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Menselijke biologie en genetica

A colorful and informative illustration of human cells, DNA strands, and molecular structures in a textbook style, capturing the essence of biology.

Explore Human Biology and Genetics

Test your knowledge of human biology and genetics with our comprehensive quiz featuring 155 thought-provoking questions. Dive into various topics such as cellular structures, molecular biology, and biochemical pathways.

Whether you are a student, teacher, or just a biology enthusiast, this quiz is designed to challenge and enhance your understanding of key biological concepts.

155 Questions on Human Biology
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155 Questions39 MinutesCreated by StudyingCell101

1. The anomic number gives the

A) number of neutrons in the nucleus

B) number of protons in the nucleus

C) weight of the atom

D) number of protons in the valance shell

2. Isotopes differ in their

A) number of protons

B) atomic number

C) number of neutrons

D) number of electrons

3. Which type of bond results from the complete transfer of electrons from one atom to another

A) covalent

B) ionic

C) hydrogen

D) neutral

5. Compounds having an affinity for water are said to be

A) cohesive

B) hydrophilic

C) hydrophobic

D) adhesive

6. Water flows freely but does not separate into individual molecules because water is

A) cohesive

B) hydrophilic

C) hydrophobic

D) adhesive

7. Which of the following contribute hydrogen ions (H+) to a solution

A) bases

B) isotopes

C) acids

D) compounds

8. Which of the following is an organic molecule

A) CO2

B) O2

C) H2O

D) C6H12O6

9. The combination of two monomers to produce a polymer is an example of which of the following types of reactions

A) denaturation

B) hydrolysis

C) dehydration synthesis

D) complementary base pairing

10. Which of the following is an organic molecule

A) glucose

B) lactose

C) cellulose

D) sucrose

11. An example of a polysaccharide used for energy storage in humans is

A) cellulose

B) cholesterol

C) glycogen

D) starch

12. Which of the following is the plant polysaccharide that is not digestible by humans

A) fructose

B) lactose

C) starch

D) cellulose

13. Saturated and unsaturated fatty acids differ in the

A) number of carbon-carbon double bonds

B) consistency at room temperature

C) number of hydrogen atoms present

D) all of these are correct

14. A triglyceride contains

A) glycerol and three fatty acids

B) glycerol and two fatty acids

C) protein and three fatty acids

D) a fatty acid and three sugars

15. Which of the following lipids are used to manufacture the sex hormones testosterone and estrogen

A) phospholipids

B) trans fats

C) triglycerides

D) cholesterol

16. Variations in three-dimensional shapes among proteins are due to bonding between the

A) amino groups

B) R groups

C) ion groups

D) H atoms

17. At what level of protein structure do multiple polypeptide chains react

A) primary

B) secondary

C) tertiary

D) quaternary

18. Under extreme environmental conditions, such as temperature or pH, proteins may lose their three-dimensional shape. This is called

A) dehydration synthesis

B) hydrolysis

C) digestion

D) denaturation

19. An RNA nucleotide differs from a DNA molecule in that RNA has

A) a ribose sugar

B) a uracil base

C) a phosphate molecule

D) both a and b are correct

20. This nucleic acid is typically involved in energy reactions in a cell

A) RNA

B) DNA

C) ATP

D) all of these are correct

1. Prokaryotic cells contain all of the following except

A) cytoplasm

B) a plasma membrane

C) DNA

D) a nucleus

2. The endosymbiotic theory explains which of the following

A) the origins of the first prokaryotic cell

B) the formation of the plasma membrane

C) why DNA is the genetic material in all cells

D) how eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic cells

3. Which of the following is not part of the fluid-mosaic model

A) phospholipids

B) proteins

C) cholesterol

D) chromatin

4. Facilitated transport differs from diffusion in that facilitated diffusion

A) involves the passive use of a carrier protein

B) involves the active use of a carrier protein

C) moves a molecule from a low to high concentration

D) involves the use of ATP molecules

5. When a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution

A) solute exits the cell to equalize the concentration on both sides of the membrane

B) water exits the cell toward the area of lower solute concentration

C) water enters the cell toward the area of higher solute concentration

D) solute exits and water enters the cell

10. The ribosomes on the rough endoplasmic reticulum assemble ______, while ______ are assembled in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A) proteins; phospholipids

B) cholesterol; proteins

C) DNA; proteins

D) cholesterol; phospholipids

11. The cytoskeleton of a cell consists of all the following except

A) microtubules

B) actin filaments

C) an extracellular matrix

D) intermediate

12. Cilia and flagella are involved in

A) forming junctions between cells

B) establishing the extracellular matrix

C) cell-to-cell communication

D) cell movement

13. The active site of an enzyme

A) is identical to that of any other enzyme

B) is the part of the enzyme where the substrate can fit

C) is destroyed during a chemical reaction

D) is where the coenzyme binds

14. Enzymes accelerate a chemical reaction by

A) reducing the amount of substrate produced

B) lowering the energy

C) increasing the energy of activation of the reaction

D) reducing the amount of reactant needed

15.Which of the following pathways produces the greatest amount of ATP

A) the citric acid cycle

B) glycolosis

C) the electron transport chain

D) fermentation

16. Which of the following reactions is aerobic and recycles NAD+ molecules

A) glycolosis

B) the citric acid cycle

C) the electron transport chain

D) fermentation

1. Tissues are formed from ______ and are arranged together to form ______

A) organs; organ systems

B) cells; organs

C) cells; molecules

D) molecules; cells

2. This type of tissue is associated with communication

A) epithelial tissue

B) connective tissue

C) nervous tissue

D) muscular tissue

3. Which of the following is found in a connective tissue

A) ground substance

B) protein fibers

C) specialized cells

D) all of these are correct

4. This type of connective tissue contains collagen fibers and is used in areas of the body that undergo compression or need flexibility

A) bone

B) blood

C) cartilage

D) adipose tissue

5. This type of muscle lacks striations

A) smooth muscle

B) skeletal muscle

C) cardiac muscle

D) all of these have striations

6. This form of muscle tissue is under voluntary control in the body

A) cardiac muscle

B) skeletal muscle

C) smooth muscle

D) none of these are correct

7. This portion of the neuron conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body

A) nucleus

B) dendrite

C) axon

D) spinal cord

8. These cells support neurons by providing nutrients

A) neuroglia

B) epithelial cells

C) muscle fibers

D) fibroblasts

9. Which of these is not a type of epithelial tissue

A) simple cuboidal and stratified columnar

B) smooth and cardiac

C) stratified squamous and transitional

D) all of these are epithelial tissues

10. What type of epithelial tissue is found in the digestive tract to increase the surface area

A) cuboidal epithelium

B) transitional epithelium

C) columnar epithelium

D) squamous epithelium

11. Which of the following is a function of skin

A) temperature regulation

B) manufacture of vitamin D

C) protection from invading pathogens

D) all of these are correct

12. Keratinization of epithelial cells occurs in which layer of the skin

A) subcutaneous layer

B) dermis

C) epidermis

D) all of these are correct

13. Which of these body systems help regulate pH balance

A) digestive

B) respiratory

C) endocrine

D) integumentary

14. Which type of membrane lines systems that are open to the outside environment, such as the respiratory system

A) serous

B) synoval

C) mucous

D) meningeal

1. Which of the following is not a function of the cardiovascular system

A) transport oxygen to tissues and remove waste materials

B) allow for the detection of stimuli from the external environment

C) participate in temperature homeostasis

D) transport cells of the immune systems

2. Which body system assists the cardiovascular system by removing excess interstitial fluid from around the cells

A) endocrine system

B) lymphatic system

C) respiratory system

D) digestive system

8. Which of the following lists the events of the cardiac cycle in the correct order

A) both atria contract, then both ventricles

B) both ventricles contract, then both atria

C) left atria and left ventricle contract, then right atria and right ventricle

D) right atria and right ventricle contract, then left atria and left ventricle

9. An electrocardiogram measures

A) chemical signals in the brain and heart

B) electrical activity in the brain and heart

C) chemical signals in the heart

D) electrical changes in the wall of the heart

10. Blood moving from the left atrium to the left ventricle passes through which of the following valves

A) bicuspid valve

B) tricuspid valve

C) aortic semilunar valve

D) pulmonary semilunar valve

11. Blood pressure is highest in the ______ of the cardiovascular system

A) veins

B) capillaries

C) arteries

12. A blood pressure reading of 145/90 indicates

A) normal blood pressure

B) hypertension

C) hypotension

13. The skeletal muscle pump assists with blood flow in the

A) arteries

B) veins

C) capillaries

D) heart

15. Water enters the venous end of capillaries because of

A) osmotic pressure gradient

B) an osmotic pressure gradient

C) higher blood pressure on the venous side

D) higher blood pressure on the arterial side

E) higher red blood cell concentration on the venous side

16. Lymph is formed from

A) damaged tissue

B) excess interstitial fluid

C) red blood cells

D) white blood cells

17. In ______, a blood vessel bursts, sending blood into the surrounding tissues, such as the brain

A) angina pectoris

B) a heart attack

C) atherosclerosis

D) a stroke

18. Which of the following conditions is characterized by the accumulation of plaque in a blood vessel

A) hypertension

B) stroke

C) atherosclerosis

D) heart attack

1. Which of the following is not a formed element in the blood

A) red blood cells

B) white blood cells

C) platelets

D) organic molecules and salts

2. Which of the following is not a function of blood

A) regulation of the body temperature

B) defense of the body

C) transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide

D) manufacture of hormones

3. The pigment that transports oxygen in an erythrocyte is

A) fibrin

B) hemoglobin

C) deoxyhemoglobin

D) plasma

4. When the oxygen capacity of the blood is reduced

A) the liver produces moor bile

B) the kidneys release erythropoietin

C) the thymus produces more red blood cells

D) sickle-cell disease occurs

E) all of these are correct

5. The majority of the carbon dioxide produced by cellular respiration is transported by the red blood cell (RB+C) by

A) forming carbonic acid in the plasma of the RBC

B) being bound to hemoglobin

C) being bound to prothrombin

D) phagocytosis in the lysosomes of the RBC

10. Which of the following is not true of white blood cells

A) they are formed in red bone marrow

B) they carry oxygen and carbon dioxide

C) they can leave the bloodstream and enter tissues

D) they can fight disease and infection

11. Which of the following are formed from megakaryocytes

A) basophils

B) erythrocytes

C) platelets

D) fibrinogen

12. Which of the following is in the correct sequence for blood clotting

A) prothrombin activator, prothrombin, thrombin

B) fibrin threads, prothrombin activator, thrombin

C) thrombin, fibrinogen, fibrin threads

D) prothrombin, clotting factors, fibrinogen

E) both a and c are correct

13. Theoretically, a person with type AB blood should be able to receive

A) type B and type AB blood

B) type O and type B blood

C) type A and type O blood

D) all of these are correct

14. Type B blood contains ______ surface antigens on the RBCs and ______ antibodies in the plasma

A) A; anti-A

B) B; anti-B

C) A; anti-B

D) B; anti-A

E) none of these are correct

15. Blood is associated with which of the following forms of homeostasis

A) nutrient supply to the body

B) supply of gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide

C) removal of waste material

D) transport of hormones

E) all of these are correct

16. The blood cells exchange oxygen, carbon dioxide and nutrients with the ______ surrounding the cells of the body

A) white blood cells

B) interstitial fluid

C) formed elements

D) plasma

1. Which of the following is a function of the spleen

A) produces T cells

B) removes worn-out red blood cells

C) produces immunoglobulins

D) produces macrophages

E) regulates the immune system

2. Which of the following is a function of the thymus

A) production of red blood cells

B) secretion of antibodies

C) production and maintenance of stem cells

D) site for the maturation of T lymphocytes

3. Which of the following is a function of the secondary lymphatic organs

A) transport of lymph

B) clonal section of B cells

C) location where lymphocytes encounter antigens

D) all of these are correct

4. Which of the following is most directly responsible for the increase in capillary permeability during the inflammatory reaction

A) pain

B) white blood cells

C) histamine

D) tissue damage

5. Which of the following is not a goal of the inflammatory reaction

A) bring more oxygen to damaged tissues

B) decrease blood loss from a wound

C) decrease the number of white blood cells in the damaged tissues

D) prevent entry of pathogens into damaged tissues

6. Which of the following is not correct concerning interferon

A) interferon is a protective protein

B) virus-infected cells produce interferon

C) interferon has no effect on viruses

D) interferon can be used to treat certain viral infections

7. The adaptive immune defenses respond to which of the following

A) specific antigens

B) general pathogens

C) interferon

D) histamine

E) all of these are correct

8. Which of the following does not pertain to B cells

A) have passed through the thymus

B) have specific receptors

C) are responsible for antibody-mediated immunity

D) synthesize antibodies

9. Which of the following characteristics pertains to T cells

A) have specific receptors

B) are of more than one type

C) are responsible for cell-mediated immunity

D) stimulate antibody production by B cells

E) all of these are correct

10. Human leukocyte antigens (HLAs) are involved in

A) cell-mediated immunity

B) antibody-mediated immunity

C) the inflammatory response

D) complement

E) all of these are correct

11. Which of the following does not occur during a secondary immune response

A) antibodies are made quickly and in great amounts

B) antibody production lasts longer than in a primary response

C) clonal selection occurs for B cells

D) all of these are correct

12. Active immunity can be produced by

A) having a disease

B) receiving a vaccine

C) receiving gamma globulin injections

D) both a and b are correct

Both b and c are correct

13. A sudden drop in blood pressure in response to an antigen in the body is a characteristic of which of the following

A) inflammatory response

B) passive immunity

C) cell-mediated immunity

D) anaphylactic shock

E) none of these are correct

14. Which of the following conditions occurs when antibodies attack the myelin sheath covering nerve fibers

A) lupus

B) rheumatoid arthritis

C) multiple sclerosis

D) myasthenia gravis

1. Which of the following pathogens possesses a plasmid

A) virus

B) prion

C) bacterium

D) all of these are correct

2. This type of pathogen may use either DNA or RNA as it genetic material

A) virus

B) bacterium

C) prion

D) none of these are correct

3. Prokaryotic cells, such as bacteria, have all of the following except

A) DNA

B) a cell wall

C) a nucleus

D) plasmids

4. A health clinic reports an increase in the number of influenza cases confined to a local area. Which of the following best describes this situation

A) a pandemic

B) an epidemic

C) an outbreak

D) a reemerging disease

5. This pathogen infects the cells of the immune system, thus allowing opportunistic infections to develop

A) HIV

B) malaria

C) tuberculosis

D) MRSA

6. In an HIV infection, this enzyme is responsible for copying the RNA information in the virus into DNA

A) integrase

B) reverse transcriptase

C) DNA polymerase

D) protease

7. This disease infects the red blood cells of the circulatory system

A) HIV/AIDS

B) tuberculosis

C) malaria

D) MERS

8. Which of the following is not an emergency disease

A) MERS

B) SARS

C) malaria

D) H5N1 (bird flu

9. A disease that was previously under control but has recently been observed to be increasing in the population is called

A) an emerging disease

B) a pandemic

C) a provirus

D) a reemerging disease

10. Which of the following is an example of a pathogen with widespread resistance to antibiotics

A) MRSA

B) HIV

C) SARS

D) prions

1. Which of the following is the ability of the digestive system to break down macromolecules into smaller subunits

A) peristalsis

B) ingestion

C) absorption

D) hydrolysis

E) elimination

2. The digestive system consists of a series of tissues surrounding a hollow space called the

A) serosa

B) lumen

C) mucosa

D) muscularis

3. Chemical and mechanical digestion begins in the

A) stomach

B) pharynx

C) esophagus

D) mouth

4. This accessory gland provides water, mucus and enzymes to the mouth

A) salivary gland

B) liver

C) pharynx

D) glottis

5. This structure blocks the opening to the respiratory system during swallowing

A) esophagus

B) pharynx

C) epiglottis

D) salivary gland

6. Which of the following is incorrect regarding gastric juice

A) it is provided by the pancreas

B) it contains pepsin to digest protein

C) it has a pH of 2 due to hydrochloric acid

D) it is produced by the gastric glands

7. Which of the following enzymes is matched to its correct nutrient

A) amylase - starch

B) lipase – fats and lipids

C) protease - proteins

D) all of these are correct

8. Which of the following nutrients are loaded into chylomicrons and transported by the lymphatic system following digestion

A) carbohydrates

B) fats

C) proteins

D) none of these are correct

9. Bile

A) is an important enzyme for the digestion of fats

B) is used in the stomach

C) is made by the gallbladder

D) emulsifies fat

10. Which of the following is not a function of the liver in adults

A) produces bile

B) detoxifies alcohol

C) stores glucose

D) produces urea

E) makes red blood cells

11. This hormone causes the gallbladder to contract and the liver to increase its production of bile

A) secretin

B) pepsin

C) CCK

D) gastrin

12. The large intestine

A) digests all types of food

B) is the longest part of the intestinal tract

C) absorbs water

D) is connected to the stomach

E) is subject to hepatitis

13. This organ may be part of the immune system and helps prevent infections in the large intestine

A) duodenum

B) cecum

C) rectum

D) appendix

14. The presence of which of the following may be an indication of cancer

A) constipation

B) bilirubin in the feces

C) polyps in the large intestine

D) hemorrhoids

15. The amino acids that must be consumed in the diet are called

A) essential

B) nonessential

C) recommended

D) preferred

16. a BMI of 26.7 indicates that a person is

A) healthy

B) morbidly obese

C) overweight

D) obese

E) underweight

17. The glycemic index is associated with which of the following classes of nutrients

A) fats and lipids

B) minerals

C) carbohydrates

D) vitamins

18. This class of nutrients may be either fat soluble or water soluble

A) minerals

B) carbohydrates

C) proteins

D) vitamins

2. How is inhaled air modified before it reaches the lungs

A) it must be humidified

B) it must be warmed

C) it must be filtered

D) all of these are correct

3. What is the name of the structure that prevents food from entering

A) bronchi

B) septum

C) epiglottis

D) Adam’s apple

4. This structure is where the majority of gas exchange occurs

A) trachea

B) larynx

C) alveolus

D) bronchial tree

5. This connects the larynx to the bronchi in the lungs

A) epiglottis

B) pleura

C) trachea

D) esophagus

6. Which of these is incorrect concerning inspiration

A) the rib cage moves up and out

B) the diaphragm contracts and moves down

C) pressure in the lungs decreases, and air comes rushing in

D) the force of the incoming air increases lung volume

7. Air enters the human lungs because

A) atmospheric pressure is lower than the pressure inside the lungs

B) atmospheric pressure is greater than the pressure inside the lungs

C) although the pressures are the same inside and outside, the partial pressure of oxygen is lower in the lungs

D) the residual air in the lungs causes the partial pressure of oxygen to be lower than it is outside

8. The maximum volume of air that can be moved in and out during a single breath is called the

A) expiratory and inspiratory reserve volume

B) residual volume

C) tidal volume

D) vital capacity

E) functional residual capacity

9. In humans, the respiratory center

A) is stimulated by carbon dioxide

B) is located in the medulla oblongata

C) controls the rate of breathing

D) all of these are correct

10. These types of receptors detect changes in pH, which indicate variations in the level of carbon dioxide in the body

A) thermoreceptors

B) photoreceptors

C) mechanoreceptors

D) chemoreceptors

11. He enzyme carbonic anhydrase

A) causes the blood to be more basic in the tissues

B) forms carbonic acid in the blood

C) actively transports carbon dioxide out of capillaries

D) is active only at high altitudes

E) all of these are correct

12. Hemoglobin assists in the transport of gases primarily by

A) combining with oxygen

B) combining with CO2

C) combining with H+

D) being present in red blood cells

E) all of these are correct

13. The binding of small amounts of carbon dioxide to hemoglobin produces

A) oxyhemoglobin

B) carbonic anhydrase

C) dehemoglobin

D) carbaminohemoglobin

E) bicarbonate hemoglobin

14. Which of the following is not true of obstructive pulmonary disorders

A) air does not flow freely in the airways

B) vital capacity is reduced due to loss of lung elasticity

C) disorders include chronic bronchitis, emphysema and asthma

D) ventilation takes longer to occur

15. Which of the following is not an infection of the upper respiratory tract

A) tonsillitis

B) sinusitis

C) otitis media

D) bronchitis

E) all of these are infections of the upper respiratory tract

1. Which of these kidney functions is mismatched

A) excretes metabolic wastes – rids the body of urea

B) maintains the water-salt balance – helps regulate blood pressure

C) maintains the acid-base balance – rids the body of uric acid

D) secretes hormones – secretes erythropoietin

3. Which of the following is not correct

A) uric acid is produced from the breakdown of amino acids

B) creatinine is produced from breakdown reactions in the muscles

C) urea is the primary nitrogenous waste of humans

D) ammonia results from the deamination of amino acids

4. Which of these is found in the renal medulla

A) loop of the nephron

B) collecting ducts

C) peritubular capillaries

D) all of these are correct

5. When tracing the path of blood, the blood vessel that follows the renal artery is the

A) peritubular capillary

B) efferent arteriole

C) afferent arteriole

D) renal vein

E) glomerulus

6. The majority of the nephron, including the glomerulus, is located in what region of the kidney

A) adrenal gland

B) renal medulla

C) renal pelvis

D) renal cortex

7. The function of the descending limb of the loop of the nephron in the process of urine formation is

A) reabsorption of water

B) production of filtrate

C) reabsorption of solutes

D) secretion of solutes

8. Which of the following materials would not normally be filtered from the blood at the glomerulus

A) water

B) urea

C) protein

D) sodium ions

9. Sodium is actively extruded from which part of the nephron

A) descending portion of the proximal convoluted tubule

B) ascending portion of the loop of the nephron

C) ascending portion of the distal convoluted tubule

D) descending portion of the collecting duct

10. Which of these hormones is most likely to directly cause a drop in blood pressure

A) aldosterone

B) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

C) erythropoietin

D) atrial natriuretic hormone (ANH)

11. The presence of ADH (antidiuretic hormon+e) causes an individual to excrete

A) sugars

B) less water

C) more watter

D) both a and c are correct

12. To lower blood acidity

A) hydrogen ions are excreted and bicarbonate ions are reabsorbed

B) hydrogen ions are reabsorbed and bicarbonate ions are excreted

C) hydrogen ions and bicarbonate ions are reabsorbed

D) hydrogen ions and bicarbonate ions are excreted

E) urea, uric acid and ammonia are excreted

13. The function of erythropoietin is

A) reabsorption of sodium ions

B) excretion of potassium ions

C) reabsorption of water

D) stimulation of red blood cell production

E) the raising of blood pressure

14. Which of these conditions is associated with an infection of the kidney

A) urethritis

B) pyelonephritis

C) cystitis

D) all of these are correct

15. Hemodialysis is done to reduce the effects of which of the following

A) uremia

B) excess EPO in the body

C) diuretics

D) cystitis

1. Spongy bone

A) contains osteons

B) contains red bone marrow, where blood cells are formed

C) weakens bones

D) takes up most of a leg bone

E) all of these are correct

2. Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system

A) production of blood cells

B) movement

C) storage of minerals and fats

D) production of body heat

3. These cells are responsible fort he formation of cartilage

A) osteoclasts

B) red blood cells

C) chondrocytes

D) osteoblasts

4. This bone is the only movable bone of the skull

A) sphenoid

B) frontal

C) mandible

D) maxilla

E) temporal

5. Which of the following is not involved in forming the shape of the face

A) nasal bones

B) mandible

C) zygomatic bones

D) sternum

6. This area of the vertebral column is the location where the ribs attach

A) lumbar region

B) cervical region

C) thoracic region

D) sacrum region

7. Which of the following is not a bone of the apprendicular skeleton

A) the scapula

B) a rib

C) a metatarsal bone

D) the patella

11. The bone cell responsible for breaking down bone tissue is the ______, whereas the bone cell that produces new bone tissue is the ______

A) osteoclast; osteoblast

B) osteocyte; osteoclast

C) osteocyte; osteoblast

D) osteoclast; osteocyte

12. In which of the following does bone form from cartilage

A) endochondral ossification

B) synovial ossification

C) intramembrous ossification

D) bone remodeling

1. In an examination of a sample of muscle tissue, you notice that the sample consists of striated cells with multiple nuclei in each cell.This suggests that the sample is from which of the following types of muscle

A) cardiac

B) smooth

C) skeletal

D) both b and c are correct

2. Which of the following terms is not linked to its correct definition

A) insertion – the end of the muscle that is attached to a movable bone

B) synergists – muscles that make the action of the prime mover more effective

C) origin – attachment point of a muscle that is stationary

D) antagonist – muscle that moves opposite to the prime mover

E) all of these are correct

3. Impulses that move down the T tubules of a muscle fiber initially cause

A) movement of tropomyosin

B) attachment of the cross-bridges to myosin

C) release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

D) hydrolysis of ATP to ADP

4. The ______ is the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber

A) sarcoplasm

B) sarcoplasmic reticulum

C) sarcolemma

D) sarcomere

5. As ADP and ℗ are released from a myosin head

A) actin filaments move toward the H band

B) a sarcomere shortens

C) myosin filaments pull toward the thin filaments

D) all of these are correct

7. A ______ is an injury to muscle due to twisting or stretching

A) sprain

B) strain

C) sarcoma

D) myalgia

8. Cancers that occur in soft tissues, such as muscles, are referred to as

A) muscular dystrophies

B) myalgias

C) myasthenia gravis

D) sarcomas

E) none of these are correct

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