Chir plastie Y3
Facial Trauma and Hand Injury Quiz
Test your knowledge on complex facial trauma and hand injury management with our comprehensive quiz. This assessment covers a variety of topics from fractures to tendon injuries, perfect for medical professionals and students alike.
- Multiple choice questions
- Focus on practical applications
- Enhance your understanding of injuries
Quel est le plus grand risque d'une fracture complexe du massif facial intéressant le massif ethmoïdo-nasal ?
Diplopie
Contusion du nerf optique
Méningite
Dystopie canthale
Enophtalmie
Dans un traumatisme de la face, parmi les lésions suivantes, laquelle est une urgence thérapeutique (dans les 12 heures) ?
- Disjonction crânio-faciale ou fracture de Lefort III
- Plaie du canal de Sténon
- Fracture bilatérale des condyles mandibulaires
- Plaie du globe oculaire
- Plaie du nerf facial
Quelle est la cause la plus fréquente d'un syndrome algo-dysfonctionnel de l'articulation temporo-mandibulaire ?
- Le rhumatisme articulaire
- Un traumatisme
- Un trouble de l'occlusion dentaire
- Une tumeur du condyle
- Aucune des propositions ci-dessus n'est exacte
A la suite d'une chute sur le menton, un patient présente une limitation douloureuse d'ouverture buccale avec impossibilité d'avancer la mandibule et une béance incisive. Le diagnostic est :
- Fracture de l'os hyoïde
- Fracture symphysaire
Disjonction crâniofaciale
- Fracture sous-condylienne bilatérale de la mandibule
- Fracture des apophyses coronoïdes
La manœuvre de réductiond'une luxation temporo-mandibulaire bilatérale commence par un seul des mouvements suivants, lequel ?
- Fermeture de la cavité buccale
- Traction par appui incisif
Rétropulsion mandibulaire
- Propulsion mandibulaire
Abaissement mandibulaire par appui molaire
Le contact molaire unilateral premature est le signe majeur d'une fracture
- De la symphyse mandibulaire
- Sous-condylienne
- D'une fracture du malaire
- D'une disjonction intermaxillaire
- D'une facture de l'arcade zygomatique
Quelle complication ophtalmologique doit-on systématiquement recherché devant toute fracture isolée du malaire (sans contusion ni plaie oculaire) ?
- Paralysie de la 3ème paire crânienne
- Paralysie de la 6ème paire crânienne
Diplopie
Paralysie palpébrale
- Aucune des réponses ci-dessus n'est exacte
La complication qu'il faut en tout premier lieu redouter dans une fracture du condyle mandibulaire chez l'enfant est :
- Plaie du pédicule vasculaire maxillaire interne
Lésion concomitante du nerf facial
- Lésion du nerfdentaire inférieur
- Pseudarthrose
Ankylose temporo-mandibulaire
Which of the following physical findings would be seen with de Quervain tenosynovitis?
Trousseau sign
Finkelstein test
Phalen test
Tinel sign
A bowler presents with wrist pain and grip weakness. On exam, he is found to have pain over the radial aspect of the wrist that is aggravated by flexing the thumb and by applying ulnar flexion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Carpal tunel syndrome
Scaphoid fracture
De Quervain tenosynovitis
Boxer’s fracture
Which ONE of the following is NOT a sign of carpal tunnel syndrome? Please select one of the following:
Paresthesia in median nerve distribution
Numbness over thenar eminence
Wasting of thenar eminence muscles
Reduced grip strength
Positive Tinel’s test
The nerve affected in carpal tunnel syndrome is:
Ulnar nerve
Median nerve
Radial nerve
Brachial nerve
Which finger can has Dupuytrend’s disease the most?
Thumb
Index
Middle finger
Ring finger
Little finger
Zone flexor sheath tendon :
2 zones
3 zones
4 zones
5 zones
6 zones
Zone I of flexor sheath tendon :
Distal to FDS insertion
Proximal aspect of flexor sheath to FDS insertion
Lumbrical origin to proximal aspect of flexor sheath
Carpal tunnel
Proximal to carpal tunnel
Which zone of flexor sheath tendon is the most complicated to repair
Zone 1
Zone 2
Zone 3
Zone 4
Zone 5
Time of repairing flexor tendon
Must be urgent
The most optimal time is with 14days of the injury
3 months after the injury
6 months after the injury
None of thoses
These management of flexor tendon are correct ,except :
Update Tetanus immunization
Begin antibiotics
Obtain radiographs
Assess digits for vascular compromise
Electromyography to evaluate the nerve injury
Goals in flexor tendon repair :
Prevent gap formation and adhesions
Allow differential gliding between FDS and FDP tendons and gliding under pulleys
Perform a repair of adequate strength to allow early rehabilitation
Allow for full functional recovery
All correct
Nerve that go through to carpal tunnel :
Radial nerve
Ulnar nerve
Median nerve
Musculocutanous nerve
All are correct
The successful time of flexor tendon repair :
Up to 3 weeks
3 months
6 months
2 months
Never heal
Zone IV of flexor tendon is required :
Distal to FDS insertion
Proximal aspect of flexor sheath to FDS insertion
Lumbrical origin to proximal aspect of flexor sheath
Carpal tunnel
Proximal to carpal tunnel
The common sign of flexor tendon injury ,except :
Loss of flexor tone and normal digital cascade
Inability to flex DIP or PIP joints
Pain on flexion
significantly weak flexion may indicate partial tendon laceration
Inability to extend DIP or PIP joint
Flexor Tenolysis usually considered :
3 weeks after repair
6 weeks after repair
4-6 months after repair
12 months after repair
Whenever
How many compartment of extensor tendon of the wrist?
2 compartments
3 compartments
4 compartments
5 compartments
6 compartments
How many zone injury of extensor tendon of the wrist ?
2 zones
4 zones
6 zones
9 zones
12 zones
Zone II of extensor tendon is required :
Terminal tendon
Triangular ligament
Central slip
Over proximal phalanx
Over MCP joint
EDC ( Extensor digirum common) is in
1st compartment
2nd compartment
3rd compartment
4th compartment
5th compartment
What is Mallet finger?
Disinsertion of extensor tendon at PIPJ
Disinsertion of extensor tendon at DIPJ
Disinsertion of flexor tendon at PIPJ
Disinsertion flexor tendon at DIPJ
All are corrects
Indication of operative treatment of Mallet finger :
Close injury without subluxation of DIPJ
open injury with subluxation of DIPJ
open injury without subluxation of DIPJ
need to operate every injury
all are corrects
Carpal tunnel syndrome is compression of
Radial nerve
median nerve
ulnar nerve
axillary nerve
musculocutanous nerve
Guyon’s cannal syndrome is compression of :
radial nerve
median nerve
ulnar nerve
axillary nerve
musculocutanous nerve
Tendon grafting requirement :
Supple soft tissues
Passive mobilization of joints
Motivated, compliant patient
One stage grafting must have adequate soft tissue envelope to glide through
All are corrects
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis always happen in :
Compartment 1
Compartment 2
Compartment 3
Compartment 4
Compartment 5
Which compartment of extensor tendon is the most traumatic rupture?
Compartment 1
Compartment 3
Compartment 2
Compartment 4
Compartment 5
How many system pulleys in hand flexor tendon?
2 systems
3 systems
4 systems
5 systems
6 systems
How many cruciate pulleys in hand flexor tendon?
2
3
4
5
6
How many annular pulleys in hand flexor tendon?
2
3
4
5
6
Le plexus brachial est constitué par l’union des branches antérieures « racines » du plexus :
Des 3 derniers nerfs cervicaux C6, C7, C8 et du 1er nerf dorsal ou thoracique T1
Des 4 derniers nerfs cervicaux C5, C6, C7, C8 et du 1er nerf dorsal ou thoracique T1
Des 5 derniers nerfs cervicaux C4, C5, C6, C7, C8 et du 1er nerf dorsal ou thoracique T1
Des 6 derniers nerfs cervicaux C3, C4, C5, C6, C7, C8 et du 1er nerf dorsal ou thoracique T1
Non
Combien de type de paralysie du plexus brachial :
2 types : Paralysie supraclaviculaire et Paralysie infraclaviculaire
2 types : Paralysie supraclaviculaire et Paralysie rétro et Infraclaviculaire
3 types : Paralysie supraclaviculaire, Paralysie rétroclaviculaire et Paralysie infraclaviculaire
3 types : Paralysie supraclaviculaire, Paralysie anteroclaviculaire et Paralysie infraclaviculaire
Non
Les signes de gravité de paralysie du plexus brachial : Réponse faute
L’étendue de l’atteinte
L’atteinte des racines supérieures
L’atteinte du serratus anterior, du latissimus dorsii, des rhomboïdes, du phrénique
Initialement un signe de Claude Bernard- Horner, une hémorragie méningée, un Brown-Séquard
Non
Quel est le temps approprié pour le traitement chirurgical en cas de paralysie du plexus brachial :
Chirurgie en urgent
Chirurgie vers le 3ème mois (avant la dégénérescence définitive des plaques motrices)
Chirurgie vers le 6ème mois
Chirurgie vers 1 ans
Chirurgie vers 2 ans
Combien de branches du plexus bracial
1
2
3
4
5
Quels sont les branches du plexus brachial
Nerf Musculocutané
Nerf axillaire
Nerf radial
Nerf median, nerf ulna
All correct
Function of hand
Flexion
Extension
Abduction
Adduction
All correct
Which of the following physical findings would be seen with de Quervain tenosynovitis?
Trousseau sign
Finkelstein test
Phalen test
Tinel sign
Non
A bowler presents with wrist pain and grip weakness. On exam, he is found to have pain over the radial aspect of the wrist that is aggravated by flexing the thumb and by applying ulnar flexion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Carpal tunel syndrome
Scaphoid fracture
De Quervain tenosynovitis
Boxer’s fracture
All correct
Which ONE of the following is NOT a sign of carpal tunnel syndrome?
Paresthesia in median nerve distribution
Numbness over thenar eminence
Wasting of thenar eminence muscles
Reduced grip strength
Positive Tinel’s test
The nerve affected in carpal tunnel syndrome is:
Median nerve
Ulnar nerve
Radial nerve
Brachial nerve
All correct
Which finger can has Dupuytrend’s disease the most?
Thumb
Index
Middle finger
Ring finger
Little finger
Colls’s fracture deformity
Posterior
Anterior
Lateral
Medial
Non
Smit’s fracture deformity
Anterior
Posterior
Lateral
Medial
Non
Sings of compartment syndrome
Pain
Paresthesia
Pulseless
Paralysis
All correct
The management for hand wound
Must be done in OR for exploration
Can do in dressing room
Suture immediately
Do everywhere
Non
What is the most appropriate in following statements in principle Rhinoplasty?
The objective of basic Rhinoplasty is based on nasal deformity, anatomy of the nose, and material implant.
The objective of basic Rhinoplasty is based on ideal nose, anatomy of the nose, and approach for Rhinoplasty.
The objective of basic Rhinoplasty is based on nasal deformity, anatomy of the nose, approach for Rhinoplasty and material implant.
The objective of basic Rhinoplasty is based on ideal nose, anatomy of the nose, approach for Rhinoplasty and material implant.
The objective of basic Rhinoplasty is based on ideal nose, patient concern and material implant.
Which of the following anatomical term is defined by “ the most anterior and caudal point of cartilaginous septum?
The rhinion
The tip defining point
The anterior septal angle
The posterior septal angle
The lobule
Which of the following nasal parameter is measured by “ the good’s method”?
Nasal length
Nasal rotation
Nasal projection
Nasal alar flare
Nasal valve angle
The ideal nasofacial angle should be:
120 degrees
35 degrees
100 degrees
90 degrees
15 degrees
Which of the following issues is the least important to be included in the initial consultation for Rhinoplasty?
Dissatisfaction of nasal appearance.
Nasal obstruction.
Medications.
Medical history.
Family members perception the nasal deformity.
Which of the following branches supply the sensory innervation of the tip of the nose?
Supraorbital nerve
Infraorbital nerve
Supratrochlear branch of the optic nerve
Infratrochlear branch of the optic nerve
External nasal branch of the anterior ethmoidal nerve
What is the most appropriate in following statements in nasal lobule area?
Nasal lobule consists of: middle crura, nasal tip area and columella.
Nasal lobule consists of: LLC, supratip area and nasal tip.
Nasal lobule consists of: supratip area, nasal tip and columella.
Nasal lobule consists of: middle crura, supratip area and nasal tip.
Nasal lobule consists of all component of LLC and supratip area.
What is the most appropriate in following statements of external nose landmark?
A. External nose landmarks are : nasal bone, nasal cartilage, and nasal soft tissue.
B. External nose landmarks are : nasal dorsum, nasal tip , and columella.
C. External nose landmarks are : nasal roof, nasal septum, and nasal alae.
D. External nose landmarks are : nasal bone, upper lateral cartilage, and lower lateral cartilage.
E. External nose landmarks are ranging from skin of the nose and bony cartilaginous framework.
The major supports of nasal dorsum are?
A. Nasal bone, upper lateral cartilage, septal cartilage, and vomer bone.
B. Nasal bone, upper lateral cartilage, septal cartilage, and ethmoidal bone.
C. Nasal bone, upper lateral cartilage, Ethmoidal bone, and vomer bone.
D. Nasal bone, upper lateral cartilage, septal cartilage, and columella.
E. External nose structure, columella, and septal cartilage.
What is the most appropriate in following statements of ULC anatomty?
A. ULCs are the major support for nasal dorsum of nasal framework.
B. ULCs are the major role in airflow regulation of nasal function.
C. ULCs are fused with septum cartilage at medial borders at upper 2/3.
D. ULCs are key elements in altering of nasal profile.
E. ULCs are articulated with nasal bone, LLCs and septal cartilage.
What is the most appropriate of following statements in Rhinoplasty?
A. As the skin of the nose is very think, preperiosteum and preperichodrium layers are the best surgical plan in Rhinoplasty.
B. Only open rhinoplasty approach can be determined the proper surgical plan and avoiding major complication.
C. The skin of nose consists 5 layers including the skin layer, superficial fatty layer, fibromuscular layer, deep fatty layer and longitudinal fibrous sheet.
D. To avoid the common complication of skin necrosis, subperisteal layer is only best surgical plan in Rhinoplasty.
E. Subperichodrial and subperiosteal technique with good material implant are always reduced major complication in Rhinoplasty.
Which of the following is major support for tip of the nose?
A. Interdomal ligament.
B. Cartilaginousdorsum.
C. Alar cartilage attachment to the skin.
D. Medial crural footplate attachments to the caudal septum.
E. Membranous septum.
A 26-year-old woman of Asian descent who underwent rhinoplasty 5 years ago has erosion of the silicone rubber (Silastic) prosthesis through the skin of the nasal tip. Physical examination shows a depressed scar in this region. Secondary following grafts for this procedure is the most appropriate to minimize volume loss?
A. Dermis + silicone implant.
B. Fat + silicone implant.
C. Muscle.
D. Cartilage.
E. Bone.
Which answer is true regarding structural fat grafting?
A. It should never be used in the nose.
B. It can be used to augment midface hypoplasia.
C. It cannot be used for breast augmentation without the Brava® device.
D. There is no risk of blindness when used around the eye, so long as the orbital septum is not breached.
E. HIV is an absolute contraindication.
Anaesthesia of the nasal side wall is best accomplished through infiltration of which one of the following nerves?
A. Buccal.
B. Dorsalnasal.
C. Infra-orbital.
D. Infratrochlear.
E. Zygomaticofacial.
Which one of the following is false with regards to silicone?
A. Silicone is a polymer of dimethylsiloxane.
B. Short polymer chains form a viscous liquid.
C. Long polymer chains produce solid silicone.
D. It is found in higher concentrations in synthetic infant milk formulae than in the breast milk of augmented patients.
E. None of these is false.
Which of the following is best served by non-open approach Rhinoplasty?
A. Cleft lip nose deformity.
B. Marked underprojection.
C. Nasal tip rhinoplasty revision.
D. Marked tip asymmetry.
E. Conservative tip refinement and rotation.
Which of the following anatomic region is bounded by the nasal septum, the caudal margin of the upper lateral cartilage and the floor of the nose?
A. Scroll region
B. Rhinion
C. Sellion
D. Nasal valve
E. Internasal suture line
Which of the following statements about Rhinoplasty is true?
A. The nasal tip is thick and relatively devoid of subcutaneous and sebaceous glands.
B. Straight-line removal of a nasal hump can result an over-reduced profile.
C. The mimetic muscle most important in influencing the position of the nasal tip is the Lavator Labii Superioris.
D. Lateral osteotomies should be “ Angle-Cut” to avoid collapse of the nasal vault.
E. The membranous septum is the major tip support mechanism of the nose.
The distance represented between the arrow is?
A. 30% of the width of nasal base.
B. 50% of the width of nasal base.
C. 75% of the width of nasal base.
D. 1/3 of the width of nasal ala.
E. 2/3 of the width of nasal ala.
What is the most appropriate in the following statements of principle Rhinoplasty?
A. The best access and visualization for Rhinoplasty is achieved via the bipedicle ( Bucket-handle) approach.
C. Medial osteotomy is performed after lateral osteotomty.
B. Nasal skin is thinnest at the nasal tip.
D. The preferred lateral osteotomy pattern is High-Low-High.
E. Intermediate osteotomy is preferred after lateral osteotomy.
Which of the following statements about External Rhinoplasty is true?
A. A high transcolumellar incision is preferred.
B. The major vasculature of the nasal tip is located below musculoaponeurotic layer of the nose
C. The most common complication of transcolumella incision in necrosis.
D. The proper dissection plan is above the cartilage and bone and above musculoaponeurotic layer of the nose.
E. External Rhinoplasty divides minor support of the nose.
Which of the following alloplastic material is used most commonly to augment the nasal dorsum?
A. Silicone
B. Gore-Tex
C. Medpore
D. Proplast
E. Alloderm
Which of the following is not an approach in Rhinoplasty ?
A. Intercartilaginous
B. Delivery, bipedicle chondrocutaneous
C. Nondelivery, cartilage splitting
D. Nondelivery, retrograde eversion
E. Open
What is the most appropriate of following statements in nasal tip projection?
A. The nasal tip projection is the minor concern as ideal nose is the tool.
B. The tip projection is, the length from alar groove to the tip, 2/3 of the nasal length.
C. Tip surgery is always correction of tip projection and nasolabial angle:90- 95degrees.
D. Alar reduction surgery is always performed for correction the tip over-projection deformity.
E. Cartilage tip graft is always performed for correction the tip under-projection deformity.
What is the most appropriate of following statements in Rhinoplasty approach?
A. Straight line transcolumellar Sercer’s incision is easy to performed to access the LLC in tipplasty.
B. Transcolumellar invert V incision is produced the better scar for open Rhinoplasty.
C. Transcolumella stair-step incision is procured less tension closure in open Rhinoplasty.
D. Jugo’s transcolumella incision provided better approach for septoplasty.
E. Padovan’s trancolumella incision is the best approach for columella lengthening.
Which of the following will not preserve or enhance tip projection in Rhinoplasty?
A. Autogenous cartilage tip graft.
B. Transdomalsuture.
C. Plumning graft.
D. Complete strip technique.
E. Complete transfixation incision.
Which of the following is the most difficult to correct in revision Rhinoplasty?
A. Excess tissue in the bony pyramid
B. Excess tissue in upper cartilaginous vault
C. Excess tissue in caudal septum
D. Excess tissue in caudal septum and lower cartilaginous vault
E. Excess reduction of the both lower lateral cartilages.
Which of the following nasal area is not to indicate the Gore-Tex implant in Rhinoplasty?
A. Nasal dorsum
B. Supratip dorsum
C. Nasaltip
D. Lateral nasal wall
E. Premaxilla
Which of the following statements regarding the Gore-Tex is true?
A. Gore-Tex is a Porous High-density Polyethylene.
B. Gore-Tex has pore sizes ranging from 125-250μm.
C. Gore-Tex can be used for columellar graft augmentation.
D. Gore-Tex most common complication is infection.
E. Gore-Tex implant extrusion rate is high.
Which of the following grafts are used to increase an inadequate nasofrontal angle?
A. Dorsal onlay grafts
B. Spreader grafts
C. Radix grafts
D. Dorsal sidewall onlay grafts
E. Septal extension grafts
Which of the following statements regarding nasal implant is False?
A. Nasal septal cartilage is the preferred cartilaginous grafting material for nasal reconstruction.
B. Conchal cartilage is the second choice cartilaginous grafting material for nasal reconstruction.
C. Costal cartilage has the disadvantage/susceptibility of warping.
D. Iliac crest bone is the preferred bone grafting material for nasal reconstruction.
E. Temporalis fascia is use as an onlay graft over other material implant to smooth contour irregularities.
Which of the following nasal augmentation implants does not allow fibrovascular ingrowth ?
A. Expend Polytetrafluoroethylene(e-PTFE)
B. Polyethylene
C. Polymidemest
D. Polymide nylon mest
E. Solid Silicone rubber
An angle of 30 degrees pertains to the?
A. Nasofrontal angle.
B. Nasofacialangle.
C. Nasomentalangle.
D. Mentocervical angle.
E. Nasolabial angle.
Which of the following statements in Rhinoplasty is false?
A. The intercartilaginous is made between the cephalic margin of LLC and caudal margin of ULC.
B. The intracartilaginous incision is made transversely through the ULC.
C. The intracartilaginous incision also call transcartilage incision.
D. The bipedicled flap involves an intercartilaginous incision and other incision placed in caudal margin of the LLC.
E. The incision for the external approach involves a broken-line transverse incision at the anterior aspect of the columella, with bilateral marginal incision.
Which is the name of incision demonstrated in drawing below?
A. Intercartilaginous
B. Transcartilaginous
C. Marginal
D. Caudal
E. Cephalic
Which of the following statements regarding the use of irradiated homograft costal cartilage in Revision Rhinoplasty is true?
A. Irradiated homograft costal cartilage is a poor material alternative for Revision Rhinoplasty.
B. Before using the implant it must be soaked in gentamicin sulfate solution.
C. The use this material implies a very high rate of infection.
D. The use this material implies a very high rate of extrusion.
E. The resorption of the irradiated rib cartilage is insignificant.
What is the proper time to see the Rhinoplasty patient in his/her first postoperative clinic visit?
A. 24hours
B. 48hours
C. 3days
D. 5days
E. 7days.
All are the branches of Trigeminal nerve Except one ?
A/ parotid branch
B/ Ophthalmic branch
C/Maxillary Branch
D/ Mandibular branch
E/none of above .
All are the treatment of the FREY'S SYNDROME Except one ?
A/ Interpositional dermal grafts to prevent aberrant parasympathetic regeneration and reinnervation of the overlying sweat glands.
B/ Surgical transection of the nerve fibers (only a temporary treatment)[citation needed]
C/ Application of an ointment containing an anticholinergic drug such as scopolamine[citation needed
D/ To remove cancerous tumors in the parotid gland
E/ anticholinergics, antiperspirants and botulinum toxin
Which statement most accurately describes the anatomy of the sublingual glands?
A/They drain through the sublingual duct which opens into the floor of mouth only.
B They drain either directly on to the floor of mouth or into the submandibular duct
C They consist of two lobes separated by the mylohyoid muscle.
D They are embedded in the intrinsic muscles of the ventral surface of the tongue.
E They lie in the space between the mandible and the two bellies of digastric.
The term plunging ranula refers to which clinical entity?
A/A malignant congenital salivary mass arising from the submandibular gland
B. A benign salivary mass involving the parotid and submandibular glands
C.A mucous retention cyst originating from the sublingual glands, limited by the mylohyoid muscle
D.A mucous retention cyst originating from the submandibular and sublingual glands which perforates the mylohyoid muscle to enter the neck
E.A midline neck mass which moves on tongue protrusion.
Which of the following structures is not an anatomical relation to the submandibular salivary gland?
A.The anterior facial vein
B. The facial artery
C .The inferior alveolar nerve
D.The lingual nerve
E.The hypoglossal nerve.
Which structure marks the posterior boundary of the submandibular duct which can safely be accessed via an intraoral approach?
BThe body of the submandibular duct
AThe third molar tooth
C.The lingual nerve
D.The posterior edge of the mylohyoid
E.The marginal mandibular nerve
Which statement best describes placement of the incision used for submandibular gland excision?
A.Directly over the palpable position of the gland with the neck extended
B.Between the superior limit of the gland and the mandible
C. At the lower limit of the gland
D. 4 cm below the mandible
E.Parallel to the sternomastoid muscle at the level of the gland.
Which structure attaches the deep lobe of the submandibular gland to the lingual nerve?
AThe hypoglossal nerve
BThe submandibular ganglion
C The deep cervical fascia
D The tendon of digastric
E. The mylohyoid.
Which structure attaches the deep lobe of the submandibular gland to the lingual nerve?
AThe hypoglossal nerve
BThe submandibular ganglion
C The deep cervical fascia
D The tendon of digastric
E. The mylohyoid.
Which of the following is not a complication of submandibular gland excision?
A Frey’s syndrome
B Anaesthesia of the ipsilateral tongue
C Weakness of the corner of the mouth
D. Anaesthesia of submental skin
E Paralysis of the ipsilateral tongue.
Stensen’s duct, secretes a serous saliva into the vestibule oral cavity?
A. The deep cervical fascia continues superiorly to form the parotid fascia
B. The thicker superficial fascia is extended superiorly from the masseter
C.The deep layer extends to the stylomandibular ligament
D. It travels parallel to the zygoma, enters the oral cavity opposite the second upper molar tooth
E. The duct exits anteriorly from the sublingual aspect of the gland, coursing deep to the lingual nerve and medial into oral cavity.
Which of the following is not a feature of salivary malignancy?
A. Facial nerve weakness
B. Rapid enlargement
C. Induration of the overlying skin
D. Cervical node enlargement
E. Rubbery consistency
Which is the most appropriate form of biopsy for a major salivary gland tumor?
A. Open surgical biopsy to allow histology
B. Salivary washings
C. Frozen section during formal excision
D. Fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC)
E. Biopsy is contraindicated.
Which of the following structures does not lie in the parotid gland?
A. The facial nerve
B.Terminal branches of the external carotid
C. The glossopharyngeal nerve
D. The retromandibular vein
E. ELymph nodes.
Which of the following complications is associated with mumps infection?
A.Secretory otitis media
B. Pancreatitis
C.Balanitis
D.Uveitis
E. Inflammatory arthritis.
Which of the following conditions is associated with ascending bacterial sialadenitis?
A.Dental abscess
B.Oral thrush
C.Dehydration
D.Otitis media
E.Hyperglycaemia.
Which of the following bacteria is the most common cause of bacterial sialadenitis?
A.Staphylococcus aureus
B.Staphylococcus epidermidis
C.Streptococcus pyogenes
D.Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E.Atypical mycobacteria.
In a 4-year-old with recurrent bilateral parotid swelling made worse on eating, what is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Sialolithiasis
B.Salivary duct stricture
C.Sjögren’s syndrome
D.Recurrent parotitis of childhood
E.HIV-associated parotitis.
Chronic parotitis in children is pathognomonic of what disease?
A. HIV
B.Sialolithiasis
C. Bacterial parotitis
D.Tuberculous parotitis
E. Wegener’s granulomatosis.
The submandibular gland has both mucous and serous cells that empty into duct (Wharton’s Duct), which in turn empty into the submandibular duct.
A. The thicker superficial fascia is extended superiorly from the masseter
B. The duct drain lateral to the lingual frenulum through a papilla in the floor of the mouth behind the lower incisor tooth
C. The deep cervical fascia continues superiorly to form the Submandibular gland
D. The deep layer extends to the stylomandibular ligament
E. It travels parallel to the zygoma, enters the oral cavity opposite the second upper molar tooth
What is the most common site for a parotid tumour?
A. At the anterior border of the masseter
B. Inferior to the angle of the mandible
C. As a parapharyngeal mass
D. Anterior to the ear
E. Behind the angle of the mandible
How should a benign tumour involving the tail of parotid be managed?
A.Enucleation
B.Open biopsy prior to formal excision
C.Radiotherapy
D.Total parotidectomy
E.Superficial parotidectomy
Which nerve must be transacted as part of a superficial parotidectomy?
A.The facial nerve
B.The hypoglossal nerve
C.The greater auricular nerve
D.The accessory nerve
E.The auriculotemporal nerve.
Which of the following landmarks is used to locate the facial nerve trunk?
A.The insertion of sternomastoid
B.The greater horn of the hyoid
C.The superior-most portion of the cartilaginous ear canal
D.The insertion of digastric
E.The insertion of masseter.
Which of the following branches of the facial nerve can be divided without the need for immediate cable graft repair?
A.Temporal
B.Oribtal
C.Zygomatic
D.Buccal
E.Cervical.
What is Frey’s syndrome following parotidectomy?
A. Cosmetic deformity due to loss of parotid bulk B. Dry mouth due to reduction in salivary flow
C. Development of a sialocele over the parotid bed
D. Gustatory sweating
E. Hyperplasia of the contralateral parotid gland.
Which of the following statements is true of secondary Sjögren’s syndrome?
A It is more common in males.
B It is more common in the elderly.
C.It is associated with connective tissue disorders
D The submandibular glands are more commonly affected.
E The chance of malignant transformation is greater than in primary Sjögren’s.
With which malignancy is Sjögren’s syndrome associated?
A.Acinic cell carcinoma
B.Adenoid cystic carcinoma
C.Carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma
D.Salivary sarcoma
E.Lymphoma
Which of the following is not associated with xerostomia?
A.Depression
B.Dehydration
C.Sjögren’s syndrome
D.Radiotherapy to the head and neck
E.Cholinergic medications
Management strategies for drooling include:
A.Botulinium toxin injection into submandibular and parotid glands
B.Radiotherapy to the salivary glands
C Submandibular duct repositioning
D Bilateral submandibular gland excision
E.Excision of submandibular glands and repositioning of parotid ducts.
Management strategies for drooling include:
A.Botulinium toxin injection into submandibular and parotid glands
B.Radiotherapy to the salivary glands
C Submandibular duct repositioning
D Bilateral submandibular gland excision
E.Excision of submandibular glands and repositioning of parotid ducts.
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