A 3-year-old is brought to the emergency department having just ingested a large overdose of chlorpropamide, an oral antidiabetic drug. Chlorpropamide is a weak acid with a pKa of 5.0. It is capable of entering most tissues. On physical examination, the heart rate is 110/min, blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg, and respiratory rate 30/min. Which of the following statements about this case of chlorpropamide overdose is most correct?
(A) Urinary excretion would be accelerated by administration of NH4Cl, an acidifying agent
(B) Urinary excretion would be accelerated by giving NaHCO3, an alkalinizing agent
(C) Less of the drug would be ionized at blood pH than at stomach pH
(D) Absorption of the drug would be slower from the stomach than from the small intestin
Botulinum toxin is a large protein molecule. Its action on cholinergic transmission depends on an intracellular action within nerve endings. Which one of the following processes is best suited for permeation of very large protein molecules into cells?
(A) Aqueous diffusion
(B) Endocytosis
(C) First-pass effect
(D) Lipid diffusion
(E) Special carrier transport
A 12-year-old child has bacterial pharyngitis and is to receive an oral antibiotic. She complains of a sore throat and pain on swallowing. The tympanic membranes are slightly reddened bilaterally, but she does not complain of earache. Blood pressure is 105/70 mm Hg, heart rate 100/min, temperature 37.8°C (100.1°F). Ampicillin is a weak organic acid with a pKa of 2.5. What percentage of a given dose will be in the lipidsoluble form in the duodenum at a pH of 4.5?
(A) About 1%
(B) About 10%
(C) About 50%
(D) About 90%
(E) About 99%
Ampicillin is eliminated by first-order kinetics. Which of the following statements best describes the process by which the plasma concentration of this drug declines?
(A) There is only 1 metabolic path for drug elimination
(B) The half-life is the same regardless of the plasma concentration
(C) The drug is largely metabolized in the liver after oral administration and has low bioavailability
(D) The rate of elimination is proportional to the rate of administration at all times
(E) The drug is distributed to only 1 compartment outside the vascular system
The pharmacokinetics of a new drug are under study in a phase 1 clinical trial. Which statement about the distribution of drugs to specific tissues is most correct?
(A) Distribution to an organ is independent of blood flow
(B) Distribution of a lipid-soluble drug will be to adipose tissue initially
(C) Distribution into a tissue depends on the unbound drug concentration gradient between blood and the tissue
(D) Distribution is increased for drugs that are strongly bound to plasma proteins
(E) Distribution has no effect on the half-life of the drug
The pharmacokinetic process or property that distinguishes the elimination of ethanol and high doses of phenytoin and aspirin from the elimination of most other drugs is called
(A) Distribution
(B) Excretion
(C) First-pass effect
(D) First-order elimination
(E) Zero-order elimination
Which of the following statements about animal testing of potential new therapeutic agents is most correct
(A) Requires at least 3 years to discover late toxicities
(B) Requires at least 1 primate species (eg, rhesus monkey)
(C) Requires the submission of histopathologic slides and specimens to the FDA for evaluation by government scientists
(D) Has good predictability for drug allergy-type reactions
(E) May be abbreviated in the case of some very toxic agents used in cancer
The “dominant lethal” test involves the treatment of a male adult animal with a chemical before mating; the pregnant female is later examined for fetal death and abnormalities. The dominant lethal test therefore is a test of
(A) Teratogenicity
(B) Mutagenicity
(C) Carcinogenicity
(D) Sperm viability
In a phase 1 clinical trial, “Novexum,” a new drug, was administered intravenously to 25 volunteers, and blood samples were taken for several hours. Several inactive metabolites were found as well as declining concentrations of Novexum. A graph was prepared as shown below, with the Novexum plasma levels plotted on a logarithmic ordinate and time on a linear abscissa. It was concluded that the drug has first-order kinetics. From this graph, what is the best estimate of the elimination half-life of Novexum?
(A) 0.5 h
(B) 1 h
(C) 3 h
(D) 4 h
(E) 7 h
A large pharmaceutical company has conducted extensive animal testing of a new drug for the treatment of advanced prostate cancer. The chief of research and development recommends that the company now submit an IND application in order to start clinical trials. Which of the following statements is most correct regarding clinical trials of new drug
A) Phase 1 involves the study of a small number of normal volunteers by highly trained clinical pharmacologists
(B) Phase 2 involves the use of the new drug in a large number of patients (1000–5000) who have the disease to be treated under conditions of proposed use (eg, outpatients)
(C) Chronic animal toxicity studies must be complete and reported in the IND
(D) Phase 4 involves the detailed study of toxic effects that have been discovered in phase 3
(E) Phase 2 requires the use of a positive control (a known effective drug) and a placebo
. Which of the following would probably not be included in an optimal phase 3 clinical trial of a new analgesic drug for mild pain?
(A) A negative control (placebo)
(B) A positive control (current standard analgesic therapy)
(C) Double-blind protocol (in which neither the patient nor immediate observers of the patient know which agent is active)
(D) A group of 1000–5000 subjects with a clinical condition requiring analgesia
(E) Prior submission of an NDA (new drug application) to the FDA
The Ames test is frequently carried out before clinical trials are begun. The Ames test is a method that detects
(A) Carcinogenesis in primates
(B) Carcinogenesis in rodents
(C) Mutagenesis in bacteria
(D) Teratogenesis in any mammalian species
(E) Teratogenesis in primates
Which of the following statements about new drug development is most correct?
(A) If the need is great, drugs that test positive for teratogenicity,mutagenicity, or carcinogenicity can be tested in humans but the IND must specify safety measures to be taken
(B) Food supplements and herbal (botanical) remedies must be shown to be effective for the target condition before marketing is approved by the FDA
(C) All new drugs must be studied in at least 1 primate species before NDA submission
(D) Orphan drugs are drugs that are no longer produced by the original manufacturer
(E) Phase 4 (surveillance) is the most rigidly regulated phase of clinical drug trials
Which statement about the development of new drugs is most correct?
(A) Because they may cause anaphylaxis, proteins cannot be used as drugs
(B) Most drugs fall between 100 and 1000 in molecular weight
(C) Drugs for systemic action that are to be administered orally should be highly water soluble and insoluble in lipids
(D) Water solubility is minimal in highly polarized (charged) drug molecules
A 55-year-old man is seen in the clinic with hypertension of 150/95 mm Hg (millimeters of mercury). His personal medical history and physical examination are otherwise unremarkable but his family history is positive for early deaths due to cardiovascular disease. A decision is made to treat his hypertension, starting with a calcium channel blocker. Blocker A in a dose of 5 mg produces the same decrease in blood pressure as 500 mg of blocker B. Which of the following predictions is most accurate?
(A) Blocker A will be more efficacious than blocker B
(B) Blocker A will be about 100 times more potent than blocker B
(C) Toxicity of blocker A will be less than that of blocker B
(D) Blocker A will have a wider therapeutic window than blocker B
(E) Blocker A will have a longer half-life than blocker B
Graded and quantal dose-response curves are being used for evaluation of a new analgesic drug in the animal laboratory and in clinical trials. Which of the following statements best describes graded dose-response curves?
(A) More precisely quantitated than quantal dose-response curves
(B) Obtainable from isolated tissue preparations but not from the study of intact subjects
(C) Used to determine the maximal efficacy of the drug
(D) Used to determine the therapeutic index of the drug
(E) Used to determine the variation in sensitivity of subjects to the drug
Prior to clinical trials in patients with heart failure, an animal study was carried out to compare two new positive inotropic drugs (A and B) to a current standard agent (C). The results of cardiac output measurements are shown in the graph belowWhich of the following statements is correct
(A) Drug A is most effective
(B) Drug B is least potent
(C) Drug C is most potent
(D) Drug B is more potent than drug C and more effective than drug A
(E) Drug A is more potent than drug B and more effective than drug C
A study was carried out in isolated intestinal smooth muscle preparations to determine the action of a new drug “novamine,” which in separate studies bound to the same receptors as acetylcholine, an agonist. In the absence of other drugs, acetylcholine caused contraction of the muscle. Novamine alone caused relaxation of the preparation. In the presence of a low concentration of novamine, the EC50 of acetylcholine was unchanged, but the Emax was reduced. In the presence of a high concentration of novamine, extremely high concentrations of acetylcholine had no effect. Which of the following expressions best describes novamine?
(A) A chemical antagonist
(B) An irreversible antagonist
(C) A partial agonist
(D) A physiologic antagonist
(E) A spare receptor agonist
Beta adrenoceptors in the heart regulate cardiac rate and contractile strength. Several studies have indicated that in humans and experimental animals, about 90% of β adrenoceptors in the heart are spare receptors. Which of the following statements about spare receptors is most corr
(A) Spare receptors, in the absence of drug, are sequestered in the cytoplasm
(B) Spare receptors may be detected by finding that the drug-receptor interaction lasts longer than the intracellular effect
(C) Spare receptors influence the maximal efficacy of the drug-receptor system
(D) Spare receptors activate the effector machinery of the cell without the need for a drug
(E) Spare receptors may be detected by finding that the EC50 is smaller than the Kd for the agonist
Two cholesterol-lowering drugs, X and Y, were studied in a large group of patients, and the percentages of the group showing a specific therapeutic effect (35% reduction in lowdensity lipoprotein [LDL] cholesterol) were determined. The results are shown in the following table.Which of the following statements about these results is correct?
(A) Drug X is safer than drug Y
(B) Drug Y is more effective than drug X
(C) The 2 drugs act on the same receptors
(D) Drug X is less potent than drug Y
(E) The therapeutic index of drug Y is 10
Sugammadex is a drug that reverses the action of rocuronium and certain other skeletal muscle-relaxing agents (nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents). It appears to interact directly with the rocuronium molecule and not at all with the rocuronium receptor. Which of the following terms best describes sugammadex?
(A) Chemical antagonist
(B) Noncompetitive antagonist
(C) Partial agonist
(D) Pharmacologic antagonist
(E) Physiologic antagonist
Mr Jones has zero kidney function and is undergoing hemodialysis 3 days per week while awaiting a kidney transplant. He takes metformin for type 2 diabetes mellitus and was previously stabilized (while his kidney function was adequate) at a dosage of 500 mg twice daily, given orally. The plasma concentration at this dosage with normal kidney function was found to be 1.4 mg/L. He has had 6 dialysis procedures and metformin toxicity is suspected. A blood sample now shows a metformin concentration of 4.2 mg/L. What was Mr Jones’ clearance of metformin while his kidney function was normal?
(A) 238 L/d
(B) 29.8 L/h
(C) 3 L/d
(D) 238 L/h
(E) 30 L/min
Ms Smith, a 65-year-old woman with pneumonia, was given tobramycin, 150 mg, intravenously. After 20 minutes, the plasma concentration was measured and was found to be 3 mg/L. Assuming no elimination of the drug in 20 minutes, what is the apparent volume of distribution of tobramycin in Ms Smith?
(A) 3 L/min
(B) 3 L
(C) 50 L
(D) 7 L
(E) 0.1 mg/min
St. John’s Wort, a popular botanical remedy, is a potent inducer of hepatic phase I CYP3A4 enzymes. Verapamil and phenytoin are both eliminated from the body by metabolism in the liver. Verapamil has a clearance of 1.5 L/min, approximately equal to liver blood flow, whereas phenytoin has a clearance of 0.1 L/min. Based on this fact, which of the following is most correct?
(A) St. John’s Wort will increase the half-life of phenytoin and verapamil
(B) St. John’s Wort will decrease the volume of distribution of CYP3A4 substrates
(C) St. John’s Wort will decrease the hepatic extraction of phenytoin
(D) St. John’s Wort will decrease the first-pass effect for verapamil
(E) St. John’s Wort will increase the clearance of phenytoin
A 45-year-old woman with small cell lung cancer has elected to participate in the trial of a new chemotherapeutic agent. It is given by constant intravenous infusion of 10 mg/h. Plasma concentrations (Cp) are measured with the results shown in the following tableWhat conclusion can be drawn from these data?
(A) Clearance is 2.0 L/h
(B) Doubling the rate of infusion would result in a plasmaconcentration of 16 mg/L at 40 h
(C) Elimination follows zero-order kinetics
(D) Half-life is 2 h
(E) Volume of distribution is 30 L
You are the only physician in a clinic that is cut off from the outside world by violent storms, flooding, and landslides. A 15-year-old girl is brought to the clinic with severe asthmatic wheezing. Because of the lack of other drugs, you decide to use intravenous theophylline for treatment. The pharmacokinetics of theophylline include the following average parameters: Vd 35 L; CL 48 mL/min; half-life 8 h. If an intravenous infusion of theophylline is started at a rate of 0.48 mg/min, how long would it take to reach 93.75% of the final steadystate concentration?
(A) Approximately 48 min
(B) Approximately 7.4 h
(C) Approximately 8 h
(D) Approximately 24 h
(E) Approximately 32 h
A 74-year-old retired mechanic is admitted with a myocardial infarction and a severe acute cardiac arrhythmia. You decide to give lidocaine to correct the arrhythmia. A continuous intravenous infusion of lidocaine, 1.92 mg/min, is started at 8 AM. The average pharmacokinetic parameters of lidocaine are: Vd 77 L; clearance 640 mL/min; half-life 1.4 h. What is the expected steady-state plasma concentration?
(A) 40 mg/L
(B) 3.0 mg/L
(C) 0.025 mg/L
(D) 7.2 mg/L
(E) 3.46 mg/L
A new drug is under study in phase 1 trials. It is found that this molecule is avidly taken up by extravascular tissues so that the final total amount in the extravascular compartment at steady state is 100 times the amount remaining in the blood plasma. What is the probable volume of distribution in a hypothetical person with 8 L of blood and 4 L of plasma?
(A) Insufficient data to calculate
(B) 8 L
(C) 14.14 L
(D) 100 L
(E) 404 L
A 63-year-old woman in the intensive care unit requires an infusion of procainamide. Its half-life is 2 h. The infusion is begun at 9 am. At 1 pm on the same day, a blood sample is taken; the drug concentration is found to be 3 mg/L. What is the probable steady-state drug concentration after 16 or more hours of infusion?
(A) 3 mg/L
(B) 4 mg/L
(C) 6 mg/L
(D) 9.9 mg/L
(E) 15 mg/L
A 30-year-old man is brought to the emergency department in a deep coma. Respiration is severely depressed and he has pinpoint pupils. His friends state that he self-administered a large dose of morphine 6 h earlier. An immediate blood analysis shows a morphine blood level of 0.25 mg/L. Assuming that the Vd of morphine in this patient is 200 L and the half-life is 3 h, how much morphine did the patient inject 6 h earlier?
(A) 25 mg
(B) 50 mg
(C) 100 mg
(D) 200 mg
(E) Not enough data to predict
Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, is sometimes given as a single large intravenous bolus dose of once a day to achieve a highly active peak plasma concentration. Gentamicin’s volume of distribution is about 20 L in a 70 kg patient and, in your patient, the half-life is 4 h. If your patient is given an IV bolus dose of 360 mg, what will the trough concentration of gentamicin be 24 hours later just before the next intravenous bolus?
(A) 18 mg/L
(B) 4.5 mg/L
(C) 1.13 mg/L
(D) 0.56 mg/L
(E) 0. 28 mg/L
You are planning to treat chronic major depression in a 35-year-old patient with recurrent suicidal thoughts. She has several comorbid conditions that require drug therapy, including rifampin for tuberculosis and amiodarone for arrhythmia. You are concerned about drug interactions caused by changes in drug metabolism in this patient. 1. Drug metabolism in humans usually results in a product that is
(A) Less lipid soluble than the original drug
(B) More likely to distribute intracellularly
(C) More likely to be reabsorbed by kidney tubules
(D) More lipid soluble than the original drug
(E) Less water soluble than the original drug
2. If therapy with multiple drugs causes induction of drug metabolism in your depressed patient, it will
(A) Be associated with increased smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(B) Be associated with increased rough endoplasmic reticulum
(C) Be associated with decreased enzymes in the soluble cytoplasmic fraction
(D) Require 3–4 months to reach completion
(E) Be irreversible
Which of the following factors is likely to increase the duration of action of a drug that is metabolized by CYP3A4 in the liver?
(A) Chronic administration of rifampin during therapy with the drug in question
(B) Chronic therapy with amiodarone
(C) Displacement from tissue-binding sites by another drug
(D) Increased cardiac output
(E) Chronic administration of carbamazepine
Reports of cardiac arrhythmias caused by unusually high blood levels of 2 antihistamines, terfenadine, and astemizole, led to their removal from the market. Which of the following best explains these effects?
(A) Concomitant treatment with rifampin
(B) Use of these drugs by chronic alcoholics
(C) Use of these drugs by chronic smokers
(D) Treatment of these patients with ketoconazole, an azole antifungal agent
Which of the following agents, when used in combination with other anti-HIV drugs, permits dose reductions?
(A) Cimetidine
(B) Efavirenz
(C) Ketoconazole
(D) Procainamide
(E) Quinidine
(F) Ritonavir
(G) Succinylcholine
(H) Verapamil
Hich of the following drugs may inhibit the hepatic microsomal P450 responsible for warfarin metabolism
(A) Amiodarone
(B) Ethanol
(C) Phenobarbital
(D) Procainamide
(E) Rifampin
Which of the following drugs, if used chronically, is most likely to increase the toxicity of acetaminophen?
(A) Cimetidine
(B) Ethanol
(C) Ketoconazole
(D) Procainamide
(E) Quinidine
(F) Ritonavir
(G) Succinylcholine
(H) Verapami
Which of the following drugs has higher first-pass metabolism in men than in women?
(A) Cimetidine
(B) Ethanol
(C) Ketoconazole
(D) Procainamide
(E) Quinidine
(F) Ritonavir
(G) Succinylcholine
(H) Verapamil
Which of the following drugs is an established inhibitor of P-glycoprotein (P-gp) drug transporters?
(A) Cimetidine
(B) Ethanol
(C) Ketoconazole
(D) Procainamide
(E) Quinidine
(F) Ritonavir
(G) Succinylcholine
(H) Verapamil
Which of the following cytochrome isoforms is responsible for metabolizing the largest number of drugs?
(A) CYP1A2
(B) CYP2C9
(C) CYP2C19
(D) CYP2D6
(E) CYP3A4
A 59-year-old man with acute coronary syndrome is admitted to the hospital for emergency percutaneous insertion of a coronary stent. Which of the following drugs might cause unexpected results based on the patient’s CYP2C19 genotype?
(A) Clopidogrel
(B) Codeine
(C) Prasugrel
(D) Ticagrelor
(E) Warfarin
A 62-year-old woman with advanced colon cancer is treated with intravenous 5-fluorouracil. Within a few days, she develops severe diarrhea, and within a week, she shows severe neutropenia. Which of the following polymorphisms is most likely to be responsible?
(A) CYP2D6*1x3
(B) CYP2C19*2
(C) CYP2C9*3
(D) DPYD*2A
(E) UGT1A1*28
A 38-year-old man is being treated for HIV-induced acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). When abacavir therapy is begun, he develops a severe skin rash. Which of the following pharmacogenomic diagnoses might explain this skin rash?
(A) CYP2D6*3 (PM)
(B) CYP3A5*3 (PM)
(C) HLA-B*57:01 (EM)
(D) SLCO1B1*5 (PM)
A college student volunteers to have his genome decoded as part of a population-wide study of polymorphisms. He receives a call from the principal investigator informing him that his genome unexpectedly contains an important single nucleotide polymorphism. Which of the following polymorphisms is associated with risk of hemolysis and increased resistance to malaria?
(A) CYP2D6*3
(B) CYP2D19*2
(C) TPMT*2
(D) UGT1A1*28
(E) G6PD-(A)–Canton
A 7-year-old child is brought to the emergency department in coma with cyanosis. Her mother states that the girl was given codeine with acetaminophen because of severe bruising after a fall. Shortly after the first dose, the child became unresponsive and “turned blue.” Which of the following alleles might be responsible for this presentation?
(A) CYP2D6*1x3
(B) CYP2C19*2
(C) CYP2C9*3
(D) DPYD*2A
(E) UGT1A1*28
A 3-year-old child has been admitted to the emergency department having swallowed the contents of 2 bottles of a nasal decongestant. The active ingredient of the medication is phenylephrine, a potent, selective α-adrenoceptor agonist drug. Which of the following is a sign of α-receptor activation that may occur in this child
(A) Bronchodilation
(B) Cardiac acceleration (tachycardia)
(C) Pupillary dilation (mydriasis)
(D) Renin release from the kidneys
(E) Vasodilation of blood vessels
Mr Green is a 60-year-old man with atherosclerosis and poorly controlled hypertension of 170/110 mm Hg. He has been taking several antihypertensive drugs, including minoxidil. Minoxidil is a powerful arteriolar vasodilator that does not act on autonomic receptors. Which of the following effects will be observed if no other drugs are used?
(A) Tachycardia and increased cardiac contractility
(B) Tachycardia and decreased cardiac output
(C) Decreased mean arterial pressure and decreased cardiac contractility
(D) Decreased mean arterial pressure and increased salt and water excretion by the kidney
(E) Bradycardia and decreased cardiac contractility
Full activation of the parasympathetic nerves is likely to produce which of the following effects
(A) Bronchodilation
(B) Decreased intestinal motility
(C) Increased thermoregulatory sweating
(D) Increased pupillary constrictor tone (miosis)
(E) Increased heart rate (tachycardia)
Questions 4–5. For these questions, use the accompanying diagram. Assume that the diagram can represent either the sympathetic or the parasympathetic system.4. Assuming the structure is part of the sympathetic system, norepinephrine acts at which of the following sites in the diagram?
(A) Sites 2 and 4
(B) Site 4 only
(C) Sites 5 and 6
(D) Site 7 only
5. If the effector cell in the diagram is a pupillary constrictor smooth muscle cell, which of the following receptor types is denoted by structure 6?
(A) Alpha1 adrenoceptor
(B) Beta1 adrenoceptor
(C) Beta2 adrenoceptor
(D) M3 cholinoceptor
(E) Ng cholinoceptor
A 40-year-old man with a history of major depression is admitted to the emergency department following a suicide attempt with a drug overdose. Which of the following signs or symptoms would be consistent with an overdose of a ganglion-blocking drug?
(A) Increased blood pressure
(B) Increased bowel sounds
(C) Increased sweating
(D) Miosis
(E) Tachycardia
Several children at a summer camp were hospitalized with symptoms thought to be due to ingestion of food containing botulinum toxin. Which one of the following signs or symptoms is consistent with the diagnosis of botulinum poisoning?
(A) Bronchospasm
(B) Cycloplegia
(C) Diarrhea
(D) Skeletal muscle spasms
(E) Hyperventilation
Which one of the following is the primary neurotransmitter agent normally released in the sinoatrial node of the heart in response to a blood pressure increase?
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Dopamine
(C) Epinephrine
(D) Glutamate
(E) Norepinephrine
Questions 9–10. Assume that the diagram below represents a sympathetic noradrenergic postganglionic nerve ending.9. Which of the following blocks the carrier represented by “z” in the diagram?
(A) Amphetamine
(B) Botulinum toxin
(C) Cocaine
(D) Hemicholinium
(E) Reserpine
10. Which of the following inhibits the carrier denoted “y” in the diagram?
(A) Cocaine
(B) Dopamine
(C) Hemicholinium
(D) Reserpine
(E) Vesamicol
A 30-year-old woman undergoes abdominal surgery. In spite of minimal tissue damage, complete ileus (absence of bowel motility) follows, and she complains of severe bloating. She also finds it difficult to urinate. Mild cholinomimetic stimulation with bethanechol or neostigmine is often effective in relieving these complications of surgery. Neostigmine and bethanechol in moderate doses have significantly different effects on which one of the following?
(A) Gastric secretory cells
(B) Vascular endothelium
(C) Salivary glands
(D) Sweat glands
(E) Ureteral tone
JR, a 35-year-old farm worker, is admitted to the emergency department suffering from insecticide poisoning. Parathion has which one of the following characteristics?
(A) It is inactivated by conversion to paraoxon
(B) It is less toxic to humans than malathion
(C) It is more persistent in the environment than DDT
(D) It is poorly absorbed through skin and lungs
(E) If treated early, its toxicity may be partly reversed by pralidoxime
Ms Brown, a 28-year-old accountant, has been treated for myasthenia gravis for several years. She reports to the emergency department complaining of recent onset of weakness of her hands, diplopia, and difficulty swallowing. She may be suffering from a change in response to her myasthenia therapy, that is, a cholinergic or a myasthenic crisis. Which of the following is the best drug for distinguishing between myasthenic crisis (insufficient therapy) and cholinergic crisis (excessive therapy)?
(A) Atropine
(B) Edrophonium
(C) Physostigmine
(D) Pralidoxime
(E) Pyridostigmine
A crop duster pilot has been accidentally exposed to a high concentration of a highly toxic agricultural organophosphate insecticide. If untreated, the cause of death from such exposure would probably be
(A) Cardiac arrhythmia
(B) Gastrointestinal bleeding
(C) Heart failure
(D) Hypotension
(E) Respiratory failure
Mr Green has just been diagnosed with dysautonomia (chronic idiopathic autonomic insufficiency). You are considering different therapies for his disease. Pyridostigmine and neostigmine may cause which one of the following in this patient?
A) Bronchodilation
(B) Cycloplegia
(C) Diarrhea
(D) Irreversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
(E) Reduced gastric acid secretion
Parasympathetic nerve stimulation and a slow infusion of bethanechol will each
(A) Cause ganglion cell depolarization
(B) Cause skeletal muscle end plate depolarization
(C) Cause vasodilation
(D) Increase bronchial smooth muscle tone
(E) Increase heart rate
Actions and clinical uses of muscarinic cholinoceptor agonists include which one of the following?
(A) Bronchodilation (treatment of asthma)
(B) Miosis (treatment of narrow angle glaucoma)
(C) Decreased gastrointestinal motility (treatment of diarrhea)
(D) Decreased neuromuscular transmission and relaxation of skeletal muscle (during surgical anesthesia)
(E) Increased sweating (treatment of fever)
Which of the following is a direct-acting cholinomimetic that is lipid-soluble and is used to facilitate smoking cessation?
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Bethanechol
(C) Neostigmine
(D) Physostigmine
(E) Varenicline
A 3-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department after taking a drug from her parents’ medicine cabinet and swallowing multiple tablets. The signs suggest that the drug is a cholinomimetic with little or no vascular effect, little or no CNS effect, and a duration of action of about 2–4 h. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these effects?
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Bethanechol
(C) Neostigmine
(D) Physostigmine
(E) Pilocarpine
Which of the following is the primary second-messenger process in the contraction of the ciliary muscle when focusing on near objects?
(A) cAMP (cyclic adenosine monophosphate)
(B) DAG (diacylglycerol)
(C) Depolarizing influx of sodium ions via a channel
(D) IP3 (inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate)
(E) NO (nitric oxide)
A 27-year old compulsive drug user injected a drug he thought was methamphetamine, but he has not developed any signs of methamphetamine action. He has been admitted to the emergency department and antimuscarinic drug overdose is suspected. Probable signs of atropine overdose include which one of the following?
(A) Gastrointestinal smooth muscle cramping
(B) Increased heart rate
(C) Increased gastric secretion
(D) Pupillary constriction
(E) Urinary frequency
Which of the following is the most dangerous effect of belladonna alkaloids in infants and toddler
(A) Dehydration
(B) Hallucinations
(C) Hypertension
(D) Hyperthermia
(E) Intraventricular heart block
Which one of the following can be blocked by atropine?
(A) Decreased blood pressure caused by hexamethonium
(B) Increased blood pressure caused by nicotine
(C) Increased skeletal muscle strength caused by neostigmine
(D) Tachycardia caused by exercise
(E) Sweating caused by exercise
Questions 4–5. Two new synthetic drugs (X and Y) are to be studied for their cardiovascular effects. The drugs are given to three anesthetized animals while the blood pressure is recorded. The first animal has received no pretreatment (control), the second has received an effective dose of a long-acting ganglion blocker, and the third has received an effective dose of a long-acting muscarinic antagonist. 4. Drug X caused a 50 mm Hg rise in mean blood pressure in the control animal, no blood pressure change in the ganglionblocked animal, and a 75 mm mean blood pressure rise in the atropine-pretreated animal. Drug X is probably a drug similar to
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Atropine
(C) Epinephrine
(D) Hexamethonium
(E) Nicotine
5. The net changes in heart rate induced by drug Y in these experiments are shown in the following graph.Drug Y is probably a drug similar to
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Edrophonium
(C) Hexamethonium
(D) Nicotine
(E) Pralidoxime
A 30-year-old man has been treated with several autonomic drugs for 4 weeks. He is now admitted to the emergency department showing signs of drug toxicity. Which of the following signs would distinguish between an overdose of a ganglion blocker versus a muscarinic blocker?
(A) Cycloplegia
(B) Dry skin in a warm environment
(C) Miosis
(D) Postural hypotension
(E) Tachycardia
Which of the following is an accepted therapeutic indication for the use of antimuscarinic drugs?
(A) Atrial fibrillation
(B) Botulinum poisoning
(C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
(D) Glaucoma
(E) Postoperative urinary retention
Which of the following is an expected effect of a therapeutic dose of an antimuscarinic drug?
(A) Decreased cAMP (cyclic adenosine monophosphate) in cardiac muscle
(B) Decreased DAG (diacylglycerol) in salivary gland tissue
(C) Increased IP3 (inositol trisphosphate) in intestinal smooth muscle
(D) Increased potassium efflux from smooth muscle
(E) Increased sodium influx into the skeletal muscle end plate
Which one of the following drugs causes vasodilation that can be blocked by atropine?
(A) Benztropine
(B) Bethanechol
(C) Botulinum toxin
(D) Cyclopentolate
(E) Edrophonium
(F) Neostigmine
(G) Pralidoxime
Which one of the following drugs has a very high affinity for the phosphorus atom in parathion and is often used to treat life-threatening insecticide toxicity?
(A) Atropine
(B) Benztropine
(C) Bethanechol
(D) Botulinum
(E) Cyclopentolate
(F) Neostigmine
(G) Pralidoxime
Questions 1 and 2. While playing in the garden, a 7-year-old boy is stung by 3 bees. Because he has a previous history of bee sting allergy, he is brought to the emergency department by his mother who is very concerned about a possible anaphylactic reaction. 1. Which of the following are probable signs of an anaphylactic reaction to bee stings?
(A) Bronchodilation, tachycardia, hypertension, vomiting, diarrhea
(B) Bronchospasm, tachycardia, hypotension, laryngeal edema
(C) Diarrhea, bradycardia, vomiting
(D) Laryngeal edema, bradycardia, hypotension, diarrhea
(E) Miosis, tachycardia, vomiting, diarrhea
2. If this child has signs of anaphylaxis, what is the treatment of choice?
(A) Diphenhydramine (an antihistamine)
(B) Ephedrine
(C) Epinephrine
(D) Isoproterenol
(E) Methylprednisolone (a corticosteroid)
A 65-year-old woman with impaired renal function and a necrotic ulcer in the sole of her right foot is admitted to the ward from the emergency department. She has longstanding type 2 diabetes mellitus and you wish to examine her retinas for possible vascular changes. Which of the following drugs is a good choice when pupillary dilation—but not cycloplegia—is desired?
(A) Isoproterenol
(B) Norepinephrine
(C) Phenylephrine
(D) Pilocarpine
(E) Tropicamide
A 60-year-old woman was told she had hypertension and should be taking antihypertensive medication. She decides to take an herbal medication from an online “holistic pharmacy.” One week after starting the medication, she is found unconscious in her apartment. In the emergency department, her blood pressure is 50/0 mm Hg and heart rate is 40 bpm. Respirations are 20/min; pupils are slightly constricted. Bowel sounds are present. Which of the following would be the most effective cardiovascular stimulant?
(A) Amphetamine
(B) Clonidine
(C) Isoproterenol
(D) Norepinephrine
(E) Tyramine
A group of volunteers are involved in a phase 1 clinical trial of a new autonomic drug. When administered by intravenous bolus, the blood pressure increases. When given orally for 1 week, the blood pressure decreases. Which of the following standard agents does the new drug most resemble?
(A) Atropine
(B) Clonidine
(C) Phentolamine (an α blocker)
(D) Phenylephrine
(E) Propranolol (a β blocker)
Your 30-year-old patient has moderately severe new onset asthma, and you prescribe a highly selective β2 agonist inhaler to be used when needed. In considering the possible drug effects in this patient, you would note that β2 stimulants frequently cause
(A) Direct stimulation of renin release
(B) Hypoglycemia
(C) Itching due to increased cGMP (cyclic guanine monophosphate)in mast cells
(D) Skeletal muscle tremor
(E) Vasodilation in the skin
Mr Green, a 54-year-old banker, had a cardiac transplant 6 months ago. His current blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg and heart rate is 100 bpm. Which of the following drugs would have the least effect on Mr Green’s heart rate?
(A) Albuterol
(B) Epinephrine
(C) Isoproterenol
(D) Norepinephrine
(E) Phenylephrine
A patient presents at the emergency department with threatened anaphylaxis. Respiratory obstruction appears likely if she is not treated immediately. Her past medical history includes hypertension, for which she is receiving an adrenoceptor blocker. The emergency physician plans to use epinephrine to treat her anaphylactic reaction. Which of the following effects of epinephrine would be blocked by prazosin but not by metoprolol?
(A) Cardiac stimulation
(B) Increase of cAMP (cyclic adenosine monophosphate) in fat cells
(C) Mydriasis
(D) Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle
(E) Relaxation of the uterus
Clinical studies have shown that adrenoceptor blockers have many useful effects in patients. However, a number of drug toxicities have been documented. Adverse effects that limit the use of adrenoceptor blockers include which one of the following?
(A) Bronchoconstriction (from α-blocking agents)
(B) Acute heart failure exacerbation (from β blockers)
(C) Impaired blood sugar response (with α blockers)
(D) Increased intraocular pressure (with β blockers)
(E) Sleep disturbances (from α-blocking drugs)
When given to a patient, phentolamine blocks which one of the following?
(A) Bradycardia induced by phenylephrine
(B) Bronchodilation induced by epinephrine
(C) Increased cardiac contractile force induced by norepinephrine
(D) Miosis induced by acetylcholine
(E) Vasodilation induced by isoproterenol
Your 75-year-old patient with multiple comorbidities is to receive a β-blocking drug. For which of the following conditions are β-blocking drugs NOT indicat
(A) Acute arrhythmias during surgery
(B) Atherosclerotic angina pectoris (angina of effort)
(C) Chronic heart failure
(D) Hypertension
(E) Hypoglycemia in diabetes
A 56-year-old man has hypertension and an enlarged prostate, which biopsy shows to be benign prostatic hyperplasia. He complains of urinary retention. Which of the following drugs would be the most appropriate initial therapy
(A) Albuterol
(B) Atenolol
(C) Metoprolol
(D) Prazosin
(E) Timolol
A 32-year-old woman with hypertension wishes to become pregnant. Her physician informs her that she will have to switch to another antihypertensive drug. Which of the following drugs is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy?
(A) Atenolol
(B) Losartan
(C) Methyldopa
(D) Nifedipine
(E) Propranolol
A patient is admitted to the emergency department with severe tachycardia after a drug overdose. His family reports that he has been depressed about his hypertension. Which one of the following drugs increases the heart rate in a dosedependent manner?
(A) Captopril
(B) Hydrochlorothiazide
(C) Losartan
(D) Minoxidil
(E) Verapamil
Which one of the following is characteristic of nifedipine treatment in patients with essential hypertension?
(A) Competitively blocks angiotensin II at its receptor
(B) Decreases calcium efflux from skeletal muscle
(C) Decreases renin concentration in the blood
(D) Decreases calcium influx into smooth muscle
(E) Increases calcium excretion in the urine
A 73-year-old man with a history of a recent change in his treatment for moderately severe hypertension is brought to the emergency department because of a fall at home. Which of the following drug groups is most likely to cause postural hypotension and thus an increased risk of falls?
(A) ACE inhibitors
(B) Alpha1-selective receptor blockers
(C) Arteriolar dilators
(D) Beta1-selective receptor blockers
(E) Calcium channel blockers
A significant number of patients started on ACE inhibitor therapy for hypertension are intolerant and must be switched to a different class of drug. What is the most common manifestation of this intolerance?
(A) Angioedema
(B) Glaucoma
(C) Headache
(D) Incessant cough
(E) Ventricular arrhythmias
Which one of the following is a significant unwanted effect of the drug named?
(A) Constipation with verapamil
(B) Heart failure with hydralazine
(C) Hemolytic anemia with atenolol
(D) Hypokalemia with aliskiren
(E) Lupus-like syndrome with hydrochlorothiazide
Comparison of prazosin with atenolol shows that
(A) Both decrease heart rate
(B) Both increase cardiac output
(C) Both increase renin secretion
(D) Both increase sympathetic outflow from the CNS
(E) Both produce orthostatic hypotension
A patient with hypertension and angina is referred for treatment. Metoprolol and verapamil are among the drugs considered. Both metoprolol and verapamil are associated with which one of the following?
(A) Diarrhea
(B) Hypoglycemia
(C) Increased PR interval
(D) Tachycardia
(E) Thyrotoxicosis
A 45-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with mental obtundation. He is found to have a blood pressure of 220/160 and retinal hemorrhages. Which one of the following is used in severe hypertensive emergencies, is shortacting, acts on a G-protein-coupled receptor, and must be given by intravenous infusion?
(A) Aliskiren
(B) Captopril
(C) Fenoldopam
(D) Hydralazine
(E) Losartan
(F) Metoprolol
(G) Nitroprusside
(H) Prazosin
(I) Propranolol
Which of the following is very short acting and acts by releasing nitric oxide
(A) Atenolol
(B) Captopril
(C) Diltiazem
(D) Fenoldopam
(E) Hydrochlorothiazide
(F) Losartan
(G) Minoxidil
(H) Nitroprusside
(I) Prazosin
Questions 1–4. A 57-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with a complaint of severe chest pain when she walks uphill in cold weather. The pain disappears when she rests. She has a 40-pack-year history of smoking but her plasma lipids are within the normal range. After evaluation and discussion of treatment options, a decision is made to treat her with nitroglycerin. 1. Which of the following is a common direct or reflex effect of nitroglycerin
(A) Decreased heart rate
(B) Decreased venous capacitance
(C) Increased afterload
(D) Increased cardiac force
(E) Increased diastolic myocardial fiber tension
2. In advising the patient about the adverse effects she may notice, you point out that nitroglycerin in moderate doses often produces certain symptoms. Which of the following effects might occur due to the mechanism listed?
(A) Constipation due to reduced colonic activity
(B) Dizziness due to reduced cardiac force of contraction
(C) Diuresis due to sympathetic discharge
(D) Headache due to meningeal vasodilation
(E) Hypertension due to reflex tachycardia
3. One year later, the patient returns complaining that her nitroglycerin works well when she takes it for an acute attack but that she is now having more frequent attacks and would like something to prevent them. Useful drugs for the prophylaxis of angina of effort includ
A) Amyl nitrite
(B) Esmolol
(C) Sublingual isosorbide dinitrate
(D) Sublingual nitroglycerin
(E) Verapami
4. If a β blocker were to be used for prophylaxis in this patient, what is the most probable mechanism of action in angina?
(A) Block of exercise-induced tachycardia
(B) Decreased end-diastolic ventricular volume
(C) Increased double product
(D) Increased cardiac force
(E) Decreased ventricular ejection time
A new 60-year-old patient presents to the medical clinic with hypertension and angina. He is 1.8 meters tall with a waist measurement of 1.1 m. Weight is 97 kg, blood pressure is 150/95, and pulse is 85. In considering adverse effects of possible drugs for these conditions, you note that an adverse effect that nitroglycerin and prazosin have in common is
(A) Bradycardia
(B) Impaired sexual function
(C) Lupus erythematosus syndrome
(D) Orthostatic hypotension
(E) Weight gain
A 25-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with a brownish cyanotic appearance, marked shortness of breath, and hypotension. He has needle marks in both arms. Which of the following is most likely to cause methemoglobinemia?
(A) Amyl nitrite
(B) Isosorbide dinitrate
(C) Isosorbide mononitrate
(D) Nitroglycerin
(E) Sodium cyanide
Another patient is admitted to the emergency department after a drug overdose. He is noted to have hypotension and severe bradycardia. He has been receiving therapy for hypertension and angina. Which of the following drugs in high doses causes bradycardia?
(A) Amlodipine
(B) Isosorbide dinitrate
(C) Nitroglycerin
(D) Prazosin
(E) Verapamil
A 45-year-old woman with hyperlipidemia and frequent migraine headaches develops angina of effort. Which of the following is relatively contraindicated because of her migraines?
(A) Amlodipine
(B) Diltiazem
(C) Metoprolol
(D) Nitroglycerin
(E) Verapamil
When nitrates are used in combination with other drugs for the treatment of angina, which one of the following combinations results in additive effects on the variable specified?
(A) Beta blockers and nitrates on end-diastolic cardiac size
(B) Beta blockers and nitrates on heart rate
(C) Beta blockers and nitrates on venous tone
(D) Calcium channel blockers and β blockers on cardiac force
(E) Calcium channel blockers and nitrates on heart rate
Certain drugs can cause severe hypotension when combined with nitrates. Which of the following interacts with nitroglycerin by inhibiting the metabolism of cGMP?
(A) Atenolol
(B) Hydralazine
(C) Isosorbide mononitrate
(D) Nifedipine
(E) Ranolazine
(F) Sildenafil
(G) Terbutaline
Questions 1–2. A 73-year-old man with an inadequate response to other drugs is to receive digoxin for chronic heart failure. He is in normal sinus rhythm with a heart rate of 88 and blood pressure of 135/85 mm Hg1. Which of the following is the best-documented mechanism of beneficial action of cardiac glycosides?
(A) A decrease in calcium uptake by the sarcoplasmic reticulum
(B) An increase in a late transmembrane sodium current
(C) A modification of the actin molecule
(D) An increase in systolic cytoplasmic calcium levels
(E) A block of cardiac β adrenoceptors
2. After your patient has been receiving digoxin for 3 weeks, he presents to the emergency department with an arrhythmia. Which one of the following is most likely to contribute to the arrhythmogenic effect of digoxin?
(A) Increased parasympathetic discharge
(B) Increased intracellular calcium
(C) Decreased sympathetic discharge
(D) Decreased intracellular ATP
(E) Increased extracellular potassium
A patient who has been taking digoxin for several years for atrial fibrillation and chronic heart failure is about to receive atropine for another condition. A common effect of digoxin (at therapeutic blood levels) that can be almost entirely blocked by atropine is
(A) Decreased appetite
(B) Headaches
(C) Increased atrial contractility
(D) Increased PR interval on ECG
(E) Tachycardia
A 65-year-old woman has been admitted to the coronary care unit with a left ventricular myocardial infarction. She develops acute severe heart failure with marked pulmonary edema, but no evidence of peripheral edema. Which one of the following drugs would be most useful?
(A) Digoxin
(B) Furosemide
(C) Minoxidil
(D) Propranolol
(E) Spironolactone
A 72-year-old woman has long-standing heart failure. Which one of the following drugs has been shown to reduce mortality in chronic heart failure
(A) Atenolol
(B) Digoxin
(C) Furosemide
(D) Nitroprusside
(E) Spironolactone
Which of the following drugs increases the plasma levels of endogenous BNP and also blocks angiotensin receptors?
(A) Furosemide
(B) Losartan
(C) Nesiritide
(D) Sacubitril
(E) Spironolactone
Which one of the following drugs is associated with clinically useful or physiologically important positive inotropic effect?
(A) Captopril
(B) Dobutamine
(C) Enalapril
(D) Losartan
(E) Nesiritide
A 68-year-old man with a history of chronic heart failure goes on vacation and abandons his low-salt diet. Three days later, he develops severe shortness of breath and is admitted to the local hospital emergency department with significant pulmonary edema. The first-line drug of choice in most cases of acute decompensation in patients with chronic heart failure is
(A) Atenolol
(B) Captopril
(C) Carvedilol
(D) Digoxin
(E) Diltiazem
(F) Dobutamine
(G) Enalapril
(H) Furosemide
(I) Metoprolol
(J) Spironolactone
Which of the following has been shown to prolong life in patients with chronic congestive failure in spite of having a negative inotropic effect on cardiac contractility?Which of the following has been shown to prolong life in patients with chronic congestive failure in spite of having a negative inotropic effect on cardiac contractility?
(A) Carvedilol
(B) Digoxin
(C) Dobutamine
(D) Enalapril
(E) Furosemide
A 5-year-old child was vomiting and was brought to the emergency department with sinus arrest and a ventricular rate of 35 bpm. An empty bottle of his uncle’s digoxin was found where he was playing. Which of the following is the drug of choice in treating a severe overdose of digoxin?
(A) Digoxin antibodies
(B) Lidocaine infusion
(C) Magnesium infusion
(D) Phenytoin by mouth
(E) Potassium by mouth
Questions 1 and 2. A 76-year-old retired postal worker with rheumatoid arthritis and chronic heart disease presents with a cardiac arrhythmia and is being considered for treatment with procainamide. She is already receiving an ACE inhibitor, digoxin, and hydrochlorothiazide for her cardiac condition. 1. In deciding on a treatment regimen with procainamide for this patient, which of the following statements is most correct?
(A) A probable drug interaction with digoxin suggests that digoxin blood levels should be obtained before and after starting procainamide.
(B) Hyperkalemia should be avoided to reduce the likelihood of procainamide toxicity.
(C) Procainamide cannot be used if the patient has asthma because it has a β-blocking effect.
(D) Procainamide cannot be used if the patient has angina because it has a β-agonist effect.
(E) Procainamide is not active by the oral route.
2. If this patient should take an overdose and manifest severe acute procainamide toxicity with markedly prolonged QRS, which of the following should be given immediately?
A) A calcium chelator such as EDTA
(B) Adenosine
(C) Nitroprusside
(D) Potassium chloride
(E) Sodium lactate
A 54-year-old airline pilot is admitted to the emergency department with chest pain and a rapid heart rhythm. The ECG shows an inferior myocardial infarction and ventricular tachycardia. Amiodarone is ordered. Amiodarone
(A) Decreases PR interval in normal sinus rhythm
(B) Increases action potential duration
(C) Increases contractility
(D) Often causes liver function abnormalities
(E) Reduces resting potential
A 36-year-old woman with a history of poorly controlled thyrotoxicosis has recurrent episodes of tachycardia with severe shortness of breath. During elective surgery to remove her thyroid, she develops a heart rate of 200 with a slightly decreased blood pressure. Which of the following drugs would be most suitable?
A) Amiodarone
(B) Disopyramide
(C) Esmolol
(D) Quinidine
(E) Verapamil
A 16-year-old girl has paroxysmal attacks of rapid heart rate with palpitations and shortness of breath. These episodes occasionally terminate spontaneously but often require a visit to the emergency department of the local hospital. Her ECG during these episodes reveals an AV nodal tachycardia. Which of the following drugs would be most suitable for prophylaxis of future episodes of acute AV nodal tachycardia?
(A) Adenosine
(B) Amiodarone
(C) Flecainide
(D) Propranolol
(E) Verapamil
A 55-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department and is found to have an abnormal ECG. Overdose of an antiarrhythmic drug is considered. Which of the following drugs is correctly paired with its ECG effects?
(A) Quinidine: Increased PR and decreased QT intervals
(B) Flecainide: Increased QRS interval
(C) Verapamil: Decreased PR interval
(D) Lidocaine: Decreased QRS and PR interval
(E) Metoprolol: Increased QRS duration
A 60-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with atypical chest pain. Her ECG reveals ventricular tachycardia with rare normal sinus beats, and ST-segment elevation. Troponin C levels are markedly increased, suggesting myocardial damage. A diagnosis of myocardial infarction is made, and the woman is admitted to the cardiac intensive care unit. Her arrhythmia will probably be treated initially with
(A) Adenosine
(B) Digoxin
(C) Lidocaine
(D) Quinidine
(E) Verapamil
Which of the following drugs slows conduction through the AV node and has a duration of action of 10–20 seconds?
(A) Adenosine
(B) Amiodarone
(C) Diltiazem
(D) Esmolol
(E) Flecainide
(F) Lidocaine
(G) Mexiletine
(H) Procainamide
(I) Quinidine
When working in outlying areas, this 62-year-old rancher is away from his house for 12–14 h at a time. He has an arrhythmia that requires chronic therapy. Which of the following has the longest half-life of all antiarrhythmic drugs
(A) Adenosine
(B) Amiodarone
(C) Disopyramide
(D) Esmolol
(E) Flecainide
(F) Lidocaine
(G) Mexiletine
(H) Procainamide
(I) Quinidine
(J) Verapam
A 70-year-old retired businessman with a history of chronic heart failure has been taking digoxin and furosemide. He is now admitted with a history of vomiting, acute decompensated heart failure, and metabolic derangements. He has marked peripheral edema and metabolic alkalosis (pH, 7.50; pCO2, 45; HCO3, 36; Na+ , 140). Which of the following drugs is most appropriate for the treatment of his edema?
(A) Acetazolamide
(B) Digoxin
(C) Eplerenone
(D) Hydrochlorothiazide
(E) Tolvaptan
A 50-year-old man has a history of frequent episodes of renal colic with calcium-containing renal stones. A careful workup indicates that he has a defect in proximal tubular calcium reabsorption, which results in high concentrations of calcium salts in the tubular urine. The most useful diuretic agent in the treatment of recurrent calcium stones is
(A) Chlorthalidone
(B) Diazoxide
(C) Ethacrynic acid
(D) Mannitol
(E) Spironolactone
Which of the following is an important effect of chronic therapy with loop diuretics?
(A) Decreased urinary excretion of calcium
(B) Elevation of blood pressure
(C) Elevation of pulmonary vascular pressure
(D) Metabolic alkalosis
(E) Teratogenic action in pregnancy
Which of the following diuretics would be most useful in the acute treatment of a comatose patient with traumatic brain injury and cerebral edema?
(A) Acetazolamide
(B) Amiloride
(C) Chlorthalidone
(D) Furosemide
(E) Mannitol
A 62-year-old man with advanced prostate cancer is admitted to the emergency department with mental obtundation. An electrolyte panel shows a serum calcium of 16.5 (normal 8.5–10.5 mg/dL). Which of the following therapies would be most useful in the management of severe hypercalcemia?
(A) Acetazolamide plus saline infusion
(B) Furosemide plus saline infusion
(C) Hydrochlorothiazide plus saline infusion
(D) Mannitol plus saline infusion
(E) Spironolactone plus saline infusion
A 60-year-old patient complains of paresthesias and occasional nausea associated with one of the drugs she is taking. She is found to have hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis. She is probably taking
(A) Acetazolamide for glaucoma
(B) Amiloride for edema associated with aldosteronism
(C) Furosemide for severe hypertension and heart failure
(D) Hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension
(E) Mannitol for cerebral edema
A 70-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency department because of a “fainting spell” at home. She appears to have suffered no trauma from her fall, but her blood pressure is 120/60 when lying down and 60/20 when she sits up. Neurologic examination and an ECG are within normal limits when she is lying down. Questioning reveals that she has recently started taking “water pills” (diuretics) for a heart condition. Which of the following drugs is the most likely cause of her fainting spell?
(A) Acetazolamide
(B) Amiloride
(C) Furosemide
(D) Hydrochlorothiazide
(E) Spironolactone
A 58-year-old woman with lung cancer has abnormally low serum osmolality and hyponatremia. A drug that increases the formation of dilute urine and is used to treat SIADH is
(A) Acetazolamide
(B) Amiloride
(C) Desmopressin
(D) Ethacrynic acid
(E) Furosemide
(F) Hydrochlorothiazide
(G) Mannitol
(H) Spironolactone
(I) Triamterene
(J) Tolvaptan
A graduate student is planning to make a high-altitude climb in South America while on vacation. He will not have time to acclimate slowly to altitude. A drug that is useful in preventing high-altitude sicknes
(A) Acetazolamide
(B) Amiloride
(C) Demeclocycline
(D) Desmopressin
(E) Ethacrynic acid
Your 37-year-old patient has been diagnosed with a rare metastatic carcinoid tumor. This neoplasm is releasing serotonin, bradykinin, and several unknown peptides. The effects of serotonin in this patient are most likely to include
(A) Constipation
(B) Episodes of bronchospasm
(C) Hypersecretion of gastric acid
(D) Hypotension
(E) Urinary retention
A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. Examination reveals significant laryngeal edema. Past medical history indicates that she suffers from recurrent episodes of angioneurotic edema with release of histamine and other mediators. Which of the following drugs is the most effective physiologic antagonist of histamine in smooth muscle?
(A) Epinephrine
(B) Loratadine
(C) Ondansetron
(D) Ranitidine
(E) Sumatriptan
A 20-year-old woman is taking over-the-counter diphenhydramine for severe hay fever. Which of the following adverse effects is she most likely to report?
(A) Muscarinic increase in bladder tone
(B) Nausea
(C) Nervousness, anxiety
(D) Sedation
(E) Vertigo
A laboratory study of new H2 blockers is planned. Which of the following will result from blockade of H2 receptors?
(A) Increased cAMP (cyclic adenosine monophosphate)
In cardiac muscle
(B) Decreased channel opening in enteric nerves
(C) Decreased cAMP in gastric mucosa
(D) Increased IP3 (inositol trisphosphate) in platelets
(E) Increased IP3 in smooth muscle
An obese 40-year-old man (BMI 31) is being seen in the cardio-pulmonary clinic for pulmonary hypertension and a cardiac murmur. He took fenfluramine for several years in an attempt to reduce his weight. The mechanism by which fenfluramine affected appetite is:
(A) 5-HT2 agonist action
(B) Amphetamine-mimetic action
(C) Anti-opioid/antidepressant action
(D) Glucagon-like peptide (GLP) agonist action
(E) Intestinal lipase inhibition
A 40-year-old patient with breast cancer is about to undergo cancer chemotherapy with a highly emetogenic (nausea- and vomiting-causing) drug combination. The antiemetic drug most likely to be included in her regimen is
(A) Bromocriptine
(B) Cetirizine
(C) Cimetidine
(D) Ketanserin
(E) Ondansetron
The hospital pharmacy committee is preparing a formulary for staff use. Which of the following is a correct application of the drug mentioned?
(A) Alosetron: for obstetric bleeding
(B) Cetirizine: for hay fever
(C) Ergonovine: for Alzheimer’s disease
(D) Ondansetron: for acute migraine headache
(E) Ranitidine: for Parkinson’s disease
A 26-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea and galactorrhea. Her prolactin level is grossly elevated (200 ng/mL vs normal 20 ng/mL). Which of the following is most useful in the treatment of hyperprolactinemia?
(A) Bromocriptine
(B) Cimetidine
(C) Ergotamine
(D) Ketanserin
(E) LSD
(F) Ondansetron
(G) Sumatriptan
A 28-year-old office worker suffers from intense migraine headaches. Which of the following is a serotonin 5-HT1D/1B agonist useful for aborting an acute migraine headache?
(A) Bromocriptine
(B) Cimetidine
(C) Ephedrine
(D) Ketanserin
(E) Loratadine
(F) Ondansetron
(G) Sumatriptan
A 33-year-old woman attempted to induce an abortion using ergotamine. She is admitted to the emergency department with severe pain in both legs. On examination, her legs are cold and pale with absent arterial pulses. Which of the following is the most useful antidote for reversing severe ergotinduced vasospasm
(A) Bromocriptine
(B) Cimetidine
(C) Ergotamine
(D) Ketanserin
(E) LSD
(F) Nitroprusside
(G) Sumatriptan
(H) Ondansetron
Field workers exposed to a plant toxin develop painful fluidfilled blisters. Analysis of the blister fluid reveals high concentrations of a peptide. Which of the following is a peptide that causes increased capillary permeability and edema?
(A) Angiotensin II
(B) Bradykinin
(C) Captopril
(D) Histamine
(E) Sacubitril
In a laboratory study of several peptides, one is found that decreases peripheral resistance but constricts veins. Which of the following causes arteriolar vasodilation and venoconstriction?
(A) Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
(B) Bradykinin
(C) Endothelin-1
(D) Substance P
(E) Vasoactive intestinal peptide
Which of the following endogenous molecules is elevated in heart failure and when given as a drug is a vasodilator with significant renal toxicity?
(A) Angiotensin I
(B) Angiotensin II
(C) BNP (nesiritide)
(D) Histamine
(E) Vasoactive intestinal peptide
A 50-year-old factory worker presents with cardio-respiratory symptoms and careful workup reveals idiopathic pulmonary hypertension. Which of the following binds endothelin receptors and is approved for use in pulmonary hypertension?
(A) Aliskiren
(B) Capsaicin
(C) Conivaptan
(D) Macitentan
(E) Sacubitril
A 60-year-old financial consultant presents with severe pain in a neuronal dermatome region of her chest. This area was previously affected by a herpes zoster rash. Which of the following might be of benefit in controlling this postherpetic pain?
(A) Aliskiren
(B) Aprepitant
(C) Bosentan
(D) Capsaicin
(E) Captopril
(F) Losartan
(G) Macitentan
In a phase 2 clinical trial in hypertensive patients, an endogenous octapeptide vasoconstrictor was found to increase in the blood of patients treated with large doses of diuretics. Which of the following is the most likely endogenous peptide?
(A) Angiotensin I
(B) Angiotensin II
(C) Atrial natriuretic peptide
(D) Bradykinin
(E) Calcitonin gene-related peptide
(F) Endothelin
(G) Neuropeptide Y
(H) Substance P
(I) Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)
Which of the following is a vasodilator that increases in the blood or tissues of patients treated with captopril?
(A) Angiotensin II
(B) Bradykinin
(C) Brain natriuretic peptide
(D) Calcitonin gene-related peptide
(E) Endothelin
(F) Neuropeptide Y
(G) Vasopressin (AVP)
Which of the following is an antagonist at NK1 receptors and is used to prevent or reduce chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting?
(A) Angiotensin I
(B) Aprepitant
(C) Bosentan
(D) Bradykinin
(E) Brain natriuretic peptide
(F) Enalapril
(G) Ondansetron
A 35-year-old woman with moderately severe arthritis has been treated with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for 6 mo. Her arthritis symptoms have been well controlled. She now complains of heartburn and indigestion. A fecal blood test is positive. You give her a prescription for a drug to be taken along with the anti-inflammatory agent, but 2 d later she calls the office complaining that your last prescription has caused severe diarrhea and cramping that resembles her periods. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with increased gastrointestinal motility and uterine cramping?A 35-year-old woman with moderately severe arthritis has been treated with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for 6 mo. Her arthritis symptoms have been well controlled. She now complains of heartburn and indigestion. A fecal blood test is positive. You give her a prescription for a drug to be taken along with the anti-inflammatory agent, but 2 d later she calls the office complaining that your last prescription has caused severe diarrhea and cramping that resembles her periods. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with increased gastrointestinal motility and uterine cramping?
(A) Aspirin
(B) Famotidine
(C) Leukotriene LTB4
(D) Misoprostol
(E) Zileuton
Which mechanism explains aspirin’s inhibition of thromboxane synthesis?
(A) Blocks cyclooxygenase
(B) Blocks lipoxygenase
(C) Blocks phospholipase A2
(D) Blocks PGE1 receptors
(E) Blocks PGI2 receptors
A 57-year-old man has severe pulmonary hypertension and right ventricular hypertrophy. Which of the following agents causes vasodilation and may be useful in pulmonary hypertension?
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Bradykinin
(C) Prostaglandin PGF2α
(D) Prostacyclin
(E) Thromboxane
A 19-year-old woman complains of severe dysmenorrhea. A uterine stimulant derived from membrane lipid in the endometrium
(A) Angiotensin II
(B) Oxytocin
(C) Prostacyclin (PGI2)
(D) Prostaglandin PGF2α
(E) Serotonin
Inflammation is a complex tissue reaction that includes the release of cytokines, leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and peptides. Leukotrienes involved in inflammatory processes are typically produced from arachidonic acid by which of the following enzymes?
(A) Cyclooxygenase-1
(B) Cyclooxygenase-2
(C) Glutathione-S-transferase
(D) Lipoxygenase
(E) Phospholipase A2
A newborn infant is diagnosed with transposition of the great vessels, wherein the aorta exits from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery from the left ventricle. Which of the following drugs is likely to be used in preparation for surgical correction of this anomaly?
(A) Aspirin
(B) Leukotriene LTC4
(C) Prednisone
(D) Prostaglandin PGE1
(E) Prostaglandin PGF2α
A patient with a positive fecal blood test is referred to the gastroenterology clinic. He is apparently taking large amounts of an unidentified drug that inhibits platelet activity. Which of the following is taken orally and directly and reversibly inhibits platelet cyclooxygenase?
(A) Alprostadil
(B) Aspirin
(C) Ibuprofen
(D) Leukotriene LTC4
(E) Misoprostol
(F) Prednisone
(G) Prostacyclin
(H) Zafirlukast
(I) Zileuton
Which of the following is a component of slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis (SRS-A)?
(A) Alprostadil
(B) Aspirin
(C) Leukotriene LTB4
(D) Leukotriene LTC4
(E) Misoprostol
(F) Prednisone
(G) Prostacyclin
(H) Zafirlukast
(I) Zileuton
A 17-year-old patient complains that he develops wheezing and severe shortness of breath whenever he takes aspirin for headache. Increased levels of which of the following may be responsible, in part, for some cases of aspirin hypersensitivity
(A) Alprostadil
(B) Hydrocortisone
(C) Ibuprofen
(D) Leukotriene LTC4
(E) Misoprostol
(F) PGE2
(G) Prostacyclin
(H) Thromboxane
(I) Zileuton
Which of the following is a leukotriene receptor blocker?
(A) Alprostadil
(B) Aspirin
(C) Ibuprofen
(D) Leukotriene LTC4
(E) Montelukast
(F) Prednisone
(G) Prostacyclin
(H) Zileuton
Which one of the following is not a nitric oxide donor but causes it to be synthesized and released from endogenous precursors, resulting in vasodilation?
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Arginine
(C) Isosorbide mononitrate
(D) Nitroglycerin
(E) Nitroprusside
An NO-containing molecule that releases nitric oxide in the blood is
(A) Citrulline
(B) Histamine
(C) Isoproterenol
(D) Nitroglycerin
(E) Nitroprusside
The inducible isoform of nitric oxide synthase (iNOS, isoform 2) is found primarily in which of the following?
A) Adipose tissue
(B) Eosinophils
(C) Macrophages
(D) Platelets
(E) Vascular endothelial cells
The primary endogenous substrate for the enzyme nitric oxide synthase (NOS) is
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Angiotensinogen
(C) Arginine
(D) Citrulline
(E) Heme
Which of the following is a recognized effect of nitric oxide (NO)?
(A) Arrhythmia
(B) Bronchoconstriction
(C) Constipation
(D) Inhibition of acute graft rejection
(E) Pulmonary vasodilation
Which of the following is an endogenous inhibitor/inactivator of nitric oxide?
(A) Arginine
(B) Angiotensinogen
(C) Arachidonic acid
(D) Hemoglobin
(E) Thromboxane
One effect that theophylline, nitroglycerin, isoproterenol, and histamine have in common is
(A) Direct stimulation of cardiac contractile force
(B) Tachycardia
(C) Bronchodilation
(D) Postural hypotension
(E) Throbbing headache
A 23-year-old woman is using an albuterol inhaler for frequent acute episodes of asthma and complains of symptoms that she ascribes to the albuterol. Which of the following is not a recognized action of albuterol?
(A) Diuretic effect
(B) Positive inotropic effect
(C) Skeletal muscle tremor
(D) Smooth muscle relaxation
(E) Tachycardia
A 19-year-old college student has well-controlled asthma but on reporting to the college health clinic, complains of a sore throat. On examination, he has typical signs of thrush, a fungal infection with Candida albicans. The asthma controller medication most likely to be associated with Candida infection is:
(A) Albuterol by aerosol
(B) Beclomethasone by aerosol
(C) Ipratropium by inhaler
(D) Prednisone by mouth
(E) Theophylline in long-acting oral form
Questions 4–5. A 16-year-old patient is in the emergency department receiving nasal oxygen. She has a heart rate of 125 bpm, a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min, and a peak expiratory flow <50% of the predicted value. Wheezing and rales are audible without a stethoscope. 4. Which of the following drugs can be used by nebulizer for a prompt direct bronchodilator effect in severe, acute asthma?
(A) Albuterol
(B) Ipratropium
(C) Prednisone
(D) Salmeterol
(E) Theophylline
5. After successful treatment of the acute attack, the patient was referred to the outpatient clinic for follow-up treatment for asthma. Which of the following is not an established prophylactic strategy for asthma
(A) Avoidance of antigen exposure
(B) Blockade of histamine receptors
(C) Blockade of leukotriene receptors
(D) IL-5 cytokine blockade
(E) Inhibition of phospholipase A2
Mr Green is a 60-year-old former smoker with cardiac disease and severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) associated with frequent episodes of bronchospasm. Which of the following is a bronchodilator useful in COPD and least likely to cause cardiac arrhythmia?
(A) Aminophylline
(B) Cromolyn
(C) Epinephrine
(D) Ipratropium
(E) Metaproterenol
(F) Metoprolol
(G) Prednisone
(H) Salmeterol
(I) Zafirlukast
(J) Zileuton
A 22-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after suffering seizures resulting from an overdose of a drug he has been taking. His friends state that he took the drug orally and sometimes had insomnia after taking it. Which of the following is a direct bronchodilator that is most often used in asthma by the oral route and is capable of causing insomnia and seizures?
(A) Cromolyn
(B) Epinephrine
(C) Ipratropium
(D) Metaproterenol
(E) Metoprolol
(F) Prednisone
(G) Salmeterol
(H) Theophylline
(I) Zileuton
Which of the following in its parenteral form is life-saving in severe status asthmaticus and acts, at least in part, by inhibiting phospholipase A2?
(A) Aminophylline
(B) Cromolyn
(C) Epinephrine
(D) Ipratropium
(E) Metaproterenol
(F) Metoprolol
(G) Prednisone
(H) Salmeterol
(I) Zafirlukast
(J) Zileuton
Which of the following has a slow onset but long duration of action and is always used in combination with a corticosteroid by inhalation
(A) Aminophylline
(B) Cromolyn
(C) Epinephrine
(D) Ipratropium
(E) Metaproterenol
(F) Metoprolol
(G) Prednisone/prednisolone
(H) Salmeterol
(I) Zafirlukast
(J) Zileuton
Oral medications are popular for the treatment of asthma in children because young children may have difficulty with the proper use of aerosol inhalers. Which of the following is an orally active inhibitor of leukotriene receptors?
(A) Albuterol
(B) Aminophylline
(C) Ipratropium
(D) Zafirlukast
(E) Zileuton
{"name":"A 3-year-old is brought to the emergency department having just ingested a large overdose of chlorpropamide, an oral antidiabetic drug. Chlorpropamide is a weak acid with a pKa of 5.0. It is capable of entering most tissues. On physical examination, t", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"A 3-year-old is brought to the emergency department having just ingested a large overdose of chlorpropamide, an oral antidiabetic drug. Chlorpropamide is a weak acid with a pKa of 5.0. It is capable of entering most tissues. On physical examination, the heart rate is 110\/min, blood pressure 90\/50 mm Hg, and respiratory rate 30\/min. Which of the following statements about this case of chlorpropamide overdose is most correct?, Botulinum toxin is a large protein molecule. Its action on cholinergic transmission depends on an intracellular action within nerve endings. Which one of the following processes is best suited for permeation of very large protein molecules into cells?, A 12-year-old child has bacterial pharyngitis and is to receive an oral antibiotic. She complains of a sore throat and pain on swallowing. The tympanic membranes are slightly reddened bilaterally, but she does not complain of earache. Blood pressure is 105\/70 mm Hg, heart rate 100\/min, temperature 37.8°C (100.1°F). Ampicillin is a weak organic acid with a pKa of 2.5. What percentage of a given dose will be in the lipidsoluble form in the duodenum at a pH of 4.5?","img":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/3012/images/ogquiz.png"}
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