 78/min. Physical examination shows symmetrical pitting edema of both calves with no tenderness of either calf. Urinalysis shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Doppler ultrasonogram of both lower extremities
B. Admit for monitoring of her condition
C. Start low molecular w eight heparin
D. Reassurance and routine follow-up
E. Order echocardiogram and serum albumin levels
230. A 24-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 26 weeks' gestation comes to the physician complaining of aching and swelling in both legs. The aching of her legs is worst at night. She has no shortness of breath or chest pain. She has no past medical history. Her temperature is 36.9 C (98.2F), blood pressure is 11 0/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 78/min. Physical examination shows symmetrical pitting edema of both calves with no tenderness of either calf. Urinalysis shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Doppler ultrasonogram of both lower extremities
B. Admit for monitoring of her condition
C. Start low molecular w eight heparin
D. Reassurance and routine follow-up
E. Order echocardiogram and serum albumin levels
231. A 27-year-old female comes to the physician's office for evaluation of infertility. She has not been able to conceive for 12 months despite frequent intercourse. Her menses started at age 12 and have always been irregular. She uses over the counter acne medications. She is also obese and has been unsuccessful with weight loss. Physical examination shows an obese woman with sparse hair over the upper lip. There is no galactorrhea, thyromegaly or clitoromegaly. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for this patient's infertility?
A. Progesterone supplement
B. Clomiphene citrate
C. Dexamethasone
D. Dopamine agonist
E. In vitro fertilization
231. A 27-year-old female comes to the physician's office for evaluation of infertility. She has not been able to conceive for 12 months despite frequent intercourse. Her menses started at age 12 and have always been irregular. She uses over the counter acne medications. She is also obese and has been unsuccessful with weight loss. Physical examination shows an obese woman with sparse hair over the upper lip. There is no galactorrhea, thyromegaly or clitoromegaly. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for this patient's infertility?
A. Progesterone supplement
B. Clomiphene citrate
C. Dexamethasone
D. Dopamine agonist
E. In vitro fertilization
232. A 20-year-old, gravida 1, para 0, at 10 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of moderate vaginal bleeding. She has a colicky suprapubic pain radiating to the back and denies the passage of tissue through her introitus. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. She has no history of trauma or serious illness. Her temperature is 37.0C (98.7F), blood pressure is 100/65 mm of Hg, pulse is 90/min and respirations are 17/min. Physical examination shows a dilated cervix and the products of conception can be seen through it. Her blood type is AB Rh negative and her antibody titer is 1:2. Ultrasonogram shows a ruptured gestational sac with no fetal heart motion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Hospitalization, analgesics and observation
B. Reassurance, administration of RhoGAM and follow up
C. Serial beta-hCG monitoring
D. IV fluids, suction curettage and RhoGAM administration
E. Administration of a dilute infusion of oxytocin to induce labor
232. A 20-year-old, gravida 1, para 0, at 10 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of moderate vaginal bleeding. She has a colicky suprapubic pain radiating to the back and denies the passage of tissue through her introitus. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. She has no history of trauma or serious illness. Her temperature is 37.0C (98.7F), blood pressure is 100/65 mm of Hg, pulse is 90/min and respirations are 17/min. Physical examination shows a dilated cervix and the products of conception can be seen through it. Her blood type is AB Rh negative and her antibody titer is 1:2. Ultrasonogram shows a ruptured gestational sac with no fetal heart motion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Hospitalization, analgesics and observation
B. Reassurance, administration of RhoGAM and follow up
C. Serial beta-hCG monitoring
D. IV fluids, suction curettage and RhoGAM administration
E. Administration of a dilute infusion of oxytocin to induce labor
233. You have diagnosed a healthy, sexually active 24-year-old female patient with an uncomplicated acute urinary tract infection. Which of the following is the likely organism responsible for this patient’s infection?
A. Chlamydia
B. Pseudomonas
C. Klebsiella
D. Escherichia coli
E. Candida albicans
233. You have diagnosed a healthy, sexually active 24-year-old female patient with an uncomplicated acute urinary tract infection. Which of the following is the likely organism responsible for this patient’s infection?
A. Chlamydia
B. Pseudomonas
C. Klebsiella
D. Escherichia coli
E. Candida albicans
234. A 32-year-old woman presents to your office with dysuria, urinary frequency, and urinary urgency for 24 hours. She is healthy but is allergic to sulfa drugs. Urinalysis shows large blood, leukocytes, and nitrites in her urine. Which of the following medications is the best to treat this patient’s condition?
A. Dicloxacillin
B. Bactrim
C. Nitrofurantoin
D. Azithromycin
E. Flagyl
234. A 32-year-old woman presents to your office with dysuria, urinary frequency, and urinary urgency for 24 hours. She is healthy but is allergic to sulfa drugs. Urinalysis shows large blood, leukocytes, and nitrites in her urine. Which of the following medications is the best to treat this patient’s condition?
A. Dicloxacillin
B. Bactrim
C. Nitrofurantoin
D. Azithromycin
E. Flagyl
235. You are seeing a patient in the emergency room who complains of fever, chills, flank pain, and blood in her urine. She has had severe nausea and started vomiting after the fever developed. She was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection 3 days ago by her primary care physician. The patient never took the antibiotics that she was prescribed because her symptoms improved after she started drinking cranberry juice. The patient has a temperature of 38.8C (102F). She has severe right-sided CVA tenderness. She has severe suprapubic tenderness. Her clean-catch urinalysis shows a large amount of ketones, RBCs, WBCs, bacteria, and squamous cells. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Tell her to take the oral antibiotics that she was prescribed and give her a prescription of Phenergan rectal suppositories
B. Admit the patient for IV fluids and IV antibiotics
C. Admit the patient for diagnostic laparoscopy.
D. Admit the patient for an intravenous pyelogram and consultation with a urologist.
E. Arrange for a home health agency to go to the patient’s home to administer IV fluids and oral antibiotics
235. You are seeing a patient in the emergency room who complains of fever, chills, flank pain, and blood in her urine. She has had severe nausea and started vomiting after the fever developed. She was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection 3 days ago by her primary care physician. The patient never took the antibiotics that she was prescribed because her symptoms improved after she started drinking cranberry juice. The patient has a temperature of 38.8C (102F). She has severe right-sided CVA tenderness. She has severe suprapubic tenderness. Her clean-catch urinalysis shows a large amount of ketones, RBCs, WBCs, bacteria, and squamous cells. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Tell her to take the oral antibiotics that she was prescribed and give her a prescription of Phenergan rectal suppositories
B. Admit the patient for IV fluids and IV antibiotics
C. Admit the patient for diagnostic laparoscopy.
D. Admit the patient for an intravenous pyelogram and consultation with a urologist.
E. Arrange for a home health agency to go to the patient’s home to administer IV fluids and oral antibiotics
236. A 22-year-old woman has been seeing you for treatment of recurrent urinary tract infections over the past 6 months. She married 6 months ago and became sexually active at that time. She seems to become symptomatic shortly after having sexual intercourse. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient to help her with her problem?
A. Refer her to a urologist.
B. Schedule an IVP.
C. Prescribe prophylactic urinary antispasmodic.
D. Prescribe suppression with an antibiotic
E. Recommend use of condoms to prevent recurrence of the UTIs
237. A 23-year-old G1PO female presents for her first prenatal visit at 14 weeks gestation. A pap smear is done at that time and a high grade squamous intraepitheliallesions (HSIL) is seen at cytology. A test for HPV discloses the presence of a strain with high oncogenic risk. A satisfactory colposcopy is done and shows no site of abnormalities. At this time the next best step is:
A. Loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP)
B. Repeat pap smear 12 months
C. Termination of pregnancy
D. Repeat colposcopy after delivery
E. Endocervical curettage
238. A 28-year-old G3P2 woman at 32 weeks gestation comes to the physician because she has felt only 2 or 3 fetal movements in the past 12 hours. As in her previous pregnancies, she has gestational diabetes, which is under good control with diet and mild exercise. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination is unremarkable. Fetal heart tones are heard by Doppler. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A. Amniotic fluid index
B. Contraction stress test
C. Deliver the fetus immediately
D. Non-stress test
E. Ultrasound for fetal heart tones
239. An 18-year-old woman comes to your office because of abdominal pain. She states that the pain started yesterday afternoon and has been worsening. The pain is in the right lower quadrant and does not radiate. She rates it a 7 on a scale of 1 to 10. She has had some nausea but no vomiting. Nothing seems to improve or worsen the pain. She has a history of hypothyroidism for which she takes thyroid hormone replacement, and no other medical problems. She has never had surgery. She is allergic to penicillin. Physical examination is significant for right lower quadrant tenderness. Bimanual examination reveals right adnexal tenderness. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic workup of this patient?
A. Abdominal computed tomography (CT)
B. Abdominal x-ray
C. Appendiceal ultrasound
D. Pelvic ultrasound
E. Urine human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
240. A 17-year-old married girl comes to see you, complaining of “feeling tired all the time,” vomiting in the morning, and weight gain. Examination shows signs of pregnancy that is confirmed by laboratory studies. When informed of this, the girl is visibly distraught. “How could this happen?” she says, “I’ve been on the pill!” Mentioning that she and her husband live with her parents, she declares that she wants an immediate abortion. Which of the following is the best reply?
A. “Certainly, let’s schedule you for the procedure right now.”
B. “Have you considered discussing this with your husband first?”
C. “I want you to take time to think about things before you do anything rash.”
D. “Maybe you should talk this over with your parents before proceeding.”
E. “That’s one option, but I’d like to talk with you a bit before we schedule anything.”
241. A 32-year-old woman comes to the physician because of amenorrhea. She had menarche at age 13 and has had normal periods since then. However, her last menstrual period was 8 months ago. She also complains of an occasional milky nipple discharge. She has no medical problems and takes no medications. She is particularly concerned because she would like to become pregnant as soon as possible. Examination shows a whitish nipple discharge bilaterally, but the rest of the examination is unremarkable. Urine human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is negative. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is normal. Prolactin is elevated. Head MRI scan is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
A. Bromocriptine
B. Dicloxacillin
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Oral contraceptive pill (OCP)
E. Thyroxine
242. A 32-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 14 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She has some mild nausea, but otherwise no complaints. She has no significant medical problems and has never had surgery. She takes no medications and has no known drug allergies. She is concerned for two reasons. First, the "flu season" is coming, and she seems to get sick every year. Second, a child at her son's daycare center recently broke out with welts and was sent home. Which of the following vaccinations should this patient most likely be given?
A. Influenza
B. Measles
C. Mumps
D. Rubella
E. Varicella
243. A 35-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 39 weeks' gestation, comes to the labor and delivery ward with contractions. Past obstetric history is significant for two normal spontaneous vaginal deliveries at term. Examination shows the cervix to be 4 centimeters dilated and 50% effaced. The patient is contracting every 4 minutes. Over the next 2 hours the patient progresses to 5centimeters dilation. An epidural is placed. Artificial rupture of membranes is performed, demonstrating copious clear fluid. 2 hours later the patient is still at 5centimeters dilation and the contractions have spaced out to every 10 minutes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Expectant management
B. Intravenous oxytocin
C. Cesarean delivery
D. Forceps-assisted vaginal delivery
E. Vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery
244. A 26-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, comes to the physician for the first time for a prenatal checkup. She changed her physician and in the interim has missed two prenatal checkups. She states that she is at 7 months gestation. According to her prenatal records and an ultrasound performed at 16 weeks gestation, she is now at 30 weeks, but her fundal height is only 26cm (10.2 inches). Fetal heart tones are heard by Doppler. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. You suspect fetal growth restriction (FGR) and order a repeat ultrasonogram. Which of the following is the single most useful parameter for predicting fetal weight by ultrasonogram in suspected FGR?
A. Biparietal diameter
B. Abdominal circumference
C. Femur length
D. Head to abdomen circumference ratio
E. Calculated fetal weight
245. A 28-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 35 weeks gestation is rushed to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding. She was sleeping when she first noticed the bleeding. She has had no uterine contractions. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests and fetal growth have been normal. Prenatal ultrasound at the 14th week of gestation showed an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates and showed no abnormalities. Her previous pregnancies were uncomplicated. Her temperature is 37.0C (98.7F), blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, pulse is 11 6/min and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination shows cold extremities and bright red vaginal bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Emergency transvaginal ultrasonogram
B. Obtain blood for PT/INR and PTI
C. Obtain venous access with two large bore needles
D. Immediate vaginal examination
E. Immediate cesarean section
246. A 25-year-old G1PO woman at 39 weeks gestation by last menstrual period confirmed by first trimester ultrasound presents to the hospital with complaints of vulvar pain and a "bump" on her vulva. On examination you see clear vesicles and inguinal adenopathy. No cervical or vaginal lesions are present. She is 2cm dilated, 50% effaced and at-2 station. Fetal heart rate and contraction monitoring is started. She is contracting regularly. No abnormalities are seen. Which of the following is the most effective intervention to reduce neonatal morbidity in this patient?
A. Immediate cesarean section
B. Expectant management
C. Augmentation of labor with oxyto
D. Tocolysis with nifedipine
E. Antiviral treatment with acyclovir
247. A 54-year-old female comes to the physician because of involuntary loss of urine. She states "Doc, whenever I laugh, cough, or sneeze, I am unable to hold my urine. I am afraid to leave the house." She has no involuntary loss of urine while sleeping. She had a hysterectomy four years ago. She has had no trauma to her head or back. She has no other medical problems and takes no medications. Physical examination shows a relaxed anterior vaginal wall. Neurological examination shows no abnormalities. A cotton-tipped swab test reveals a urethral straining angle of 45 degrees when intra-abdominal pressure is increased. Urinalysis shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is most beneficial long-term management for this patient?
A Oxybutynin therapy
B. Bethanechol
C. Alpha blockers
D. Oral hormone replacement therapy
E. Urethropexy
248. A 16-year-old female comes to the emergency department because of heavy vaginal bleeding. She has no pain. Since menarche, menses have been irregular. She has a steady boyfriend and uses condoms for contraception. She has no other medical problems. She does not use alcohol, tobacco, or drugs. Her temperature is 37° C (99° F), blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination shows active vaginal bleeding. Pregnancy test is negative. Coagulation studies are within normal limits. Ultrasound shows no abnormalities. Her hemoglobin is 9.8 g/dl and hematocrit is 29%. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Emergency dilatation and curettage
B. Packed red blood cell transfusion
C. High dose estrogen therapy
D. Hysteroscopy
E. High dose GnRH agonists
249. A 45-year-old woman presents to her physician's office complaining of night sweats and insomnia. She states that for the past month she has woken up completely soaked with perspiration on several occasions. She has had irregular menstrual periods for the past six months. She consumes one ounce of alcohol nightly before going to the bed, and quit smoking 5 years ago. She has a history of hypertension controlled with hydrochlorothiazide. She denies illicit drug use. Her temperature is 36.7° C (98° F), blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Prescribe a short course of oral hormone replacement therapy
B. Obtain a urine toxicology screen
C. Reassure her that she is reaching menopause
D. Measure serun1 TSH and FSH
E. Measure 24-hour urinary catecholamines
250. A 25-year-old woman is referred to the physician for lactation suppression after the death of her 1-month-old infant from severe sepsis. She is very depressed and complains of breast fullness and tenderness. Examination shows both breasts are warm, firm and tender to palpation. Prenatal records show no abnormalities except mild varicosities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Frequent emptying of breasts
B. Tight fitting bra and ice packs
C. Conjugated estrogen
D. Dexamethasone
E. Bromocriptine therapy
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