Microbiology
Explore the World of Microbiology
Test your knowledge on bacteria and their fascinating structures in this comprehensive microbiology quiz! This quiz covers key aspects of bacterial cell biology, morphology, and physiology.
Join now and learn about:
- The various shapes and arrangements of bacteria
- Components of bacterial cells and their fun
ctions - Impacts of external factors on bacterial growth
Bacteria are microorganisms with the following type of structure
A. Acellular (subcellular)
B. Unicellular prokaryote
C. Pluricellular eukaryote
D. Unicellular eukaryote
2. The bacterial cell has dimensions in the unit of
A. Nanometers
B. Micrometers
C. Millimeters
D. Centimeters
3. The genetic material of the bacteria is represented by:
A. A single chromosome and DNA plasmids
B. A varying number of chromosomes depending on species
C. A single nucleic acid, DNA or RNA
D. 2-4 chromosomes and extrachromosomal units (plasmids)
6. Spherical bacteria (cocci) can be found in groups:
A. Strepto (chains)
B. Diplo (joined in pairs)
C. Palisades
D. Clusters with Chinese letters appearance
7. Rod shape bacteria, after division can remain grouped:
A. Diplo (joined in pairs)
B. Chains of variable lengths (strepto)
C. Grape like clusters
D. Palisades
8. It is the result of the division of the cocci into parallel planes, with the persistence of the connections between the cells over several generations:
A. Diplococcus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Streptococcus
D. None of the above
10. Which of the bacterial cell components are present in absolutely all bacteria:
A. Cytoplasmic membrane
B. Cell wall
C. Capsule
D. Bacterial genome
9. The enzymes that bacteria constantly synthesize, regardless of the substrate on which they multiply are:
A. Inductive enzymes
B. Adaptive enzymes
C. Constitutive enzymes
D. All of the above
11. Cilia (flagella) are organelles:
A. Present in all species of bacteria
B. Found only in some species of bacteria
C. With role in motility
D. With role in attachment
12. The cell wall represents a component of the bacterial cell:
A. Found in all species of bacteria
B. Found in the majority species of bacteria
C. Found in a small number of bacteria
D. Present only in mycoplasmas
13. Bacteria that lack a cell wall belong to the class:
A. Firmicutes
B. Gracilicutes
C. Mollicutes
D. None of the above
14. What structure gives resistance to the bacterial cell wall:
A. Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
B. Peptidoglycan (murein)
C. Lipoproteins
D. Bacterial lipid components
15. The lipopolysaccharide component (LPS) in the outer membrane of the cell wall in Gram-negative bacteria fulfils the role of:
A. Enzyme with role in metabolism
B. Antiphagocytic factor
C. Endotoxin
D. Adherence
16. In the presence of penicillin or lysozyme they turn into protoplasts:
A. Gram-positive bacteria
B. Gram-negative bacteria
C. Acid-fast bacteria
D. Bacteria that have a capsule
17. In the presence of penicillin or lysozyme they turn into spheroplasts:
A. Gram-positive bacteria
B. Gram-negative bacteria
C. Acid-fast bacteria
D. Bacteria that have a capsule
18. They have the capacity to resynthesize their cell wall:
A. Spheroplasts
B. Protoplasts
C. Both spheroplasts and protoplasts
D. None of the above
19. Which of the components of the bacterial cell ensures its shape?
A. Capsule
B. Cell wall
C. Cytoplasmic membrane
D. Glycocalyx
20. The morpho-chemical structure of the cell wall in various groups of bacteria is responsible for:
A. The shape and grouping of bacterial cells
B. The thickness and degree of rigidity of the wall
C. Different way of staining bacteria by Gram and Ziehl-Neelsen methods
D. Resistance to harmful environmental factors
21. Which of the following bacterial cell components are not found in all bacteria:
A. Cytoplasmic membrane
B. Genome (nucleoid, chromosome)
C. Capsule
D. Cilia (flagella)
22. Which of the following organelles are found in the cytoplasm of the bacterial cell:
A. Golgi body
B. Mitochondria
C. Palade particles
D. Ribosomes
23. Which of the following organelles are absent in the cytoplasm of the bacterial cell:
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Golgi body
C. Ribosomes
D. Mitochondria
24. Bacteria can be found in nature:
A. Only in the vegetative state (the bacterial cell itself)
B. Only in the form of spores
C. Both in vegetative state and in the form of spores
D. Only in the parasitic state present only in the host organism
25. The nucleus of the bacterial cell (nuclear genetic material, nucleoid) consists of:
A. 2-4 chromosomes, single-stranded DNA, and is bounded by the membrane
B. A single chromosome, double-stranded DNA and is not separated by a nuclear membrane
C. RNA and polyglucides
D. A single chromosome, single stranded DNA and is not separated by a nuclear membrane
26. Plasmids are specific structures of the bacterial cell, which consist of:
A. Invagination of the cytoplasmic membrane
B. Adhesion organs
C. Small molecules of double-stranded DNA
D. Forms of bacterial resistance
27. The capsule protects bacteria against:
A. Phagocytosis (in pathogenic bacteria)
B. High temperatures
C. Desiccation (dryness)
D. Does not fulfill any protection role
29. The fimbriae have a role in:
A. Absorption of nutrients from culture media
B. Fixation of bacteria on the surface of epithelia and other solid substrates
C. Mobility
D. Resistance of bacteria
30. Cilia (flagella) have a role in:
A. Adhesion of the bacterial cell to various substrates
B. Mobility
C. Transfer of genetic material in the conjugation process
D. Multiplication of bacteria
31. The majority of bacteria multiply by:
A. Spores
B. Direct division (scissyparity)
C. Budding
D. Elementary bodies
32. The bacterial spore represents:
A. The multiplication process of most bacterial species
B. The form of preservation of bacteria in unfavorable environmental conditions
C. A biological form of bacteria in nature
D. A form of resistance found only in certain bacteria
33. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics induced by R-factor (plasmids) is of the type:
A. “One-steep”
B. “Multi-steep”
C. Not transmissible from one bacterial strain to another by conjugation
D. Transmissible by the conjugation phenomenon
34. R-factor (plasmids):
A. Are transmitted between bacterial strains of the same species and between related species
B. They are fixed, they cannot be lost from the bacterial cell
C. Can be removed spontaneously from the bacterial cell, which is why it is mandatory to inoculate pathological materials immediately after sampling
D. Cannot be transmitted by the conjugation phenomenon
35. In which of the multiplication phases, characterized by the total absence of cell division, the bacterial cells present atypical forms and low tinctorial affinity, causing the examinations performed for the purpose of identification to lead to errors:
A. The log phase (exponential)
B. The stationary phase
C. The death phase
D. The lag phase (adaptation)
36. The bacterial lawn results from:
A. Confluence of colonies in case of abundant inoculation
B. Invasion of the environment by mobile bacteria
C. Rapid multiplication of encapsulated bacteria
D. Rapid multiplication of fimbriate bacteria
37. Through germination, from a spore, results:
A. A single vegetative cell
B. A double number of vegetative bacterial cells
C. Two spores
D. Numerous vegetative bacterial cells
38. In the cytoplasm of bacterial cells there may be small fragments of DNA encoding antibiotic resistance, which are called:
A. Mesosomes
B. Plasmids
C. Ribosomes
D. Vacuoles
39. The multiplication of bacteria in liquid culture media goes through the following phases:
A. Lag phase (adaptation)
B. Log phase (exponential)
C. Stationary phase
D. Death phase
40. They are able to multiply at low temperatures, close to zero degrees Celsius:
A. Cryophilic bacteria
B. Psychrophilic bacteria
C. Halophilic bacteria
D. Thermophilic bacteria
41. The bactericidal effect of the high temperatures used in sterilization is mainly due to:
A. Dehydration of bacterial cells
B. Denaturation of cellular proteins
C. Destruction of the cell wall
D. Distortion of the bacterial genome
42. Bacteria capable of multiplying at temperatures between 800 C-1050 C are called:
A. Mesophilic bacteria
B. Hyperthermophilic bacteria
C. Osmophilic bacteria
D. Psychrophilic bacteria
43. In terms of temperature, most pathogenic bacteria are:
A. Psychrophilic
B. Cryophilic
C. Mesophilic
D. Thermophilic
44. Bacterial spores are destroyed at the temperature of:
A. 60 800 C dry heat
B. 100-120 0 C moist heat
C. 140-180 0 C dry heat
D. 80-100 0 C dry heat
45. The native (resident) microbiota of the healthy animal organism populates:
A. The skin
B. Digestive tract
C. Parenchymal organs (liver, spleen, kidneys)
D. Lower genitourinary tract
46. The relationship between the rumen microbiota and the host animal is of the following type:
A. Symbiotic
B. Commensal
C. Antagonistic (conflictual)
D. Indifferent
47. Free coagulase confers pathogenicity to staphylococci by:
A. Inhibition of phagocytosis
B. Lysis of the fibrin barrier around focal inflammatory areas
C. Destruction of red blood cells
D. toxicity
48. Antiphagocytic factors that inhibit phagocyte digestion are:
A. Bacterial capsule, staphylococci free coagulase
B. Trehalose 6,6'-dimycolate
C. "cord-factor" in bacteria of the genus Mycobacterium
D. collagenase
49. Bacterial toxins responsible for digestive disorders encountered in food poisoning are:
A. collagenase
B. hemolysins
C. enterotoxins
D. leukocidins
50. Bacterial enzymes with necrotic effect are:
A. Diphtheria toxin
B. lecithinase
C. hemolysins
D. leukocytes
51. Bacterial hyaluronidases and fibrinolysins are responsible for:
A. Inhibition of phagocytosis
B. Diffusion of bacteria into surrounding tissues
C. Implicationin food poisoning
D. Necrotic effect on tissues
52. Synthesizes carotenoid pigments (white → orange), non-diffusible in the culture media:
A.Streptococci
B.Staphylococci
C. E. coli
D. Mycobacteria
54. Which of the following are halophilic bacteria:
A. Clostridia
B. Leptospira
C. Staphylococci
D. Enterococci
55. Staphylococci have the following characteristics:
A. Form small, transparent, unpigmented colonies on solid media
B. Form pigmented colonies, with white or different shades of yellow pigment
C. In smears they appear grouped in clusters (grape-like)
D. In smears they appear grouped in chains
56. The etiological agent of sheep gangrenous mastitis (Blue Bag) is:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Mycobacterium bovis
57. The main pathogenicity of Bacillus anthracis is:
A. The spore, due to thermal resistance
B.the capsule, which prevents phagocytosis (antiphagocytic role)
C.cilia, due to mobility
D. coagulase
58. The diagnosis of anthrax in live animals is made by:
A. Heated Ascoli reaction
B. Abundant blood cultures
C. coprocultures
D. Cooled Ascoli reaction
59. Bacillus anthracis has the following cultural characteristics:
A. In liquid medium abundant flaky deposit, discrete or absent turbidity
B. On nutrient agar large smooth and glossy S-type colonies
C. On nutrient agar large opaque colonies, unpigmented type R (rough)
D. In broth accentuated turbidity and lack of deposit
60. From a morphological point of view, Bacillus anthracisis:
A. a Gram-negative cocobacillus, frequently stained bipolar, not encapsulated
B.a Gram-positive rod, large, with severed ends, grouped in chains, encapsulated
C. A large Gram-positive rod, with the severed ends, grouped in chains, not encapsulated
D. A large Gram-positive rod with rounded ends, grouped in chains, encapsulated
61. For the isolation of bacteria of the genus Clostridium, the pathological materials are inoculated on what type of media:
A. hyperchlorinated
B. anaerobic
C. glycerinate, 2%
D. aerobic
62. Species of the genus Clostridium pathogenic by toxicity and virulence are:
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium chauvei
63. The only encapsulated and unciliated species of the genus Clostridium are:
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium septicum
64. The toxin produced by Clostridium perfringens is identified by:
A. Ascoli reaction
B. Seroneutralization in mice
C. Inoculation loop test
D. Coagulase test
65. The spore in Cl. Tetani is:
A. Centrally located and does not deform the vegetative form
B. Terminally placed and does not deform the vegetative form
C. Terminally placed and deforms the vegetative form (matchstick appearance)
D. Centrally located and deforms the vegetative form
66. Escherichia coli has the following morphological characteristics:
A. Gram-negative cocobacillus, frequently stained bipolar, ciliated, fimbriate, non-sporulated
B. Gram-negative cocobacillus, bipolar stained, unciliated, fimbriate, non-sporulated
C. Gram-negative cocobacillus, bipolar stained, ciliated, non-fimbriate, non-sporulated
D. Gram-positive cocobacillus, frequently bipolar stained, ciliated, fimbriate, non-sporulated
67. Escherichia coli has the following dyeing and biochemical characteristics:
A. Gram negative, glucose (+), lactose, sucrose (+), indole (+), hydrogen sulfide (-), urease (-),
B. Gram negative, glucose (-), lactose, sucrose (-) indole (+), hydrogen sulfide (-), urease (+),
C. Gram positive, lactose (+), indole (-), hydrogen sulfide (+), urease (-)
D. Gram positive, lactose, sucrose (+), glucose (+), indole (+), hydrogen sulfide (-), urease (-),
68. The mobility of leptospires is given by:
A. External cilia
B.periplasmic endoflagella
C.internal cilia
D. pili
69. The examination of leptospires is usually carried out on:
A. Gram-stained smears
B. A smear slide with cover slip, dark field microscopy (with cardioid condenser)
C. Colored smears by the Giemsa method
D. A smear slide with cover slip under an optical microscope with normal condenser
70. Leptospires are grown on:
A. Usual media (broth, nutritient agar)
B. Korthof medium
C. Uhlenuth medium
D. On ovalbumin supplemented media
71. Which of the following bacterial forms are considered to be the main forms:
A. The coccus
B. The bacillus (rod)
C. The vibrion
D. The spirochaete
72. Species of the genus Clostridium pathogenic exclusively by toxicity are:
A. Clostridium tetani
B.Clostridium botulinum
C.Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium chauvei
73. Differentiation of Staphlycoccus aureus from other Staphylococcus species is achieved by:
A. Mannitol fermentation
B. Hemolysis test
C. Coagulase test
D. Catalase test
74. In smears made from pathological materials and cultures, the following bacteria are grouped into chains:
A. Streptococcus spp.
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Bacillus cereus
75. Species from the family Bacillaceae:
A. Are sporulated bacteria;
B. are Gram negative
C. All are encapsulated
D. are Gram positive
76. Which of the following pathogens causes abortion in cattle and sheep:
A. Campylobacter coli
B. Campylobacter sputorum
C. Campylobacter fetus subsp.fetus
D. Campylobacter jejuni
77. It gives off a pleasant smell of linden flowers due to a volatile substance called aminoacetophenone and a blue-green pigment (diffuses in culture media) called fluorescein:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Brucella spp.
C. Pasteurella multocida
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
78. Pseudomonas aeruginosa has the following cultural characteristics on solid media:
A. Large pigmented colonies in yellowish white of carotenoid origin, not diffusible in the media
B. Round colonies, pigmented in bluish green, diffusible in the media
C. Gives off a pleasant odor due to aminoacetophenone
D. Gives off a putrid odor due to the production of hydrogen sulfide
79. Bacteria from the genus Brucella show an increased tropism to:
A. The digestive tract
B. The respiratory system
C. The genital tract
D. The nervous system
80. Causes brucellosis in pigs:
A.Brucella melitensis
B.Brucella abortus
C.Brucella suis
D.Brucella neotomae
81. Which of the following bacteria form “R” type colonies in primary cultures:
A. Staphylococcus spp.
B. Streptococcus spp.
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
82. Bacteria from the genus Mycobacterium:
A.Cand be stained by the Ziehl-Neelsen method due to the lipids in the cell wall
B. Requires an incubation period of 24-48 hours
C. Requires an incubation period of 15-70 days
D. Is stained by the Giemsa method
83. The species with the widest spectrum of pathogenicity from the genus Mycobaterium is:
A. M. bovis
B. M. tuberculosis
C. M. avium
D. M leprae
84. The pathogenicity factor in tuberculosis bacilli is represented by:
A. The presence of the capsule,
B.Trehalose 6,6'-dimycolate
C. The presence of fimbriae
D. the “cord” factor.
86. Mycobacteria are grown on special ovalbumin-containing media such as:
A. Lowenstein
B. Levin
C. Petragnani
D. Chapman
87. Form “S” type colonies in primary cultures:
A. Staphylococcus spp.
B. Streptococcus spp.
C. Bacillus spp.
D. Escherichia coli
88. Salmonella pluripathogenic serotypes, with a broad spectrum of pathogenicity, are:
A. S. Abortus ovis
B. S. typhi
C. .S.enteritidis
D. S. typhymurium
89. The Enterobacteriaceae family groups bacteria whose natural ecological niche is:
A. The soil
B. Skin and mucous membranes
C. Digestive tract (large intestine)
D. Respiratory mucosa
90. Salmonella immobile serotypes are:
A. S. Abortus equi
B. S. Abortus ovis
C. S. Gallinarum pullorum
D. S. enteridis
91.Which of the following tests are used to determine the pathogenicity of staphylococci:
A. Catalase test
B. Hemolysis test
C. Citrated rabbit plasma coagulation test
D. Oxidase test
92. The following tests are used to differentiate staphylococci from other Gram-positive cocci:
A. Oxidase test
B. Catalase test
C. Coagulase test
D. Hemolysis test
93. The etiological agent of avian cholera and haemorrhagic sepsis in cattle is:
A.Streptococcus zooepidemicus
B.Listeria monocytogenes
C.Pasteurella multocida
D.Pseudomonas aeruginosa
94. In smears from pathological materials, is stained bipolar with methylene blue:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Pasteurella multocida
C. Mycobacterium spp.
D. Escherichia coli
95. Among the bacteria studied, the following may be transmitted through dirty (contaminated) water and the following is examined onslide with slide cover preparations in the dark field:
A. streptococci
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Brucella spp.
D. leptospires
96. The conduct of the bacteriological diagnosis in colibacillosis goes through the following stages:
A. Isolation of the strain from the pathological material
B. Identification of the isolated strain
C. Demonstration of the pathogenicity of the isolated strain
D. Classification of the strain into serogroups and serotypes
97. Which of the bacteria studied is considered the most mobile bacterium:
A. E coli
B.Salmonella spp.
C.Proteus spp.
D.Pasteurella multocida
98. Which of the following statements is true regarding the family Enterobacteriaceae:
A. The ecological niche is the digestive tract (large intestine);
B. It has an accentuated polymorphism, but the cocobacillary forms predominates
C. Ferments glucose, often with gas production
D. They are Gram negative, non-spore forming
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