Surgery Anesthesia Midterm Part 1
Surgery Anesthesia Mastery Quiz
Welcome to the Surgery Anesthesia Midterm Part 1! This comprehensive quiz is designed to test your knowledge on anesthetic techniques, medications, and best practices in a surgical setting. Whether you are a veterinary technician, a student, or simply a curious individual, this quiz will help you gauge your understanding of anesthesia in the surgical realm.
- 89 carefully crafted questions
- Covers various aspects of surgery and anesthesia
- Ideal for veterinary professionals and students
When were anesthetic techniques refined to the point of the practical and widespread use of agents?
Early 1900s
In the early part of the fifteenth century BC
Mid-1800s
Between the 1500s and the 1700s
The first anesthetic agent used successfully in a tumor removal surgery as a means of creating a state of insensibility and pain relief was:
nitrous oxide.
Chloroform
halothane.
diethyl ether.
The use of injectable anesthetics as an alternative to inhalant agents in veterinary medicine began in the:
1930s
1950s.
1980s.
1960s
Which organization was recognized in 1999 by the National Association of Veterinary Technicians in America that offers specialization to credentialed technicians with an interest in veterinary anesthesia and analgesia?
American College of Veterinary Anesthesia and Analgesia
Academy of Veterinary Technician Anesthetists
International Veterinary Academy of Pain Management
Association of Veterinary Anaesthetists
Who is credited with suggesting the term anesthesia to describe the state of insensibility to painful stimuli?
Harold Davis
Thomas Locke
Oliver Wendell Holmes
William T. G. Morton
Which term literally means without feeling and is defined as a loss of sensation?
Hypnosis
Analgesia
Epidural
Anesthesia
Which state of anesthesia is defined as a reversible state of unconsciousness, immobility, muscle relaxation, and loss of sensation throughout the entire body produced by the administration of one or more anesthetic agents?
Epidural
General anesthesia
Hypnosis
Regional nerve block
A stage of anesthesia that has a sufficient loss of sensitivity to pain and muscle relaxation to allow for the performance of surgery without the pain or movement is
local anesthesia.
Narcosis
analgesia.
surgical anesthesia.
A state in which a patient is aware or unaware of the surroundings but can be easily aroused by a noxious stimulant is referred to as:
hypnosis.
narcosis.
sedation.
Tranquilization
The application of an anesthetic directly to the body surface to create a localized loss of sensation is referred to as:
regional anesthesia.
epidural anesthesia.
topical anesthesia.
balanced anesthesia.
The use of a premedication such as acepromazine along with anesthesia induction with propofol, maintenance of isoflurane, and bupivacaine placed near the sensory nerves would be an example of:
epidural anesthesia.
balanced anesthesia.
regional anesthesia.
topical anesthesia.
Which of the following is not a role of the credentialed veterinary technician in regard to the practice of anesthesia?
Preparation, operation, and maintenance of the anesthetic equipment
Administering the anesthetic agents
Deciding which drugs will be used for the anesthesia event
Patient monitoring during the procedure
The term hypnosis refers to:
a drug-induced sleeplike state that impairs the ability of the patient to respond appropriately to stimuli.
the loss of sensitivity to pain.
a drug-induced sleep from which the patient cannot be easily aroused.
a drug-induced state of calm in which the animal is reluctant to move and is aware of but not concerned about its surroundings.
Which of the following statements is true about anesthesia?
The anesthetist must approach any anesthetic procedure with a genuine willingness to take personal responsibility for the well-being of the patient.
It is not necessary to constantly monitor vital signs in anesthetic patients.
Only a few anesthetic agents have an effect on the cardiovascular system.
Most anesthetic agents have a very wide therapeutic index allowing for minor errors in dosage calculations.
Which of the following fasting times is least advisable?
Cow: 24 to 48 hours
Dog: 8 to 12 hours
Small ruminant: 12 to 18 hours
Horse: 2 to 4 hours
Which of the following examples of species associations is not correct?
Large animals are prone to respiratory depression and dependent atelectasis and thus often require ventilatory support.
The use of anticholinergics is recommended in ruminants to avoid airway occlusion.
Horses and cats are more sensitive to opioids than dogs and ruminants.
Horses may fracture limbs during anesthetic recovery and thus require special attention during the recovery period.
Which of the following is not a crystalloid solution?
5% Dextrose
Normal saline solution
Dextran
Lactated Ringer’s solution
Which of the following statements regarding physical examination findings is incorrect?
Anemia predisposes the patient to hypoxemia.
Dehydration increases the risk of hypotension.
Patients with bruising may be at higher risk for potentially life-threatening intraoperative and postoperative bleeding.
A dog with a body condition score of 8/9 will require more anesthetic per unit body weight than a dog of the same breed with a body condition score of 5/9.
You are evaluating a patient’s LOC and find the patient in a sleeplike state, nonresponsive to a verbal stimulus but arousable by a painful stimulus. This patient is:
Comatose
Obtunded
Lethargic
Stuporous
Using the ASA Physical Status Classification system, a patient that is moderately anemic or moderately dehydrated would be classified as:
Class P1
Class P4
Class P2
Class P3
Class P5
Which of the following signs of disease in a calm canine patient would be most significant in terms of the potential to increase the risk of anesthesia?
Lethargy
A sinus arrhythmia
Increased respiratory effort
A body temperature of 103.4° F
The delivery rate of a microdrip administration set is:
20 or 60 gtt/mL
60 gtt/mL
10 or 15 gtt/mL
10 gtt/mL only
Which of the following heart rhythms is not normal in a resting horse?
Third-degree AV block
NSR
Second-degree AV block
SA
You are evaluating a patient’s hydration. The skin elasticity is mildly slowed, the patient’s mucous membranes are tacky, the CRT is 1.5 seconds, but the eyes are in a normal position in the orbit. Your patient is:
Greater than 10% dehydrated
Approximately 5% dehydrated
Approximately 8% dehydrated
Hydrated
Which of the following statements regarding electrolyte composition of fluids is incorrect?
Intravascular fluid has more negatively charged particles than positively charged particles.
Extracellular fluid contains more sodium than intracellular fluid.
Intracellular fluid contains more potassium than intravascular fluid.
The osmolarity of intracellular fluid is similar to that of extracellular fluid.
Which of the following is not a sign of fluid overload?
Increased lung sounds and respiratory rate
Hypotension
Dyspnea
Ocular and nasal discharge
In gathering a patient history, which of the following would be the best way to frame a question about a patient’s exercise level?
“Your dog does not exercise much, does he, Mrs. Jones?”
“Does your dog exercise, Mrs. Jones?”
“You don’t give your dog as much exercise as you should, do you, Mrs. Jones?”
“How many times a week does your pet go for a walk or exercise, Mrs. Jones?”
The fluid type most appropriate to replace moderate losses from dehydration would be:
50% Dextrose
Colloids
Hypertonic saline
Isotonic crystalloids
Which of the following statements regarding IV catheter placement and use in anesthesia patients is incorrect?
Choose a catheter that is small in diameter to minimize the risk of bleeding.
Choose an administration set with an injection port.
Give all IV drugs slowly unless told otherwise.
Always follow IV injections through a catheter with sterile saline flush.
Which of the following general guidelines about body fluids in a normal adult animal is incorrect?
Blood plasma makes up about 5% of the total body weight.
About 40% of the body weight is water.
About two thirds of the total body water is inside the cells.
Dogs have a larger total blood volume than cats.
Which of the following figures represents a fluid infusion rate as defined in this chapter?
10 mL/kg/hr
500 mL total
1 gtt/sec
100 mL/hr
Which of the following species or breeds must be watched especially closely during any anesthetic procedure to ensure a patent airway?
Brachycephalic breeds
Cats and horses
Exotic breeds
Sighthounds
Regarding fluid infusion rates, which of the following is TRUE:
Surgery patients with blood loss may require colloids instead of crystalloids.
Standard shock doses of fluids are about the same as doses used during routine surgery.
Hypertonic saline is administered in large volumes to patients in shock.
Crystalloids are generally given at lower administration rates than colloids to treat shock.
Preanesthetic blood tests may include Alk phos and ALT to evaluate the ________ and BUN and creatinine to evaluate the ________ prior to anesthesia.
kidneys, liver
liver, pancreas
liver, kidneys
pancreas, kidneys
Sedation is different from tranquilization because
sedation provides relaxation and decreased anxiety while tranquilization provides calmness and drowsiness
sedation provides drowsiness and tranquilization provides pain relief
sedation relieves pain while tranquilization provides relaxation
sedation involves calming and drowsiness while tranquiization provides relaxation and reduction of anxiety
Which statement about the use of preanesthetic drugs is false?
Preanesthetic drugs can make induction and recovery smoother.
Preanesthetic drugs increase the amount of other anesthetic drugs needed.
Preanesthetic drugs can calm anxious, frightened, excited animals.
Preanesthetic drugs can produce muscle relaxation.
The four parts of an anesthetic protocol include
premedication, induction, maintenance, recovery
preanesthetic, induction, intubation, recovery
preanesthetic, injectable, oral, topical
premedication, anesthetic induction, intubation, maintenance anesthesia
Giving induction agents IV is preferred because
it lasts longer than other routes
it works quicker than other routes
it's more painful then other routes
it affects the brain differently than other routes
Anticholinergic agents are used to
prevent tachycardia in anesthetic patients
prevent hyperkalemia in anesthetic patients
prevent a decrease in GI motility
prevent bradycardia in anesthetic patients
Maintenance of anesthesia depends on
the patient's age
the amount of anesthetic delivered to the lungs
the route of administration of the drug
the patient's species
Which drug is an alpha 2 agonist?
Dexmedetomidine
butorphanol
diazepam
Acepromazine
Neuroleptanalgesia involves using
a dissociative and an alpha 2 agonist
a tranquilizer and a dissociative
a tranquilizer and an opioid
an opioid and an alpha 2 agonist
Balanced anesthesia is
using 2 or more drugs in equal amounts
using local and general anesesthic techniques at the same time
general anesthesia when the patient is stable
using multiple drugs in smaller quantities
When taking a patient history from a client, what is the best way to ask about the patient's diet?
Does your dog eat every 12 hours?
Will your dog eat twice a day?
Do you feed your dog twice a day?
How often do you feed your dog?
High doses of opioids can cause bradycardia and respiratory depression.
True
False
Etomidate is particularly well suited for induction of dogs with which of the following conditions?
Renal failure
Orthopedic disease
Pediatric (younger than 4 weeks)
Severe cardiac disease
Effects that atropine may have on the body include all except:
Mydriasis
Decreased salivation
Increased vagal tone
Decreased gastrointestinal motility
Most preanesthetics will not cross the placental barrier.
True
False
It is recommended that atropine not be given to an animal that has tachycardia.
True
False
One of the disadvantages of the drug etomidate is that animals that are anesthetized with it may demonstrate excitement during recovery.
True
False
Anticholinergic drugs such as atropine block the release of acetylcholine at the:
Muscarinic receptors of the sympathetic system
Nicotinic receptors of the sympathetic system
Muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic system
Nicotinic receptors of the parasympathetic system
Characteristic effects of the benzodiazepines include all except:
Muscle relaxation
Minimal effect on cardiovascular system
Significant decrease in respiratory function
Severe bradycardia caused by dexmedetomidine is best treated with
Naloxone
Atipamezole
Atropine
Epinephrine
Which one of the following drugs will precipitate out when mixed with other drugs or solutions?
Diazepam
Atropine
Acepromazine
Butorphanol
An anesthetic agent that has a low blood-gas partition coefficient will result in __________ induction and recovery time.
Slow
Fast
Moderate
As a rough guideline, to maintain surgical anesthesia safely, the vaporizer should be set at about:
1.5 × MAC
1 × MAC
0.5 × MAC
2 × MAC
Compared with methoxyflurane, isoflurane is considered to have a:
Higher vapor pressure
Lower vapor pressure
Similar vapor pressure
Opioids may be reversed with:
Yohimbine
Atipamezole
Atropine
Naloxone
Which of the following is an example of a dissociative anesthetic?
Pentobarbital sodium
Thiopental sodium
Propofol
Ketamine hydrochloride
Propofol sometimes causes transient apnea. To avoid this, the anesthetist should:
Titrate this drug in several boluses
Administer it intravenously only
Premedicate with opioids
Give it by infusion only
One problem frequently associated with recovery from tiletamine–zolazepam in dogs is:
Laryngospasm
Excitement
Bradycardia
Hypotension
The concentration of propofol entering the brain is affected by a variety of factors such as:
Perfusion of the brain
The rate at which it is given
Plasma protein levels
Lipid solubility of the drug
All are correct
Effects that are commonly seen after administration of a dissociative include:
Increased heart rate
Increased CSF pressure
Increased intraocular pressure
Increased blood pressure
All are correct
Adverse effects common with isoflurane include:
Depression of respiration
Seizures during recovery
Accumulation in body fat stores
Hepatic toxicity
MAC will vary with:
Concurrent use of other drugs
Anesthetic agent
Body temperature of the patient
Age of the patient
All are correct
Factors that may affect the speed of anesthetic induction with a volatile gaseous anesthetic include:
Concurrent use of atropine
MAC of the agent
Vaporizer setting
Which of the following has the lowest blood–gas partition coefficient?
Sevoflurane
Desflurane
Isoflurane
Methoxyflurane
__________ Anticholinergics are expected to increase tear and salivary secretions because of their parasympathetic nervous system blockade.
True
False
__________ The benzodiazepine diazepam should not be given IM because of pain when given by this route and erratic absorption from this site.
True
False
___________ An advantage of using the antagonist yohimbine to reverse the effects of xylazine is that dangerous adverse effects will be reversed, but the analgesic effects will persist.
True
False
___________ In addition to providing analgesia, opioid agonists produce cough suppression, respiratory depression, bradycardia, and hypotension.
True
False
___________ Rapid IV administration of the ultra-short-acting anesthetic propofol can cause apnea, which may be severe.
True
False
___________ Cyanotic mucous membranes are an early indicator of hypoxemia.
True
False
Pulse oximetry allows accurate estimation of:
Arterial blood pressure
Pulse pressure
Percent saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen
Blood gas values
During anesthesia, a mean arterial blood pressure of less than 60 mmHg indicates:
Inadequate tissue perfusion
Imminent cardiac arrest
A normal expected value during anesthesia
This value is not indicative of patient condition
A pulse oximeter reading of 89% indicates:
A need for supportive therapy
A medical emergency
A normal value
A state of hypoxemia, but no need for therapy
Regarding oxygen transport:
When a patient is breathing 100% oxygen, the PaO2 is expected to be in the range of 100 to 120 mmHg.
PaO2 is closely related to SpO2 (as one goes up, the other does also).
Most oxygen travels in the blood dissolved in plasma.
SpO2 is an accurate indicator of oxygen available to the tissues even in anemic animals.
Pale mucous membranes commonly indicate all of the following except:
Hypertension
Anemia
Decreased perfusion
Blood loss
An ETCO2 level of 65 would commonly be caused by:
Detachment of the endotracheal tube from the connector
Decreased tidal volume
Hyperventilation
Hypothermia
What lead is used mainly to read ECG?
Lead II
Lead III
Lead IV
Lead I
What is the fun
Measure BP
Measure HR
Measure SPO2
Measure Temp
____________________ is a device that is designed to detect changes in the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin.
A doppler
A capnograph
An esophageal stethoscope
A pulse oximeter
Veterinary technicians should monitor respiratory rates while the patient is under anesthesia. A normal respiration rate for a dog under anesthesia is
10 to 30 breaths per minute.
<6 breaths per minute.
8 to 20 breaths per minute.
>20 breaths per minute.
Maintenance of the pulse oximeter probes should be done by
wiping with a mild disinfectant.
autoclaving for sterility.
immersing in a warm water bath.
vigorous scrubbing to remove organic debris.
Low oxygen saturation is defined as SpO2 ___________ on a pulse oximeter.
<99%
<95%
<100%
<97%
The term premedication is used to mean drugs that accomplish all except which of the following?
Muscle relaxation
Analgesia
Induction
Sedation
When troubleshooting signal loss while using a pulse oximeter, the first thing the veterinary technician should do is
check for adequate tissue contact.
make sure the side with the light source and sensor is oriented toward the tissue.
make sure the patient is safe by assessing vital signs.
make sure that feces are not between the probe and the tissue.
Why do we monitor our patients while under anesthesia?
to keep track of their vital signs
to keep track of their reflexes
to control the depth of anesthesia and keep them safe
to keep them safe under anesthesia
How does anesthesia affect a patient’s body temperature?
It causes body temperature to increase
It causes body temperature to drop
It causes no change in body temperature
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