Basic(51-100)
Medical Anatomy and Physiology Quiz
Test your knowledge on essential medical concepts and anatomy with our comprehensive quiz designed for healthcare students and professionals. This quiz consists of 50 carefully curated multiple-choice questions that cover crucial topics in human anatomy, physiology, and pathology.
Features include:
- Engaging multiple-choice questions
- Immediate feedback on your answers
- Track your progress and improve your knowledge
The first (S1, or “lub”) heart sound and the second (S2, or “dup”) heart sound originate, respectively, from which of the following?
A. Closure of the pulmonary valve followed by closure of the aortic valve
B. Closure of the tricuspid valve followed by closure of the mitral valve
C. Closure of the atrioventricular valves followed by closure of the semilunar valves
D. Closure of the atrioventricular valves followed by opening of the semilunar valves
E. Opening of the atrioventricular valves followed by closure of the atrioventricular valves
Structure(s) that normally transit the diaphragm by way of the esophageal hiatus include which of the following
A. Azygos vein
B. Hemiazygos vein
C. Azygos and hemiazygos veins
D. Anterior and posterior vagal trunk
E. Thoracic duct
Gallbladder pain often presents as epigastric pain that then migrates towards the patient’s right side and can even wrap around to the posterior. The referred pain is not the site of the problem. Anatomically where is the gallbladder located?
A. Between the left and caudate lobes of the liver
B. Between the right and quadrate lobes of the liver
C. In the falciform ligament
D. In the lesser omentum
E. In the right anterior leaf of the coronary ligament
A 65-year-old male presents with jaundice for 2–3 weeks, fatigue and increasing epigastric pain. He has no history of peptic ulcers and says the pain does not relate to eating in anyway. His epigastric pain is midline and he has had some recent back pain. His urinary bilirubinogen and serum bilirubin are elevated (serum bilirubin 5.8 mg/dl). Helical CT reveals a suspicious mass in the head of the pancreas adjacent to the descending duodenum. The gallbladder is significantly enlarged. Which of the following is the likely cause of the elevated bilirubin?
A. Viral hepatitis
B. Blocked cystic duct
C. Open hepatic duct
D. Blocked duodenal papilla
E. Gilbert syndrome
A full-term male infant displays projectile vomiting 1 h after suck- ling. There is failure to gain weight during the first 48 hours. The vomitus is not bile-stained and no respiratory difficulty is evident. Examination reveals an abdomen neither tense nor bloated. Which of the following is the most probable explanation?
A. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
B. Congenital absence of a kidney
C. Patent ileal diverticulum
D. Imperforate anus
E. Tracheoesophageal fistula
A 19-year-old teenager is brought to the emergency room after a single-car accident just 20 minutes earlier in which she lost control of her car on black ice and hit a retaining column of an overpass at about 45 miles per hour. She was wearing a seat belt but looks pale, has tachy- cardia and positional hypotension, is extremely nauseated, and is lying in the fetal position due to increasingly severe abdominal pain. She has no fractures and a cranial nerve test is normal. You order an abdominal CT because you suspect which of the following?
A. Lacerated kidney
B. Ruptured spleen
C. Ruptured gallbladder
D. Diverticulitis
E. Hemorrhoids
A 55-year-old woman arrives at the emergency room the day after St. Patrick’s Day coughing up bright red blood. She has frequented your emergency room before. History includes excessive alcohol consumption. Using abdominal percussion you determine that her liver extends 5 cm below the right costal margin at the midclavicular line. You call in a gas- troenterologist because you suspect that the bright red blood is most likely the result of which of the following?
A. Hemorrhoids
B. Colon cancer
C. Duodenal ulcer
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal varices
A 24-year old man was a passenger in an automobile broadsided by another vehicle. Although he was wearing a seat belt he felt “terrible,” and had left sided abdominal, flank, and shoulder pain. During the ambulance ride into the emergency room his blood pressure kept dropping, he appeared pale, had a rapid heartbeat, with otherwise normal lung and heart sounds. Intravenous saline was started en route. Which of the following abdominal organs is most likely damaged?
A. Stomach
B. Duodenum
C. Pancreas
D. Left kidney
E. Spleen
Which of the following is the principal supply to the body and tail of the pancreas?
A. Common hepatic artery
B. Inferior phrenic artery
C. Left gastric artery
D. Splenic artery
E. Superior mesenteric artery
During the physical exam of a 52-year-old man you note internal hemorrhoids. He complains of blood in his stool. Which of the following arteries could be the source of his rectal bleeding?
A. Superior rectal artery off the inferior mesenteric artery
B. Middle rectal artery off the internal iliac artery
C. Inferior rectal artery off the internal pudendal artery
D. Both B and C
E. A, B, and C
Benign prostatic hypertrophy results in obstruction of the urinary tract. Patients present with weak urine flow, increased difficulty initiating urination, and increase frequency of urination since the bladder often is not fully emptied. Benign prostatic hypertrophy is associated with enlargement of which of the following?
A. Entire prostate gland
B. Lateral/posterior lobes
C. Mucosal and submucosal regions
D. Anterior region
Which structure is most susceptible to unintentional damage during a hysterectomy?
A. Uterine artery
B. Ureter
C. Urinary bladder
D. Urethra
E. Kidney
Which of the following locations is optimal for fertilization of an ovulated egg by sperm to occur?
A. Ampulla of the oviduct
B. Uterus
C. Infundibulum of the oviduct
D. Isthmus of the oviduct
E. Cervical canal of the uterus
An HIV-positive patient asks you if you can tell him the chances of him progressing to symptomatic AIDS. Which one of the following tests would be most useful?
A. CD4 lymphocyte count
B. HIV antibody test
C. HIV RT PCR
D. Neopterin
E. HIV p24 antigen
Which of the following viruses causes an acute febrile rash and produces disease in immunocompetent children but has been associated with transient aplastic crises in persons with sickle cell disease?
A. Rubeola
B. Varicella-zoster
C. Parvovirus
D. Rubella
E. Herpes simplex
Infection with herpes simplex virus, a common human pathogen, is best described by which of the following statements?
A. The CNS and visceral organs are usually involved
B. It rarely recurs in a host who has a high antibody titer
C. It can be reactivated by emotional disturbances or prolonged exposure to sun- light
D. Initial infection usually occurs by intestinal absorption of the virus
E. Infection with type 1 virus is most common
An HIV-positive patient prior to being treated with AZT, DDI, and saquinavir has a CD4 lymphocyte count and an HIV RNA viral load test done. Results are as follows: CD4: 50 CD4 lymphocytes per microliter, HIV RNA: 750,000 copies per ml. Which of the following statements best describes the above patient?
A. This patient is no longer in danger of opportunistic infection
B. The 5-year prognosis is excellent
C. The patient’s HIV screening test is most likely negative
D. The patient is not infectious
E. The viral load of 750,000 copies per ml suggests that the patient will respond to triple therapy
Infectious mononucleosis, a viral disorder that can be debilitating, is Characterized by which of the following statements?
A. It is most prevalent in children less than 14 years old
B. It is caused by a rhabdovirus
C. The causative pathogen is an Epstein-Barr virus
D. Affected persons respond to treatment with the production of heterophil anti- bodies
E. Ribavirin is the treatment of choice
The clinical picture of arbovirus infection fits one of three categories: encephalitis, hemorrhagic fever, or fever with myalgia. One of the characteristics of arboviruses is that they
A. Are transmitted by arthropod vectors
B. Are usually resistant to ether
C. Usually cause symptomatic infection in humans
D. Are closely related to parvoviruses
Delta hepatitis only occurs in patients who also have either acute or chronic infection with hepatitis B virus. The delta agent is
A. An incomplete hepatitis B viru
B. Related to hepatitis A virus
C. A hepatitis B mutant
D. An incomplet
E. Hepatitis C
The most sensitive test for the diagnosis of herpes simplex (HSV) meningitis in a newborn infant is
A. HSV IgG antibody
B. HSV polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
C. HSV culture
D. Tzanck smear
E. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein analysis
Mumps virus accounts for 10 to 15% of all cases of aseptic meningitis in the United States. Infection with mumps virus
A. Is apt to recur periodically in many affected persons
B. Will usually cause mumps orchitis in postpubertal males
C. Is maintained in a large canine reservoir
D. Usually produces severe systemic manifestations
E. Is preventable by immunization
The serum of a newborn infant reveals a 1:32 cytomegalovirus (CMV) titer. The child is clinically asymptomatic. Which of the following courses of action would be advisable?
A. Repeat the CMV titer immediately
B. Wait 6 months and obtain another titer on the baby
C. Obtain a CMV titer from all siblings
D. Obtain an anti-CMV IgM titer from the mother
E. Obtain an anti-CMV IgM titer from the baby
A 3-year-old child presents at the physician’s office with symptoms of coryza, conjunctivitis, low-grade fever, and Koplik’s spots. The causative agent of this disease belongs to which group of viruses?
A. Adenovirus
B. Herpesvirus
C. Picornavirus
D. Orthomyxovirus
E. Paramyxovirus
One of the most common sexually transmitted diseases that may lead to cervical carcinoma is caused by which of the following viruses?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Papillomavirus
C. Epstein-Barr virus
D. Herpes simplex virus
E. Adenovirus
Which virus is the leading cause of the croup syndrome in young children and, when infecting mammalian cells in culture, will hemabsorb red blood cells?
A. Group B coxsackievirus
B. Rotavirus
C. Parainfluenza virus
D. Adenovirus
E. Rhinovirus
Hepatitis E, a recently characterized hepatitis virus, is best described by which of the following statements?
A. It is not a threat to the blood supply
B. It is a major cause of blood-borne hepatitis
C. It is prevalent in North America
D. It is a single-stranded DNA virus
E. The disease resembles hepatitis C
Meningitis is characterized by the acute onset of fever and stiff neck. Aseptic meningitis may be caused by a variety of microbial agents. During the initial 24 h of the course of aseptic meningitis, an affected person’s cerebrospinal fluid is characterized by
A. Decreased protein content
B. Elevated glucose concentration
C. Lymphocytosis
D. Polymorphonuclear leukocytosis
E. Eosinophilia
Infection with hepatitis D virus (HDV; delta agent) can occur simulta- neously with infection with hepatitis B virus (HBV) or in a carrier of hepati- tis B virus because HDV is a defective virus that requires HBV for its replicative function. What serologic test can be used to determine whether a patient with HDV is an HBV carrier?
A. HBsAg
B. HBc IgM
C. HBeAg
D. HBs IgM
E. HBs IgG
Eastern equine encephalitis virus is associated with a high fatality rate. Control of the disease could be possible by eradication of
A. Horses
B. Birds
C. Mosquitoes
D. Fleas
E. Ticks
Adults who have had varicella as children occasionally suffer a recurrent form of the disease, shingles. The agent causing these diseases is a member of which of the following viral families?
A. Herpesvirus
B. Poxvirus
C. Adenovirus
D. Myxovirus
E. Paramyxovirus
German measles virus (rubella), a common cause of exanthems in children, is best described by which of the following statements?
A. Measles (rubeola) and German measles (rubella) are caused by the same virus
B. Incubation time is approximately 3 to 4 weeks
C. Vesicular rashes are characteristic
D. Onset is abrupt with cough, coryza, and fever
E. Specific antibody in the serum does not prevent disease
The presence of Negri inclusion bodies in host cells is characteristic of
A. Mumps
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. Congenital rubella
D. Aseptic meningitis
E. Rabies
A hospital worker is found to have hepatitis B surface antigen. Subsequent tests reveal the presence of e antigen as well. The worker most likely
A. Is infective and has active hepatitis
B. Is infective but does not have active hepatitis
C. Is not infective
D. Is evincing a biologic false-positive test for hepatitis
E. Has both hepatitis B and C
An immunocompromised person with history of seizures had an MRI that revealed a temporal lobe lesion. Brain biopsy results showed multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusions. The most probable cause of the lesion is
A. Hepatitis C virus
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Coxsackievirus
E. Parvovirus
An infant, seen in the ER, presents with a fever and persistent cough. Physical examination and a chest x-ray suggest pneumonia. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this infection?
A. Rotavirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Coxsackievirus
D. Respiratory syncytial virus
E. Rhinovirus
Which one of the following groups of people may be at increased risk for HIV infection?
A. Members of a household in which there is a person who is HIV-positive
B. Receptionists at a hospital
C. Factory workers whose coworkers are HIV-positive
D. Foreign service employees who are hospitalized in Zaire for bleeding ulcers
E. Homosexual females
A patient has all the gastrointestinal symptoms of infection with hepatitis A virus (HAV), yet all the tests for HAV-IgG and HAV-IgM are non- reactive. A possible cause of this infection is
A. Hepatitis B surface antigen
B. Hepatitis C
C. Hepatitis D
D. Hepatitis E
E. Rotavirus
Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease), a self-limited disease of children, is caused by
A Measles
B. Parvovirus
C. Rubella
D. Human herpesvirus type 6
E. Norwalk virus
Which one of the following viruses may be human tumor virus?
A. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
B. HIV
C. Papillomavirus
D. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
E. Herpes simplex virus, type 2 (HSV)
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is common. Which one of the fol- lowing statements best characterizes CMV?
A. It can be transmitted across the placental barrier
B. While a common infection, CMV is almost always symptomatic
C. The CMV can be cultured from red blood cells of infected patients
D. Unlike other viral infections, CMV is not activated by immunosuppressive ther- apy
E. There is no specific therapy for CMV
There is considerable overlap of signs and symptoms seen in congenital and perinatal infections. In a neonate with “classic” symptoms of congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection, which one of the following tests would be most useful in establishing a diagnosis?
A. CMV IgG titer on neonate’s serum at birth
B. CMV IgG titer on mother’s serum at birth of infant
C. CMV IgM titer on neonate’s serum at birth and at 1 month of age
D. Total IgM on neonate’s serum at birth
E. Culture of mother’s urine
Which one of the following viruses would be most likely to establish a latent infection?
A. Adenovirus
B. Measles virus
C. Influenza virus
D. Parvovirus
E. Coxsackievirus group B
A regimen that includes appropriately administered gamma globulin may be contraindicated in which one of the following diseases?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Rabies
D. Poliomyelitis
E. Infectious mononucleosis
Atypical lymphocytosis is most likely to be found in which one of the following diseases?
A. Encephalitis caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV)
B. Mononucleosis induced by Epstein-Barr virus
C. Parvovirus infection
D. Chronic hepatitis C
E. Rotavirus gastroenteritis
A patient has arthralgia, a rash, lymphadenopathy, pneumonia but no fever. Which of the following diseases is most likely based on these symptoms?
A. Dengue fever
B. St. Louis encephalitis
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Hepatitis
E. HIV infection
Hepatitis C (HCV) is usually a clinically mild disease, with only minimal elevation of liver enzymes. Hospitalization is unusual. Which one of the following statements best characterizes HCV?
A. Few cases progress to chronic liver disease
B. It often occurs in post transfusion patients
C. HBV but not HCV infections occur in IV drug abusers
D. It is a DNA virus
E. Blood products are not tested for antibody to HCV
Which of the following markers is usually the first viral marker detected after hepatitis B infection?
A. HBeAg
B. HBsAg
C. HBcAg
D. Anti-HBc
E. HbeAb
Which of the following may be the only detectable serological marker during the early convalescent phase of HBV infection (window phase)?
A. HBeAg
B. HBsAg
C. HBcAg
D. Anti-HBc
E. HbeAb
Which one of the following markers is closely associated with HBV infectivity and DNA polymerase activity?
A. HBeAg
B. HBsAg
C. HBcAg
D. Anti-HBc
E. HBeAb
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