IMAGE PRO ADUCHE
Radiology Proficiency Quiz
Test your knowledge and expertise in radiology with this comprehensive quiz! With 100 challenging questions, you'll explore various topics ranging from film processing to radiation safety.
Perfect for students or professionals looking to refresh their knowledge, this quiz offers:
- Multiple-choice questions
- Immediate feedback on answers
- A chance to identify strengths and areas for improvement
This explain the theory of formation of the latent image.
Bergunie-Tribendeau Theory
Gurney-Mott theory
Patter-Hollis theory
Geigger-muler theory
The emulsion layer of film is ____ um thick.
3 to 5
5 to 7
1 to 5
5 to 10
What causes grid cutoff artifacts?
Improper patient positioning
Improper use of caliper
Improper patient instruction
Improper technique factor.
Base relative screen speed is equal to?
1,000
500
100
400
Panchromatic film is defined as
Primarily receptive to red
Primarily receptive to green
Receptive to all colors
Receptive to one color
What is the time and temperature required for developing the film in an automatic processor?
85 for 20 seconds
90 for 5 seconds
75 for 10 seconds
65 for 40 seconds
Cleaning of film viewer box should be
Quarterly
Semi annually
Annually
Weekly
What chemistry acts as a buffer and a source of alkali?
Potassium bromide
Carbonate
Sulphate
Hydroxide
Which is the part of the cassette for easy opening and closing?? I. Felt padding II. Locks III. Hinged
III only
II and III
I and II
II only
How long should lead apparel be checked for protective integrity?
Annually
Semi-annually
Quarterly
Weekly
Which of the following views uses an intra-oral film?
Mandibular symphysis
Lateral nose
Optic foramen
Styloid process
In radiology, a film critique may be considered as
Technical evaluation of a radiograph
An overexposed film
Excellent contrast and density
Proper and adequate radiographic technique
What is the common cause of inadequate agitation? I. Failure of circulation pumps II. Clogging of filters III. Air lock in the lines
II and III
I, II and III
II only
III only
Which of the following acts to bind the different layers of the x-ray film?
Adhesive
Emulsion
Overcoat
Base
Which of the following controls the swelling and softening of the x-ray film?
Hardener
Solvent
Preservative
Restrainer
The average replenishment rate for fixer is approximately cc/film.
100 - 110
50 - 60
200 - 220
25 - 30
Quantum detection efficiency is also referred as the?
Atomic number
X-ray absorption
Light emission
Light absorption
What is the clearing time in a 90-second automatic processor?
5-10
20-25
10-15
15-20
What is the traditional development time in manual processing?
5 minutes
2 minutes
6 minutes
60 minutes
The degree of the hotness and coldness of the solution is?
Dryness
Wetness
Time
Temperature
It is recommended that the processing solutions be changed every months.
2
5
3
4
When sodium sulfite is used as an x-ray processing chemical, it is a/an
Accelerator
Preservative
Reducing agent
Restrainer
Fresh x-ray film should be stored at approximately _____?
60 - 70 degrees F at 50 - 60% relative humidity
60 - 70 degrees F at 25% relative humidity
50 degrees F at 80% relative humidity
70 - 80 degrees F at 80 - 90% relative humidity
What agent is used to minimize fog and maintain chemical balance between fresh and seasoned chemicals?
Potassium bromide
Sodium bromide
Potassium hydroxide
Sodium carbonate
Which of the following does NOT apply when you compare the base of polyester and the base of cellulose triacetate?
Stronger
Non flammable
Less warping
Thicker
Which of the following is NOT included in the replenishment system?
Device to control backflow
Heat exchangers
Strainer
Instrumentation to measure replenishment
The height of the darkroom safelight from loading bench should be
48 inches
130 cm
At least 4 feet
All of the choices
The film that is sensitive to fluorescent light is
Orthochromatic
Screen type
Direct-exposure
High speed
Remnant x-rays are those that _____ patient.
Exit
Interact with the
Do not interact with the
Are absorbed by the
What kind of fog causes overdevelopment?
Oxidation
Contamination
Chemical
Exhaustion
Which of the following is the oldest method of silver recovery?
Metallic placement
Chemical precipitation
Electrolytic
Resin
A double-emulsion films contain the following.
Good recorded detail
Wider latitude
Use with one intensifying screen
Higher contrast
One of the most common causes of wet film emerging from an automatic processor is?
Dirty wash water
Developer temperature too low
General lack of hardener in developer or fixer
Processor drain clogged
Screens are cleaned _____.
With scouring powder
According to hospital rules and regulations
According to the manufacturer's specifications
With a mild soap such as ivory soap
What part of an automatic processor regulates the temperature?
Thermometer
Thermostat
Blower
Dryer
Which of the following is/are the function/s of the fixer? I. Remove undeveloped silver halide crystals II. To shrink and harden the gelatin III. To neutralize the developer
I, II and III
I and II
II and III
I and III
The pH is the qualitative measurement of the acidity and alkalinity of the solution. The abbreviation "PH" stands for?
Purification of helium.
Phosphors of hydrogen
Power of helium
Power of hydrogen
The average developer immersion time in an automatic "90-second" processor is approximately
30
25
35
20
The essential ingredients of the fixer are
Tanning agent, accelerator, reducer and preservative
Acid, hardener, hypo and preservative
Preservative, reducer, hardener and acid
Alkali, preservative, reducer and restrainer
Artifacts can be created by means of
When the film is being exposed
When the film is being processed
When the film is being handled and stored
All of the choices
Which of the following acts as a neutralizer during film development?
Silver bromide crystals
Black metallic silver
Hydroquinone
Acetic acid
Which tool is used to identify poor screen contact?
Step wedge
Densitometer
Anatomical phantoms
Wire mesh
What is the recommended time in months that the solution be discharged?
1
6
3
5
Which of the following is/are causes of dirty intensifying screens? I. Crinkles II. Finger marks III. Crescent marks
I and II
I and III
I, II and III
II and III
What are the causes of poor screen contact? I. Warping of the cassette II. Wrinkled screen III. Cracked cassette frames.
III only
I only
II and III
I, II and III
Film should be stored at degrees C
10-21
21-29
5-9
0-5
Which of the following refers to a frame-like film container used as a mounting for intensifying screens?
Cassette
Cardboard
Film
Grid
Which of the following are types of processing artifacts? I. Roller marks .II. Static marks. III. Chemical fog
III only
I and III
II only
I and II
Agitation upon immersion of film in the developer
Will increase the temperature of the developer
Produce uniform development
Has no effect on development
Produce streaks on the films
What material is used for cassette to reduce attenuation up to 50 % and permits a corresponding reduction in patient dose?
Bakelite
Graphite
Lightweight
Radiolucent
In order to overcome magnification when employing a 6-in OFD air gap for chest radiography, one should use in FFD of _____ feet?
9
7
10 or more
8
Which of the following techniques would produce the greatest amount of radiographic density?
300 mA, 2/5 sec.
200 mA, 2/10 sec.
400 mA, 1/10 sec
500 mA, 1/10 sec
The density on a radiograph can be doubled by
Going down a step in exposure time
Cutting the distance in half
Increasing the kV by 15%
Increasing the mAs by 30%
Ensuring good screen-film contact also ensures reduced
Magnification
Blur
Patient dose
Contrast resolution
When a technologist is comparing two radiographs of the chest, one is taken with a 72-in FFD and the other with a 50-in FFD (and a compensated technique), the radiograph with the 50-in FFD would exhibit?
Increase distortion of the heart
Less autonomic motion
Increase quantum mottle.
Greater definition
56. The primary reason why distortion usually occur because subject anatomy is _____?
Thin
Inclined
Heavy
Dense
A technique of 200 mA, 1/2 sec has been used to produce a film of satisfactory density. If the milliamperage was changed to 500, the time needed to obtain the same milliamperage, all other factors remaining constant, would be _____ second.
1/15
3/20
1/10
2/10
When a 6-in air gap is used in chest radiography, which of the following statements would be true?
Low ratio grid is required
The kV should be raised to 120
Soft pulmonary infiltrates and small densities are well demonstrated
A 72-in FFD is needed for true lung and heart size.
Radiographic noise increases with an increase in which of the following?
Phosphor thickness
Exposure time
Image receptor distance
Grid ratio
The most important factor which affect film sensitometry include
Activity of developer
All of the choices
Temperature of developer
Time of development
Which of the following factors will DIRECTLY influence recorded detail? I. object-film distance II. focus-film distance III. focal-spot size
I, II and III
II and III
I and III
I and II
The silver- halide latent image is produced by
X-ray, light, or other forms of radiation
Developing agents
Sodium sulfite
Acetic acid
A grid ratio is determined by the relationship of the?
The width to the space
None of the choices
Length to the width of the strips
The height to the width of the strip
Using a grid upside down will cause
Severe grid cut off in the periphery of the film
Severe grid cut off in the center of the film
Uniform increase in density
Uniform lack of density
The use of a grid will protect the.
Film from primary radiation
Film from scattered radiation
Patient from scattered radiation
Patient from primary radiation
If the milliampere selector were set at 1000 mA, what exposure time would be required to produce 80 mAs?
4/5 seconds
8.0 seconds
1/125 seconds
2/25 seconds
Which of the following techniques would exhibit the GREATEST density?
50 mA, 1 1/2sec., 60 kv, 10:1 grid
300 mA, 1/3sec., 80 kV, 12:1 grid
200 mA, 1/4 sec., 70 kV, 8:1 grid
75 mA, 1 sec., 80 kV, 6:1 grid
Which of the following is the MOST opaque?
Bone
Cartilage
Solid organs
Muscle
The PRIMARY function of filters in an x-ray machine is to reduce the _____?
Field size of the primary beam
Film's exposure to scattered radiation
Patient's exposure to low-energy x-rays
Film's exposure to secondary radiation
The higher the grid ratio, the greater the
Focal-film distance required
Radius of the grid
Speed of the exposure
Clean up of the grid
X-rays emerge from the patient in the direction of the image receptor is considered to which type of x-rays?
Emitted x-rays
Intercepted x-rays
Transmitted x-rays
Back-scattered x-rays
Which of the following factors does NOT affect subject contrast?
KVp
Object shape
Object size
MAs
Which of the following statements relating to "artifacts" is FALSE?
Gray-white scum occurs from incomplete washing
Streaking occurs from failure to agitate once
Static occurs from the friction of the material used
Reticulation occurs from excessive fixation
Radiographic contrast is DIRECTLY influenced by ______?
Milliampere-seconds
Kilovoltage
Milliamperage
Time
To maintain the same density when changing a non-grid technique to utilize an 8:1 grid, the technologist must make which of the following changes to milliampere seconds?
Quadruple
Increase by 50%.
Halve
Double
Subject contrast is chiefly influenced by the _____?
Milliamperage
Type of film used
Kilovoltage
Time
The 15 % Rule' in radiography indicates that _____?
To control motion and sharpness, exposure time must be decreased by 15%
15 % of x-ray examination must be repeated owing the incorrect exposure factors
To reduce the exposure (mAs) to one-half at any level of kV, add 15% more kilovoltage
Distance must be increased 158 to compensate for double the exposure time
The presence of ascites will result in an increase of ______?
Scattered radiation
Density
Primary radiation
Distortion
Which technique would yield the shortest scale contrast?
100 mAs, 60 kv, 10:1 grid, medium-speed screens
2000 mAs, 62 kV, 12:1 grid, low-speed screens
150 mAs, 58 kV, 16:1 grid, high-speed screens
300 mAs, 56 kv, 6:1 grid, medium-speed screens
Beam restricting device.
A viewbox
A fluoroscopic spot-film
A cone
A PBL
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Solution in automatic processing has a longer solution life than of the manual.
Automatic and manual processing both have short solution life
Solution in manual processing has a longer solution life than of the automatic.
Automatic and manual processing both have long solution life
Which of the following sets of technical factors would produce shortest scale of contrast?
400 mA, 1/4 sec, 75 kV, 8:1 grid, large focal spot
200 mA, 1/10 sec, 60 kV, 12:1 grid, large focal spot
600 mA, 2/5 sec, 65 kV, 6:1 grid, small focal spot
100 mA, 1/20 se:, 80 kV, 10:1 grid, small focal spot
Which of the following has an effect on the production of secondary and scattered radiations: I. Thickness of the part being x-rayed II. Density of the tissue being x-rayed III. Kilovoltage
II and III
I and II
I and III
I, II and III
Which of the following radiographic screen system generally controls the resolution? I. Size of the intensifying screen crystal layer II. Size of the silver halide crystal III. Film graininess
I and II only
I only
I and III only
I, II and III
A technique of 100 mA, 1/2 sec at 80 kV is converted to 100 mA, 1/8 sec. In order to maintain the same density, what would be the new kilovoltage?
92 kV
100 kV
106 kV
Which of the following can be done to REDUCE absorption blur?
Patient refrained from eating
Patient compression
Patient suspended breathing
Patient immobilization
On collimating to the area of interest, x-ray exposure must be ______.
No change
Slight change
Increased
Decreased
Which of the following conditions can produce a fog-like image on a finished radiograph? I. Improper safelights II. A low ratio grid with high kv technique III. Improper collimation
I and III
I and II
II and III
I, II and III
An adjustment in the kV from 60 to 80 will produce I. An increase in latitude II. Less patient absorption III. Shorter wavelengths
I and III
I, II and III
I and II
II and III
Which of the following is considered as the simplest type of grid?
Horizontal grid
Crossed grid
Focused grid
Linear grid
A Potter-Bucky diaphragm is known as a
Grid without a ratio or radius
Special type of cone
Grid in motion during exposure
High ratio grid type
How often should the collimation be evaluated?
Bi-quarterly
Daily
Annually
Semi-annually
Which of the following techniques would produce the LEAST density?
200 mA, 1/8 sec, 75 kVp, 60-in SID
300 mA, 1/6 sec, 88 kVp, 50-in SID
200 mA, 1/2 sec, 78 kVP, 40-in SID
300 mA, 1/4 sec, 72 kVp, 40-in SID
FSB can be minimized by ______?
Increasing focal spot size
Increasing processing time or temperature C. reducing SID
Reducing SID
Reducing OID
Definition is impaired by ______. I. increase OFD II. decrease FFD III. motion
I and II only.
I and III only
I, II and III
II and III only
Which of the following changes would have a dramatic effect on radiographic contrast?
Changing mAs from 100 to 125
Changing from a table-top to a 12:1 grid
Changing the focal spot from small to large
Changing the kilovoltage from 86 kV to 82 kv
For an exposure of the pediatric preschool group, mAs should be
Increased 50%
Decreased 50 %
No change
Decreased 25 %
A technique of 100 mA, 1/20 sec at 60 kv was used to adequately expose a fractured forearm. What technique would be best to use after a cast has been applied?
400 mA, 1/20 sec, 60 kV (8 x mAs)
200 mA, 1/10 sec, 66 kV (2 x mAs + 10% kv)
100 mA, 1/20 sec, 75 kv (+15% kV)
100 mA, 1/20 sec, 80 kv (2 x mas + 20 kV)
Changing the grid with a higher grid ratio will result in a/an
Greater positioning
Decrease patient dose
Increase patient dose
Decrease in spatial effect
The original exposure factors are 200 mA, 86 kV, and 1/2 seconds. What would the new exposure time in second if the kilovoltage is reduced to 80?
1/6
2/5
1/4
3/4
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