Gyneco(201-250)
Preeclampsia and Pregnancy Quiz
Test your knowledge on the complexities of pregnancy and related conditions with our comprehensive quiz that covers essential topics in maternal health. This quiz features real-world scenarios designed to help you understand the implications of hypertension, growth restrictions, and labor management.
- 50 multiple-choice questions
- Covers a range of topics from hypertension to post-term pregnancy
- Engaging and educational
A Primigravida with Hypertension. A 35-year-old pregnant woman (gravida 2, para 1) comes into the office for her 18-week prenatal appointment. Her blood pressure is 140/94 mmHg when taken by your nurse and is confirmed by your own measurement. She has no protein in her urine and has no headaches, blurred vision, nausea, or vomiting. The rest of the examination is consistent with dates; there is no lower extremity edema.Which one of the following intrapartum conditions is associated with preeclampsia/eclampsia?
A. Postpartum hemorrhage
B. Postdates pregnancy with induction
C. Maternal hyperglycemia
D. Prolonged first stage of labor
E. Venous thromboembolism
A Primigravida with Hypertension. A 35-year-old pregnant woman (gravida 2, para 1) comes into the office for her 18-week prenatal appointment. Her blood pressure is 140/94 mmHg when taken by your nurse and is confirmed by your own measurement. She has no protein in her urine and has no headaches, blurred vision, nausea, or vomiting. The rest of the examination is consistent with dates; there is no lower extremity edema.Which of the following are risks for recurrence of preeclampsia?
A. Onset of preeclampsia before 30 weeks of gestation
B. Ethnic minority
C. Previous preeclampsia as a multipara
D. A and C
E. All of the above
A Primigravida with Hypertension. A 35-year-old pregnant woman (gravida 2, para 1) comes into the office for her 18-week prenatal appointment. Her blood pressure is 140/94 mmHg when taken by your nurse and is confirmed by your own measurement. She has no protein in her urine and has no headaches, blurred vision, nausea, or vomiting. The rest of the examination is consistent with dates; there is no lower extremity edema.The patient delivers vaginally. The following are considered steps to use in the active management of the third stage of labor except
A. Administration of a uterine tonic prior to delivery of the infant
B. Administration of a uterine tonic prior to delivery of the placenta
C. Relatively rapid cord clamping and cutting
D. Application of controlled traction to the cord
E. All of the above are steps to use in the active management of her labor
A Primigravida with Hypertension. A 35-year-old pregnant woman (gravida 2, para 1) comes into the office for her 18-week prenatal appointment. Her blood pressure is 140/94 mmHg when taken by your nurse and is confirmed by your own measurement. She has no protein in her urine and has no headaches, blurred vision, nausea, or vomiting. The rest of the examination is consistent with dates; there is no lower extremity edema.Risk factors for postpartum hemorrhage include
A. Prolonged first stage
B. multipara
C. Large babies
D. Assisted delivery (vacuum/forceps)
E. All of the above
MB is a 24-year-old (gravida 1, para 0) female who is 30 weeks pregnant. Her last menstrual period is certain. She presented for care at 9 weeks of gestation and has kept her monthly follow-up appointments. Her initial body mass index was 21, and she has gained 3kg during the past 8 weeks. Fundal height has been consistent with dates, but today the fundal measurement is 25 cm. She smokes one and a half packs of cigarettes a day and is unable to cut down. She denies alcohol or other substance use. She denies any recent infections. An ultrasound at 16 weeks was consistent with her last menstrual period and showed normal fetal anatomy. A repeat ultrasound shows estimated fetal weight consistent with a 25-week gestation (fetal weight below the 10th percentile for 30-week gestation). The amniotic fluid index is normal.Which of the following statements regarding intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) is true?
A. The term describes a fetus with an estimated weight that is less than expected for gestational age
B. the 3rd percentile is generally the cutoff used to define IUGR
C. IUGR is interchangeable with the term small for gestational age (SGA)
D. IUGR is a term for infants with genetic anomalies whose weight is at the low end of the growth curve
E. All of the above
MB is a 24-year-old (gravida 1, para 0) female who is 30 weeks pregnant. Her last menstrual period is certain. She presented for care at 9 weeks of gestation and has kept her monthly follow-up appointments. Her initial body mass index was 21, and she has gained 3kg during the past 8 weeks. Fundal height has been consistent with dates, but today the fundal measurement is 25 cm. She smokes one and a half packs of cigarettes a day and is unable to cut down. She denies alcohol or other substance use. She denies any recent infections. An ultrasound at 16 weeks was consistent with her last menstrual period and showed normal fetal anatomy. A repeat ultrasound shows estimated fetal weight consistent with a 25-week gestation (fetal weight below the 10th percentile for 30-week gestation). The amniotic fluid index is normal.What is the leading cause of fetal growth restriction in human pregnancies?
A. Poor maternal weight gain
B. Placental insufficiency
C. Maternal diabetes
D. Maternal toxoplasmosis exposure
E. Gestational hypertension
A 24-year-old (gravida 1, para 0) female who is 30 weeks pregnant. Her last menstrual period is certain. She presented for care at 9 weeks of gestation and has kept her monthly follow-up appointments. Her initial body mass index was 21, and she has gained 3kg during the past 8 weeks. Fundal height has been consistent with dates, but today the fundal measurement is 25 cm. She smokes one and a half packs of cigarettes a day and is unable to cut down. She denies alcohol or other substance use. She denies any recent infections. An ultrasound at 16 weeks was consistent with her last menstrual period and showed normal fetal anatomy. A repeat ultrasound shows estimated fetal weight consistent with a 25-week gestation (fetal weight below the 10th percentile for 30-week gestation). The amniotic fluid index is normal.All of the following types of maternal substance use are linked with IUGR except
A. marijuana
B. tobacco
C. methadone
D. cocaine
E. heroin
A 35-year-old (gravida 1, para 0) female visits your office at 40 weeks of gestation. Her last menstrual period (LMP) is “certain.” Her history is significant for regular menstrual cycles and no oral contraceptive use within 3 months of becoming pregnant. A 13-week ultrasound was consistent with her LMP. The pregnancy has been unremarkable. The patient is quite concerned because today is her due date and she is not in labor. She states that her mother did not “go into labor until after 44 weeks” and she is worried that “late babies run in the family.” On physical examination, fundal height is 39 cm. Her weight has increased by 1 pound and vital signs are stable. Fetal heart tones are 140. The cervix is closed, thick, and high. Estimated fetal weight is 3.5kg. Which of the following gestational ages is considered post-term?
A. 270 days
B. 280 days
C. 287 days
D. 294 days
E. 301 days
A 35-year-old (gravida 1, para 0) female visits your office at 40 weeks of gestation. Her last menstrual period (LMP) is “certain.” Her history is significant for regular menstrual cycles and no oral contraceptive use within 3 months of becoming pregnant. A 13-week ultrasound was consistent with her LMP. The pregnancy has been unremarkable. The patient is quite concerned because today is her due date and she is not in labor. She states that her mother did not “go into labor until after 44 weeks” and she is worried that “late babies run in the family.” On physical examination, fundal height is 39 cm. Her weight has increased by 1 pound and vital signs are stable. Fetal heart tones are 140. The cervix is closed, thick, and high. Estimated fetal weight is 3.5kg.Which of the following conditions is not associated with increased risk of post-term pregnancy?
A. Placental sulfatase insufficiency
B. Fetal anencephaly
C. Female gender of fetus
D. primiparity
E. History of previous post-term pregnancy
A 35-year-old (gravida 1, para 0) female visits your office at 40 weeks of gestation. Her last menstrual period (LMP) is “certain.” Her history is significant for regular menstrual cycles and no oral contraceptive use within 3 months of becoming pregnant. A 13-week ultrasound was consistent with her LMP. The pregnancy has been unremarkable. The patient is quite concerned because today is her due date and she is not in labor. She states that her mother did not “go into labor until after 44 weeks” and she is worried that “late babies run in the family.” On physical examination, fundal height is 39 cm. Her weight has increased by 1 pound and vital signs are stable. Fetal heart tones are 140. The cervix is closed, thick, and high. Estimated fetal weight is 3.5kg.What is the most common cause of post-term pregnancy?
A. Incorrect dating
B. Fetal anencephaly
C. Genetic predisposition
D. multiparity
E. Fetal macrosomia
A 35-year-old (gravida 1, para 0) female visits your office at 40 weeks of gestation. Her last menstrual period (LMP) is “certain.” Her history is significant for regular menstrual cycles and no oral contraceptive use within 3 months of becoming pregnant. A 13-week ultrasound was consistent with her LMP. The pregnancy has been unremarkable. The patient is quite concerned because today is her due date and she is not in labor. She states that her mother did not “go into labor until after 44 weeks” and she is worried that “late babies run in the family.” On physical examination, fundal height is 39 cm. Her weight has increased by 1 pound and vital signs are stable. Fetal heart tones are 140. The cervix is closed, thick, and high. Estimated fetal weight is 3.5kg.The patient progresses to 41 weeks. She now wants to be managed expectantly because she heard that the risk of cesarean is higher if she is induced. Which of the following statements about labor induction at 41 weeks is not true?
A. Induction at 41 weeks does not increase the risk of cesarean
B. post-term induction of labor reduces the risk of perinatal death
C. The reduction in risk of perinatal death with induction is very small compared to that of expectant management
D. Induction at 41 weeks is associated with decreased risk of meconium aspiration syndrome
E. Induction at 41 weeks increases the risk for cesarean
A 35-year-old (gravida 1, para 0) female visits your office at 40 weeks of gestation. Her last menstrual period (LMP) is “certain.” Her history is significant for regular menstrual cycles and no oral contraceptive use within 3 months of becoming pregnant. A 13-week ultrasound was consistent with her LMP. The pregnancy has been unremarkable. The patient is quite concerned because today is her due date and she is not in labor. She states that her mother did not “go into labor until after 44 weeks” and she is worried that “late babies run in the family.” On physical examination, fundal height is 39 cm. Her weight has increased by 1 pound and vital signs are stable. Fetal heart tones are 140. The cervix is closed, thick, and high. Estimated fetal weight is 3.5kg.The patient agrees to proceed with labor induction. Her cervical exam at this time is as follows: 2-cm dilation, 60% effacement, −2 station, firm consistency, and posterior. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. An oxytocin induction is indicated
B. the Bishop score indicates a high likelihood of vaginal delivery with induction
C. Cervical ripening with prostaglandins is indicated
D. The chance of successful induction with prostaglandins is low
E. a Bishop score of more than 10 indicates that the probability of vaginal delivery after induction is similar to that of spontaneous labor
A 35-year-old (gravida 1, para 0) female visits your office at 40 weeks of gestation. Her last menstrual period (LMP) is “certain.” Her history is significant for regular menstrual cycles and no oral contraceptive use within 3 months of becoming pregnant. A 13-week ultrasound was consistent with her LMP. The pregnancy has been unremarkable. The patient is quite concerned because today is her due date and she is not in labor. She states that her mother did not “go into labor until after 44 weeks” and she is worried that “late babies run in the family.” On physical examination, fundal height is 39 cm. Her weight has increased by 1 pound and vital signs are stable. Fetal heart tones are 140. The cervix is closed, thick, and high. Estimated fetal weight is 3.5kg.Which of the following statements about the use of prostaglandin for cervical ripening is incorrect?
A. Pitocin is contraindicated if prostaglandins are used during an induction for post-term pregnancy
B. prostaglandin E2 (dinoprostone) and prostaglandin E1 (misoprostol) are two options for post-term induction
C. No standardized dosing regimen is established for these medications
D. Higher doses are associated with uterine hyperstimulation
E. Fetal heart rate monitoring is necessary with prostaglandin induction
An 18-year-old (gravida 1) female at 39 weeks and 5 days gestation. The pregnancy has been uneventful. She arrives on the floor with her mother, boyfriend, and two friends. Her presenting complaint is contractions for 3 hours. The contractions are 5 minutes apart and irregular. She denies bleeding, fluid leakage, or decreased fetal movement. On physical examination, her cervix is dilated to 3 cm and is 20% effaced, firm, and posterior. A non-stress test is reassuring. She is monitored for 2 hours and has no significant cervical change. 59. Women admitted to labor and delivery in this patient’s stage of labor are at increased risk for all of the following except
A. Cesarean delivery
B. Shoulder dystocia
C. amnionitis
D. Intrauterine pressure catheter placement
E. Oxytocin use
An 18-year-old (gravida 1) female at 39 weeks and 5 days gestation. The pregnancy has been uneventful. She arrives on the floor with her mother, boyfriend, and two friends. Her presenting complaint is contractions for 3 hours. The contractions are 5 minutes apart and irregular. She denies bleeding, fluid leakage, or decreased fetal movement. On physical examination, her cervix is dilated to 3 cm and is 20% effaced, firm, and posterior. A non-stress test is reassuring. She is monitored for 2 hours and has no significant cervical change.What is the working diagnosis at this time?
A. Active labor
B. Failure to progress
C. Latent labor
D. Braxton–Hicks contractions
E. oligohydramnios
An 18-year-old (gravida 1) female at 39 weeks and 5 days gestation. The pregnancy has been uneventful. She arrives on the floor with her mother, boyfriend, and two friends. Her presenting complaint is contractions for 3 hours. The contractions are 5 minutes apart and irregular. She denies bleeding, fluid leakage, or decreased fetal movement. On physical examination, her cervix is dilated to 3 cm and is 20% effaced, firm, and posterior. A non-stress test is reassuring. She is monitored for 2 hours and has no significant cervical change.Which of the following outcomes is not associated with continuity of care during pregnancy?
A. Women require less medication for pain relief in labor
B. Neonates are less likely to require resuscitation at delivery
C. Women are more likely satisfied with their intrapartum care
D. Episiotomy use is less common
E. Operative vaginal delivery is more common
The patient is sent home. She returns 2 days later with continued contractions that are now 3 minutes apart and regular. On sterile vaginal exam, her cervix is 4 cm dilated, 50% effaced, −2 position, mid-station, and soft. The patient is admitted to labor and delivery. Her mother and boyfriend are quite excited and want to know exactly when the baby will deliver. The patient wants to talk about whether an epidural is a good idea. Her mother wants to know when her daughter will receive an enema and “be shaved.” She also warns the patient that an episiotomy is required for the baby to deliver safely. What is the expected rate of cervical dilatation during active labor in nulliparous women?
A. 0.2 cm/hour
B. 0.5 cm/hour
C. 1 cm/hour
D. 1.5 cm/hour
E. 2 cm/hour
The patient is sent home. She returns 2 days later with continued contractions that are now 3 minutes apart and regular. On sterile vaginal exam, her cervix is 4 cm dilated, 50% effaced, −2 position, mid-station, and soft. The patient is admitted to labor and delivery. Her mother and boyfriend are quite excited and want to know exactly when the baby will deliver. The patient wants to talk about whether an epidural is a good idea. Her mother wants to know when her daughter will receive an enema and “be shaved.” She also warns the patient that an episiotomy is required for the baby to deliver safely.Which statement regarding active management of labor is false?
A. Early amniotomy and oxytocin are performed to correct prolonged labor
B. It reduces the duration of labor
C. Interventions are triggered if cervical progress deviates more than 2 hours from the normal progress line
D. It reduces the risk of cesarean delivery
E. Interventions are indicated in primiparas without adequate cervical change after a 4-hour period
The patient is sent home. She returns 2 days later with continued contractions that are now 3 minutes apart and regular. On sterile vaginal exam, her cervix is 4 cm dilated, 50% effaced, −2 position, mid-station, and soft. The patient is admitted to labor and delivery. Her mother and boyfriend are quite excited and want to know exactly when the baby will deliver. The patient wants to talk about whether an epidural is a good idea. Her mother wants to know when her daughter will receive an enema and “be shaved.” She also warns the patient that an episiotomy is required for the baby to deliver safely.Which of these types of general care during labor is supported by evidence-based studies?
A. Perineal shaving
B. Routine enemas
C. Restriction of oral fluid and food intake
D. Supine positioning in the bed
E. Continuous support during labor
The patient is sent home. She returns 2 days later with continued contractions that are now 3 minutes apart and regular. On sterile vaginal exam, her cervix is 4 cm dilated, 50% effaced, −2 position, mid-station, and soft. The patient is admitted to labor and delivery. Her mother and boyfriend are quite excited and want to know exactly when the baby will deliver. The patient wants to talk about whether an epidural is a good idea. Her mother wants to know when her daughter will receive an enema and “be shaved.” She also warns the patient that an episiotomy is required for the baby to deliver safely.Which of the following statements regarding amniotomy is true?
A. Numerous studies support the benefit of amniotomy for augmentation of labor
B. It is associated with increased need for oxytocin
C. More mild and moderate variables are noted on external fetal monitoring in patients who undergo amniotomy
D. It is associated with a 30-minute reduction in the duration of labor
E. It decreases the risk for operative delivery
The patient is sent home. She returns 2 days later with continued contractions that are now 3 minutes apart and regular. On sterile vaginal exam, her cervix is 4 cm dilated, 50% effaced, −2 position, mid-station, and soft. The patient is admitted to labor and delivery. Her mother and boyfriend are quite excited and want to know exactly when the baby will deliver. The patient wants to talk about whether an epidural is a good idea. Her mother wants to know when her daughter will receive an enema and “be shaved.” She also warns the patient that an episiotomy is required for the baby to deliver safely.How should expectant women be counseled regarding episiotomy?
A. Routine episiotomy facilitates delivery and is indicated to avoid perineal damage
B. Extension of the episiotomy into the rectum is very rare
C. Mediolateral episiotomy is superior to a midlateral approach
D. Episiotomy should only be performed for specific indications
E. Routine episiotomy results in less blood loss and less dyspareunia than no episiotomy
The patient is sent home. She returns 2 days later with continued contractions that are now 3 minutes apart and regular. On sterile vaginal exam, her cervix is 4 cm dilated, 50% effaced, −2 position, mid-station, and soft. The patient is admitted to labor and delivery. Her mother and boyfriend are quite excited and want to know exactly when the baby will deliver. The patient wants to talk about whether an epidural is a good idea. Her mother wants to know when her daughter will receive an enema and “be shaved.” She also warns the patient that an episiotomy is required for the baby to deliver safely.Which of the following is not included in active management of the third stage of labor?
A. Administration of oxytocin after delivery of the anterior shoulder
B. Controlled cord traction to expedite delivery of the placenta
C. Use of McRoberts’ maneuver to expedite delivery of the fetal head
D. Immediate clamping and cutting of the umbilical cord
E. Delivery of the placenta by maternal pushing
A 27-year-old female (gravida 2, para 1) at 39 weeks of gestation presents to labor and delivery in active labor. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated and her prior two deliveries were vaginal. Her cervix is checked by the nurse and judged to be 6 cm, 90% effaced, midposition, and soft. The fetus is not engaged and is thought to be vertex. Initial fetal monitoring shows a heart rate in the 140s with good accelerations and is reassuring. Contractions are 4 minutes apart and the patient is comfortable. Twenty minutes later, the patient experiences a large gush of clear fluid, and severe variable decelerations appear on the fetal heart rate monitor. What is the most likely diagnosis at this time?
A. Uterine rupture
B. Placental abruption
C. Placenta previa
D. Cord prolapse
E. Vasa previa
A 27-year-old female (gravida 2, para 1) at 39 weeks of gestation presents to labor and delivery in active labor. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated and her prior two deliveries were vaginal. Her cervix is checked by the nurse and judged to be 6 cm, 90% effaced, midposition, and soft. The fetus is not engaged and is thought to be vertex. Initial fetal monitoring shows a heart rate in the 140s with good accelerations and is reassuring. Contractions are 4 minutes apart and the patient is comfortable. Twenty minutes later, the patient experiences a large gush of clear fluid, and severe variable decelerations appear on the fetal heart rate monitor.Which of the following conditions is not considered a risk factor for cord prolapse?
A. Grand multiparity
B. Female fetus
C. Abnormally long umbilical cord
D. prematurity
E. Twin gestation
A 27-year-old female (gravida 2, para 1) at 39 weeks of gestation presents to labor and delivery in active labor. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated and her prior two deliveries were vaginal. Her cervix is checked by the nurse and judged to be 6 cm, 90% effaced, midposition, and soft. The fetus is not engaged and is thought to be vertex. Initial fetal monitoring shows a heart rate in the 140s with good accelerations and is reassuring. Contractions are 4 minutes apart and the patient is comfortable. Twenty minutes later, the patient experiences a large gush of clear fluid, and severe variable decelerations appear on the fetal heart rate monitor.Which of the following statements about cord prolapse diagnosis is false?
A. Cord prolapse is likely when prolonged fetal bradycardia is seen in the presence of ruptured membranes
B. Ruptured membranes are a prerequisite
C. Mean cervical dilatation at diagnosis is 7 cm
D. The diagnosis is confirmed when the umbilical cord is palpable in the vagina ahead of the fetal presenting part
E. Repetitive moderate to severe variable decelerations are commonly seen with this condition
A 27-year-old female (gravida 2, para 1) at 39 weeks of gestation presents to labor and delivery in active labor. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated and her prior two deliveries were vaginal. Her cervix is checked by the nurse and judged to be 6 cm, 90% effaced, midposition, and soft. The fetus is not engaged and is thought to be vertex. Initial fetal monitoring shows a heart rate in the 140s with good accelerations and is reassuring. Contractions are 4 minutes apart and the patient is comfortable. Twenty minutes later, the patient experiences a large gush of clear fluid, and severe variable decelerations appear on the fetal heart rate monitor.What is the recommended immediate management of this patient?
A. Emergent primary cesarean delivery
B. Operative vaginal delivery using forceps
C. Operative vaginal delivery using a vacuum extractor
D. Manual elevation of the presenting fetal part
E. Instillation of 500 mL of normal saline into the bladder
No Prenatal Care and Bleeding A 23-year-old female (gravida 6, para 3114) presents to labor and delivery with severe abdominal pain. She has no prenatal care, and she thinks her last menstrual period was approximately 9 months ago. She denies a history of medical problems or surgery. All previous deliveries were vaginal. She smokes one and a half packs of cigarettes a day and admits to remote “crank” use. Fundal height measures 39 cm, and there is copious bleeding from the vagina. The fetal monitor shows contractions every minute with elevated baseline uterine tone. Fetal tachycardia at 180 beats/minute, and late decelerations are also present.What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Uterine rupture
B. Placenta previa
C. Placental abruption
D. Vasa previa
E. Gestational hypertension
No Prenatal Care and Bleeding. A 23-year-old female (gravida 6, para 3114) presents to labor and delivery with severe abdominal pain. She has no prenatal care, and she thinks her last menstrual period was approximately 9 months ago. She denies a history of medical problems or surgery. All previous deliveries were vaginal. She smokes one and a half packs of cigarettes a day and admits to remote “crank” use. Fundal height measures 39 cm, and there is copious bleeding from the vagina. The fetal monitor shows contractions every minute with elevated baseline uterine tone. Fetal tachycardia at 180 beats/minute, and late decelerations are also present.Maternal risks associated with this diagnosis include all of the following except
A. death
B. hysterectomy
C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
D. Renal failure
E. Myocardial infarction
No Prenatal Care and Bleeding. A 23-year-old female (gravida 6, para 3114) presents to labor and delivery with severe abdominal pain. She has no prenatal care, and she thinks her last menstrual period was approximately 9 months ago. She denies a history of medical problems or surgery. All previous deliveries were vaginal. She smokes one and a half packs of cigarettes a day and admits to remote “crank” use. Fundal height measures 39 cm, and there is copious bleeding from the vagina. The fetal monitor shows contractions every minute with elevated baseline uterine tone. Fetal tachycardia at 180 beats/minute, and late decelerations are also present.Which gestational age has the highest incidence of placental abruption?
A. 24 to 26 weeks
B. 30 to 32 weeks
C. 32 to 34 weeks
D. 38 to 40 weeks
E. More than 40 weeks’ gestational age
No Prenatal Care and Bleeding. A 23-year-old female (gravida 6, para 3114) presents to labor and delivery with severe abdominal pain. She has no prenatal care, and she thinks her last menstrual period was approximately 9 months ago. She denies a history of medical problems or surgery. All previous deliveries were vaginal. She smokes one and a half packs of cigarettes a day and admits to remote “crank” use. Fundal height measures 39 cm, and there is copious bleeding from the vagina. The fetal monitor shows contractions every minute with elevated baseline uterine tone. Fetal tachycardia at 180 beats/minute, and late decelerations are also present.Which of the following conditions is not strongly associated with placental abruption?
A. Maternal smoking
B. Maternal opiate use
C. chorioamnionitis
D. History of previous placental abruption
E. Paternal smoking
A 37-year-old female (gravida 2, para 1001) at 39 weeks of gestation progresses to complete and pushing. Her pregnancy has been complicated by type 2 diabetes, for which she takes metformin. She has gained 45 pounds during the pregnancy, despite both nutritional consultation and repeated counseling. She is 5 feet 2 inches tall and has a prepregnancy body mass index of 34. Descent of the fetal head is slower than anticipated with “positive turtle sign” during contractions. The head is delivered after 2 hours of pushing. The anterior shoulder is difficult to deliver without increased traction. Sixty seconds pass without successful delivery.What is the most important action to take at this time?
A. Flex the maternal hips and bring the knees up to the chest
B. Ask the nurse to apply suprapubic pressure
C. Call for additional help
D. Perform an episiotomy
E. Begin pitocin infusion at 3 mU/minute
A 37-year-old female (gravida 2, para 1001) at 39 weeks of gestation progresses to complete and pushing. Her pregnancy has been complicated by type 2 diabetes, for which she takes metformin. She has gained 45 pounds during the pregnancy, despite both nutritional consultation and repeated counseling. She is 5 feet 2 inches tall and has a prepregnancy body mass index of 34. Descent of the fetal head is slower than anticipated with “positive turtle sign” during contractions. The head is delivered after 2 hours of pushing. The anterior shoulder is difficult to deliver without increased traction. Sixty seconds pass without successful delivery.Which of the following statements about shoulder dystocia is true?
A. Clavicular fracture occurs in approximately 1% of cases
B. A previously well-oxygenated fetus can tolerate 4 or 5 minutes of severe hypoxia without residual damage
C. Brachial plexus injuries usually involve the C3 and C4 nerve roots
D. Fractures involving the growth plate usually heal well with little or no long-term problems
E. Brachial plexus injuries occur in 30% of cases of shoulder dystocia
A 37-year-old female (gravida 2, para 1001) at 39 weeks of gestation progresses to complete and pushing. Her pregnancy has been complicated by type 2 diabetes, for which she takes metformin. She has gained 45 pounds during the pregnancy, despite both nutritional consultation and repeated counseling. She is 5 feet 2 inches tall and has a prepregnancy body mass index of 34. Descent of the fetal head is slower than anticipated with “positive turtle sign” during contractions. The head is delivered after 2 hours of pushing. The anterior shoulder is difficult to deliver without increased traction. Sixty seconds pass without successful delivery.Which of the following statements regarding macrosomia and shoulder dystocia is true?
A. Diabetes and maternal obesity have strong positive predictive value for shoulder dystocia
B. 30% of macrosomic infants deliver without shoulder dystocia
C. Fetal macrosomia is suspected when the estimated fetal weight is more than 4000 g
D. Most cases of shoulder dystocia are predictable using risk factors
E. 40% to 60% of cases of shoulder dystocia occur in infants who weigh less than 4000 g
Hypotension and Bleeding after Delivery. The patient in Clinical Case Problem 3 delivers atraumatically using a combination of McRoberts’ maneuver, suprapubic pressure, and an episiotomy. Profuse vaginal bleeding is noted both prior to and following delivery of the placenta. The patient becomes lightheaded and tachycardic. Blood pressure drops to 60/40 mmHg.Which of the following is the least likely cause of this problem?
A. Uterine atony
B. Uterine rupture
C. Retained placental parts
D. Vaginal or cervical lacerations
E. Maternal thrombin or bleeding abnormalities
Hypotension and Bleeding after Delivery. The patient in Clinical Case Problem 3 delivers atraumatically using a combination of McRoberts’ maneuver, suprapubic pressure, and an episiotomy. Profuse vaginal bleeding is noted both prior to and following delivery of the placenta. The patient becomes lightheaded and tachycardic. Blood pressure drops to 60/40 mmHg.Which of the following steps is not included in active management of the third stage of labor?
A. Administration of pitocin immediately following delivery of the anterior shoulder
B. Controlled cord traction
C. Immediate uterine massage after delivery of the placenta
D. eaXYZy cord clamping
E. administering 400 to 600 μg of misoprostol orally
A 61-year-old postmenopausal female comes to your office for a routine health exam. She has a history of osteoarthritis, and she smokes one pack of cigarettes per day. She fractured her left wrist at age 50 years after falling down some stairs. Her mother has osteoporosis and fractured her hip after a fall. Her diet is low in calcium-rich foods, and she is not currently taking a calcium supplement. She is on no medications. Her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, her height is 160cm, and she weighs 52kg. The rest of her physical exam is normal.Which of the following is not an established major risk factor for osteoporosis?
A. Low body weight
B. Current smoking
C. History of fragility fracture in first-degree relative
D. Low calcium intake
E. Chronic use of steroids
A 61-year-old postmenopausal female comes to your office for a routine health exam. She has a history of osteoarthritis, and she smokes one pack of cigarettes per day. She fractured her left wrist at age 50 years after falling down some stairs. Her mother has osteoporosis and fractured her hip after a fall. Her diet is low in calcium-rich foods, and she is not currently taking a calcium supplement. She is on no medications. Her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, her height is 160cm, and she weighs 52kg. The rest of her physical exam is normal.Which of the following is not an associated risk factor for osteoporosis?
A. Low calcium intake
B. Sedentary lifestyle
C. Cigarette smoking
D. obesity
E. Excessive alcohol intake
A 61-year-old postmenopausal female comes to your office for a routine health exam. She has a history of osteoarthritis, and she smokes one pack of cigarettes per day. She fractured her left wrist at age 50 years after falling down some stairs. Her mother has osteoporosis and fractured her hip after a fall. Her diet is low in calcium-rich foods, and she is not currently taking a calcium supplement. She is on no medications. Her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, her height is 160cm, and she weighs 52kg. The rest of her physical exam is normal.What is the most common presenting fracture in osteoporosis?
A. Wrist fracture (Colles’ fracture)
B. Vertebral compression fracture
C. Femoral neck fracture
D. Tibial fracture
E. Femoral head fracture
A 61-year-old postmenopausal female comes to your office for a routine health exam. She has a history of osteoarthritis, and she smokes one pack of cigarettes per day. She fractured her left wrist at age 50 years after falling down some stairs. Her mother has osteoporosis and fractured her hip after a fall. Her diet is low in calcium-rich foods, and she is not currently taking a calcium supplement. She is on no medications. Her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, her height is 160cm, and she weighs 52kg. The rest of her physical exam is normal.Which of the following sites for osteoporotic fracture is most commonly associated with morbidity and mortality?
A. Ward’s triangle (hip)
B. The femoral neck (hip)
C. The thoracic vertebrae (spine)
D. The lumbar vertebrae (spine)
E. The distal radius (wrist)
A 61-year-old postmenopausal female comes to your office for a routine health exam. She has a history of osteoarthritis, and she smokes one pack of cigarettes per day. She fractured her left wrist at age 50 years after falling down some stairs. Her mother has osteoporosis and fractured her hip after a fall. Her diet is low in calcium-rich foods, and she is not currently taking a calcium supplement. She is on no medications. Her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, her height is 160cm, and she weighs 52kg. The rest of her physical exam is normal.Which of the following conditions is not associated with an increased risk for osteoporosis?
A. hyperparathyroidism
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. History of solid organ transplant
D. Chronic dilantin therapy
E. History of osteoarthritis
A 61-year-old postmenopausal female comes to your office for a routine health exam. She has a history of osteoarthritis, and she smokes one pack of cigarettes per day. She fractured her left wrist at age 50 years after falling down some stairs. Her mother has osteoporosis and fractured her hip after a fall. Her diet is low in calcium-rich foods, and she is not currently taking a calcium supplement. She is on no medications. Her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, her height is 160cm, and she weighs 52kg. The rest of her physical exam is normal.Which of the following is not a therapy approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for the prevention of osteoporosis?
A. bisphosphonates
B. Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMS)
C. Calcium supplementation
D. teriparatide
E. estrogen
A 61-year-old postmenopausal female comes to your office for a routine health exam. She has a history of osteoarthritis, and she smokes one pack of cigarettes per day. She fractured her left wrist at age 50 years after falling down some stairs. Her mother has osteoporosis and fractured her hip after a fall. Her diet is low in calcium-rich foods, and she is not currently taking a calcium supplement. She is on no medications. Her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, her height is 160cm, and she weighs 52kg. The rest of her physical exam is normal.Which of the following statements regarding non-pharmacologic management for the prevention and treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis is true?
A. Patients should obtain an adequate intake of dietary calcium (at least 1200 mg/day, including supplements if necessary)
B. Patients should obtain an adequate intake of dietary vitamin D (400 to 800 IU/day)
C. Patients should be encouraged to participate in regular weight-bearing and muscles strengthening exercise
D. Patients should be assessed for fall risk and educated in fall prevention strategies
E. All of the above
A 41-year-old female comes to your office after finding a breast lump during a routine self-examination. She has been examining her breasts regularly for the past 5 years; this is the first lump she has found. On examination, there is a lump located in the right breast. The lump’s anatomic location is in the upper outer quadrant. It is approximately 3 cm in diameter and is not fixed to skin or muscle. It has a hard consistency. There are three axillary nodes present on the right side; each node is approximately 1 cm in diameter. No lymph nodes are present on the left.At this time, what would you do?
A. Tell the patient that she has fibrocystic breast disease; ask her to return in 1 month, preferably 10 days after the next period, for a recheck
B. Tell the patient to see her lawyer and update her will; prognosis is grave
C. Tell the patient to go home and relax; we generally get too worked up about breast lumps
D. Order an ultrasound of the area
E. None of the above
A 41-year-old female comes to your office after finding a breast lump during a routine self-examination. She has been examining her breasts regularly for the past 5 years; this is the first lump she has found. On examination, there is a lump located in the right breast. The lump’s anatomic location is in the upper outer quadrant. It is approximately 3 cm in diameter and is not fixed to skin or muscle. It has a hard consistency. There are three axillary nodes present on the right side; each node is approximately 1 cm in diameter. No lymph nodes are present on the left.What is the first diagnostic procedure that should be performed in this patient?
A. Ultrasound of the breast
B. mammography
C. Fine needle biopsy
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
A 41-year-old female comes to your office after finding a breast lump during a routine self-examination. She has been examining her breasts regularly for the past 5 years; this is the first lump she has found. On examination, there is a lump located in the right breast. The lump’s anatomic location is in the upper outer quadrant. It is approximately 3 cm in diameter and is not fixed to skin or muscle. It has a hard consistency. There are three axillary nodes present on the right side; each node is approximately 1 cm in diameter. No lymph nodes are present on the left.What is the definitive procedure that should be performed in this patient?
A. Ultrasound of the breast
B. mammography
C. biopsy
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
A Female with a Suspicious Lesion Discovered on Mammography A mammographic examination uncovered a very suspicious lesion in the right breast of a 49-year-old female. Clinically, the lesion is a 3-cm mass present in the left upper outer quadrant. No axillary lymph nodes are palpable. You refer her to a surgeon who books her for a surgical procedure. What surgical procedure should be used in this patient?
A. A lumpectomy
B. A modified radical mastectomy
C. A lumpectomy plus axillary lymph node dissection
D. A modified radical mastectomy plus axillary lymph node dissection
E. None of the above
A Female with a Suspicious Lesion Discovered on Mammography A mammographic examination uncovered a very suspicious lesion in the right breast of a 49-year-old female. Clinically, the lesion is a 3-cm mass present in the left upper outer quadrant. No axillary lymph nodes are palpable. You refer her to a surgeon who books her for a surgical procedure.The risk factors for carcinoma of the breast include which of the following?
A. A first-degree relative with breast cance
B. nulliparity
C. Birth of a first child after age 35 years
D. Early menarche
E. All of the above
A Painful Bilateral Breast Masses That Wax and Wane with Her Period A 42-year-old female comes to your office with bilateral breast masses that are painful and seem to “come and go” depending on the stage of the menstrual cycle. There is significant pain with these masses during menstruation. On examination, there are two areas of dense tissue, one in each breast, and each is approximately 4 cm in diameter. No axillary lymph nodes are palpable.What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Carcinoma of the breast
B. Mammary dysplasia (fibrocystic disease)
C. fibroadenoma
D. Paget’s disease of the breast
E. None of the above
A Painful Bilateral Breast Masses That Wax and Wane with Her Period A 42-year-old female comes to your office with bilateral breast masses that are painful and seem to “come and go” depending on the stage of the menstrual cycle. There is significant pain with these masses during menstruation. On examination, there are two areas of dense tissue, one in each breast, and each is approximately 4 cm in diameter. No axillary lymph nodes are palpable.If medical treatment is indicated and prescribed for the condition described here, which of the following should be considered as the therapeutic agent of first choice?
A. Hormone therapy: the oral contraceptive pill
B. Hormone therapy: danazol
C. A thiazide diuretic
D. vitamin E
E. None of the above
A 23-year-old female consults her physician because of a breast mass; the mass is mobile, firm, and approximately 1 cm in diameter. It is located in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. No axillary lymph nodes are present.What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Carcinoma of the breast
B. Mammary dysplasia (fibrocystic disease)
C. fibroadenoma
D. Paget’s disease of the breast
E. None of the above
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