Oral Maxillofacial part 2
Oral Maxillofacial Knowledge Quiz
Test your expertise in Oral Maxillofacial surgery with our comprehensive quiz designed for dental professionals and students. This quiz covers a range of topics including surgical techniques, anesthesia, patient management, and complications.
- 232 Questions
- Diverse Topics
- Multiple Choice Format
1. Which of the following is NOT the differential diagnosis of a soft tissue lesion?
σ List all the most probable diagnosis
σ Look at the characteristics of each condition/lesion
σ Blood tests
σ Compare & distinguish between them
σ Choose on a “best-fit” basis
2. Which one of the following is NOT the investigation before extraction?
σ Radiographs
σ Antibiotic
σ Pulp vitality tests
σ Study models
σ Plaque disclosure
3. What is the ideal treatment plan?
σ Long-term outcomes
σ Address all patient concerns
σ Minimum intervention
σ All of the above
σ None of the above
4. In which cases consent should be informed before starting the treatment?
σ Suture removal
σ Surgical removal of deep unerupted mandibular wisdom teeth
σ Prescription writing for orofacial pain
σ Extraction of a maxillary second molar which the root is close proximity to the sinus
σ Surgical removal of deep unerupted mandibular wisdom teeth and Extraction of a maxillary second molar which the root is close proximity to the sinus
5. Which of one of the following is NOT the clinical factors predicting the difficulty of extractions?
σ Extensive loss of coronal tooth structure
σ Thickness of the buccal plate
σ Limited access to the area of extraction
σ Limited access to the tooth in the dental arch
σ Severe periodontitis
6. Which of one of the following is NOT the radiographic factors predicting the difficulty of extraction?
σ Severely divergent roots
σ Periapial radiolucency
σ Endodontically treated teeth with or without post and core
σ Dilacerated roots
σ Increased number of roots present
7. Which teeth are at risk for sinus exposure when doing extraction?
σ Lone standing maxillary molar with pneumatized maxillary sinus
σ Roots projecting into a severely pneumatized maxillary sinus and minimal coronal bone visible radiographically
σ Long divergent bulbous roots with a pneumatized sinus into the trifurcation area
σ Teeth with advanced periodontal disease but with no mobility; also teeth with the maxillary sinus extending into the trifurcation area
σ All of the above
8. Which one of the following is NOT one of the principles of flap designs?
σ Good surgical access
σ Avoid vital structures
σ A little broad base flap
σ Very broad base
σ Prevention of flap dehiscence
9. What are the factors to consider in flap design?
σ Depth of the buccal sulcus
σ Position & size of labial fraenum and muscle attachments
σ Vital structures
σ Size of lesion
σ Number of teeth to be treated
σ All of the above
10. Which one of the following is NOT one of the basic steps of surgical extraction?
σ Incision & raising a flap
σ Application of Betadine
σ Removal of bone
σ Tooth or root division
σ Removal of tooth or roots
11. Which suture that can be used in contaminated wounds?
σ Vicryl
σ Silk
σ Nylon
σ Catgut
σ Stainless steel
12. Which suture creates eversion of the wound edges?
σ Interrupted sutures
σ Continuous sutures
σ Horizontal mattress suture
σ Vertical mattress suture
σ Figure-of-eight suture
13. What sizes of the sutures that commonly used in oral cavity?
σ 2//0
σ 3/0 & 4/0
σ 4/0 & 5/0
σ 6/0
σ 7/0
14. What is the atraumatic suturing technique?
σ No crushing tissues with forceps
σ Not too large suture and needle
σ Not too large tissue bites
σ Not too tight
σ Not too dry
σ All of the above
15. Which suture is used for extraction socket of molar teeth to control bleeding?
σ Horizontal mattress
σ Vertical mattress
σ Figure-of-eight and interrupted
σ Interrupted
σ Sling suture
16. How many knots do you need to tie tissues intra-orally?
σ One knot
σ Two knots
σ Three knots
σ Four knots
σ Five knots
17. Suture is selected depends on:
σ Tissue to be suturing, ie. mucosa, muscle, skin
σ Wound condition
σ Healing process, cost, and tissue tolerance
σ Patient’s availability to come for suture removal
σ All of the above
18. How do you prevent aspiration of a tooth or root into the lungs when doing an extraction?
σ Place a piece of sterilized gauze as a pharyngeal screen at the back of the patient's mouth
σ Place a rubber dam on the tooth
σ Patient stands up while extracting the tooth
σ Lay the patient flat while extracting the tooth
σ Use bite block or mouth prop
19. How to treat postoperative ecchymosis?
σ Apply ice pack on the bruise
σ Reassure the patient
σ Inject steroid
σ Apply warm moist pack
σ Reassure the patient and Apply warm moist pack
20. How do you avoid TMJ dislocation during dental procedures?
σ Tell the patient not to open too wide
σ Make short appointment
σ Use mouth prop
σ Support the mandible during extraction
σ All of the above
21. What are the symptoms and signs of alveolar osteitis (dry socket)?
σ Severe pain and discomfort from the extraction site
σ Pain may radiate from to other parts of the head, ear, eye, and neck
σ Exposed bone around the socket and Delayed healing
σ Remaining food debris inside the socket
σ All of the above
22. Which one of the treatment procedures of alveolar osteitis (dry socket) below is NOT always given to the patients?
σ Irrigate the socket with chlorhexidine
σ Prescribed antibiotic
σ Apply Alvogyl in the socket
σ Prescribe strong analgesics
σ Take note in the patient's file
23. Which one of the following is NOT the prevention of dry socket?
σ Stop smoking
σ Stop oral contraceptive for several days before & a few days after surgery
σ Give antibiotic before extraction/surgery
σ Minimize extraction force
σ Give clear oral health instruction
24. Which of the following are the local measures to control bleeding after surgical extraction?
σ Use vitamin K and Blood transfusion
σ Apply pressure with sterilized gauze
σ Use tranexamic acide injection
σ Place Gelfoam or Surgicel in the socket
σ Suture across the socket
σ Apply pressure with sterilized gauze, Place Gelfoam or Surgicel in the socket and Suture across the socket
25. In aggressive measure to control bleeding, which medication is commonly used?
σ Adrenoxyl
σ Dicinone
σ Tranexamic acid mouthrinse
σ Vitamin K
σ Desmopressin
26. Which hemostatic agent do you use to control bleeding from bone?
σ A. Gelfoam
σ B. Bone wax
σ C. Surgicel
σ D. Ferric sulfate
σ E. Thrombin
27. How do you prevent inferior dental nerve injury during surgical removal of mandibular wisdom teeth?
σ Use atraumatic surgical techniques
σ Use high speed to dissect the crown
σ Perform coronectomy
σ Raise small flap
σ Use atraumatic surgical techniques and Perform coronectomy
28. What are the contraindications for coronectomy?
σ Mobile tooth (advanced periodontitis)
σ Caries with potential pulp involvement and Periapical abscess
σ Associated with cyst which won’t resolve with the root left in place
σ Nerve too close to the coronectomy cut
σ All of the above
29. In coronectomy, how far from the CEJ of the crown do you need to cut?
σ 1mm to 2mm below the CEJ
σ 2mm to 4mm below the CEJ
σ 4mm to 6mm below the CEJ
σ 2cm to 4cm below the CEJ
σ All of the above
30. Which one of the following is NOT the specific warning after coronectomy?
σ Root exposure migration in the later date
σ Paresthesia of the upper lip
σ Later removal of roots
σ Roots inadvertently removed at the time of attempted coronectomy
σ All of the above
31. Which one of the following statements are NOT the treatments of acute pericoronitis?
σ Extraction of opposing tooth, Prescribe potent analgesics
σ Apply acid around the operculome
σ Operculectomy
σ Irrigation around the tooth crown with Chlorhexidine
σ Apply acid around the operculome and Operculectomy
32. Which of the following statements are NOT the factors associated with surgical difficulty of mandibular wisdom teeth?
σ A. Verical angulation
σ B. Increased age, obesity and Body mass index
σ C. Patient with no TMJ disorders
σ D. Curvature of roots & dense bone
σ E. Verical angulation and Patient with no TMJ disorders
33. 33. What are the radiographic signs indicative of possible inferior alveolar nerve injury during surgical removal of unerupted mandibular wisdom teeth?
σ Darkening of the root and Narrowing of the roots
σ Deflection of the root
σ Interruption of radiopaque line
σ Diversion of canal
σ Darkening of the root, Deflection of the root and Interruption of radiopaque line
34. Which case the enucleation of cyst in applied?
σ Small cyst in the jaws
σ Large cysts near vital structures
σ Ameloblastoma with aggressive behaviour
σ Cystic fibrosis
σ All of the above
35. Which case of cyst do you need to do marsupialization?
σ Very large cyst involving vital structures
σ Pocket cyst of lateral incisor
σ Traumatic bone cyst
σ Mucous retention cyst in the floor of the mouth (ranula)
σ Very large cyst involving vital structures and Mucous retention cyst in the floor of the mouth (ranula)
36. Which flap design is best indicated for an apicectomy of maxillary incisors with ceramic crowns on?
σ Seminlunar flap
σ Triangular flap
σ Modified scallop semilunar
σ Rectangular flap
σ All of the above
37. Which of the following is the most recommended and affordable retrograde filling material for apicectomy?
σ Amalgam
σ Gutta percha
σ Glass Ionomer cement
σ Zinc Oxide Eugenol or IRM
σ EBA
38. How to diagnose an Oro-antral fistula?
σ Squeeze patient nose & ask to strongly blow to see air bubble
σ Insert a large needle into fistula & take X-ray
σ Use the probe to explore the fistula
σ None of the above
σ All of the above
39. Which one of the following is NOT the factors influencing the course of infection?
σ Portal of entry
σ Virulence
σ Patient's weight
σ Pathogenicity
σ Host defens
40. What are the investigations for infection?
σ Take swap of pus for microbiology & antibiotic sensitivity
σ Immunoflurescence
σ Blood culture
σ Urine test
σ Take swap of pus for microbiology & antibiotic sensitivity and Blood culture
41. Which of the following are NOT the modes of spread of infection?
σ Saliva
σ Lymphatic, Blood
σ Tear
σ D. Direct spread
σ Saliva and Tear
42. Where can the infection spread from maxillary 2nd premolar spread to?
σ Maxillary sinus
σ Palatal space
σ Infratemporal space
σ Infraorbital space or buccal space
σ All of the above
43. Where can the infection from mandibular molars spread to?
σ Submandibular or buccal space
σ Sublingual space
σ Submental space
σ Lateral pharyngeal space
σ All of the above
44. Which one of the following space that the infection from the mandibular 3rd molar will NOT spread to?
σ Pterygomandibular
σ Lateral pharyngeal
σ Submandibular
σ Submesseteric
σ Palatal space
45. Which type of acute infection that can cause airway compromised?
σ Infraorbital space
σ Ludwig’s Angina
σ Buccal space
σ Canine space
σ Cavernous sinus
46. What is the most important and first step to treat acute infection?
σ Prescribe antibiotic
σ Prescribe analgesics
σ Antiseptic mouthwash
σ Incision and drainage of pus
σ All of the above
47. What is the first line antibiotic for acute infection?
σ Rodogyl
σ Tetracycline
σ Amoxicillin or with clavulanic acid
σ Cephaxin
σ All of the above
48. In which case do you need to refer the patient to the hospital?
σ Localized infection
σ Ludwig’s Angina
σ Palatal abscess
σ ] Cavernous sinus thrombosis
σ Ludwig’s Angina and Cavernous sinus thrombosis
49. How to confirm the definitive diagnosis of a soft tissue lesion (diameter ˃2cm) on the lateral border of the tongue?
σ Blood test
σ Fine needle aspiration
σ Incisional biopsy
σ Excisional biopsy
σ All of the above
50. 50. What are the principles of treatment of benign soft tissue lesions?
σ Observe
σ Reduce
σ Excise
σ Resect
σ All of the above
51. Which lesions are needed for fine needle aspiration?
σ Vascular lesions
σ Fluctuant soft tissue pathology
σ Surgical emphysema
σ Intraosseous pathology
σ Fluctuant soft tissue pathology and Intraosseous pathology
52. What are the flap designs for frenectomy?
σ Elliptical incision, Triangular flap
σ Z-plasty, Semilunar flap
σ V-type incision, Rectangular flap
σ Elliptical incision, Z-plasty and V-type incision
σ Elliptical incision, Z-plasty and V-type incision and Triangular flap
53. Which of the following statements are the clinical assessments of unerupted maxillary canines?
σ Observation or visual inspection for bulging, lateral incisors’ position
σ Taking radiographs, Retained deciduous canines
σ Palpation on both labial & palatal sides for bone projection
σ Family history of missing canines
σ Probing by using a Michelle Trimmer
σ Observation or visual inspection for bulging, lateral incisors’ position, Palpation on both labial & palatal sides for bone projection and Probing by using a Michelle Trimmer
54. Which one of the following is NOT the radiographic assessment of unerupted maxillary canines?
σ OPG
σ Sialogram
σ Periapical X-rays
σ Occlusals: Ant. & Vertex Occlusal
σ Lateral Cephalogram
55. Which one of the following is NOT the treatment option of unerupted maxillary canines?
σ Surgical removal of unerupted canine
σ Interceptive removal of primary canine
σ No treatment or leave in-situ
σ Surgical exposure with orthodontic alignment
σ Laser treatment
56. What are the criteria for surgical removal of unerupted maxillary canines?
σ Patient is older than 16 years old
σ Good contact between premolar & lateral incisor
σ Poor prognosis for alignment
σ Good aesthetic of a retained deciduous canine with a long root
σ Unwilling to wear orthodontic appliance
σ All of the above
57. When aspirate a cystic lesion which shows cholesterol, what type of cyst might it be?
σ Dentigerous cyst
σ Eruption cyst
σ Inflammatory cyst
σ Odontogenic keratocyst
σ Aneurysmal bone cyst
58. When aspirate a cyst-like lesion which shows blood, what type of lesion might it be?
σ Contamination, Lipoma
σ Aneurysmal bone cyst, Radicular cyst
σ Haemengioma
σ Mucoccel
σ Contamination, Aneurysmal bone cyst and Haemengioma
59. When aspirate a cyst-like lesion which shows air, what type of lesion/structure might it be?
σ Salivary gland duct,
σ Maxillary sinus
σ Traumatic bone cyst
σ Nerve canal
σ Maxillary sinus, Traumatic bone cyst
60. Which of one the following lesions do NOT need to do excisional biopsy?
σ Firoepithelial polyps
σ Mucocoeles
σ Fibromas
σ Haemengioma
σ Papillomas
1-ឝើអ្វីទៅដែលហៅឝា Abscess or Cellulitis ?
A-Cellulitis is a flammation of medular bone.
B- Cellulitis is a painful swelling of the soft tissue of the mouth and face resultating from a diffuse spreading of purulent exudate along the facial planes that separate the muscle bundles.
C-Cellulitis is an acute deep suppurative abcess of upper neck and perioral area.
D-Cellilitis is inflammation of hair follicle from infection or trauma or Chemical irritation.
2-ឝើ Abscess or Cellulitis កកើឝឡើងពីអ្វី?
A-Inflammation of hair follicles
B-Chronic of apical infection
C- Acute of apical infection.
D- Chronic blistering disease
3- ឝើ Spread of pus inside tissues មានចំនួនប៉ុន្មានផ្លូវ?អ្វីឝ្លះ?
A-by continuity through tissue spaces and planes, by way of the lymphatic system and by way of blood circulation .
B- by way of the lymphatic system by way of the lymphatic System.
C-by way of blood circulation.
D-By direct skin-to-skin contact with the infected areas.
4-ឝើ Classification of cellulitis មានចំនួនប៉ុន្មាន?អ្វីឝ្លះ?
A-Acute and chronic.
B-Acute, subacute and chronic
C-Low severity,medium severity and high severity.
D-Odontogenic and nonodontogenic cellulitis.
5- ឝើ Facial plan មានចំនួនប៉ុន្មាន ?
Surface of gingiva, palatal abscess and maxillary sinus.
B-Surface of gingiva, palatal abscess , maxillary sinus,maxilla and mandible
C-Surface of gingiva, palatal abscess , maxillary sinus, maxilla and mandible, floor of the mouth.
D-Vestibular region and palatal region.
6- ឝើ Abscess of base of upper lip,Subperiosteal abscess,Vestibular abscess,Intraalveolar abscess of maxilla&Mandible ,Infraorbital abscess,Buccal abscess ស្ឝិឝក្នុងក្រុមណា?
Low severity.
B-Medium severity
C-High severity
D-Diffuse abscess.
7- ឝើ Submental, Submandibular,Sublingual,Masseteric,Pterygomandibular,Superficia temporal,Deep temporal ស្ឝិឝក្នុងក្រុមណា?
C-Low severity
B-Medium severity.
C-High severity
D-Diffuse abscess.
8- ឝើ Diffuse Cellulitis ,Ludwig’s angina,Lateral Pharyngeal Space Abscess, Retropharyngeal Abscess ស្ឝិឝក្នុងក្រុមណា?
C-Low severity
B-Medium severity
C-High severity.
D-Diffuse abscess.
9- ឝើ Goals of management of odontogenic infection មានអ្វីឝ្លះ?
A-Medical treatment.
B-Incision and drainage.
Airway protection,Surgical drainage,Medical support of the patient ,Identification of etiologic bacteria,Selection of appropriate antibiotic therapy.
D-Laser therapy.
10-What is/are the clinical features of cellulitis ?
redness(erythema) and warmth
B - swellin(edema)
Tenderness or pain
D – All of the above
11-How many types of localized odontogenic infection ?
A-Periapical Infections - infection at the apex of an abscessed tooth.
B-Periodontal Infections – soft tissue infection in the periodontal pocket from advanced periodontitis.
C-Pericoronal Infections – soft tissue infection around the crown of the unerupted or partially erupted tooth.
All of the above.
12-Spread of pus inside tissues from the site of the initial lesion, inflammation may spread in many ways :
A- by continuity through tissue spaces and planes
B- by way of the lymphatic system
C- by way of blood circulation
All of the above
13-To drain pus from an abscess,the surgeon should :
A-Penetrate into abscess cavity and probe with an artery to allow for flow of pus
B-Cut and eclipse from the abscess surface to allow for a drain
C-Aspirate the contents
D-Cut only the mucosa and skin
14-To drain pus from a submental abscess,the surgeon should :
A-Cut and eclipse from the abscess surface to allow for a drain
B-Aspirate the contents
C-A horizontal incision should be placed 1–3 cm below the lower border of the mandible rather than the top of the swelling (abscess) to exploit gravity to encourage drainage.
D-Cut only the mucosa and skin
15-To drain pus from a submandibular abscess,the surgeon should :
A-Cut and eclipse from the abscess surface to allow for a drain
B-The incision for drainage is performed on the skin, approximately 1 cm beneath and parallel to the inferior border of the mandible.
C-Aspirate the contents
D-Cut only the mucosa and skin
16-Treatment of choice to localized infection with pus is :
A-Antibiotc administration
B-Establish drainage
C-Apply col to the area
D-Advise hot mouth washes
17-Among of the followinh which is treatment of choice for infection with fluctuation in an afebrile patient ?
A-Administration of antibiotics
B-Application of hot packs to the area
C-Incision and drainage
D-Antibiotics administration followed by I and D
18-Surgical blade used for drainage of abscess is :
A-Blade No 12
B-Blade No 15
C-Blade No 11
D-Blade No 22
19. What is the most important and first step to treat acute infection?
Prescribe antibiotic
Prescribe analgesics
Incision and drainage of pus
All of the above
20. Which type of abscess that can cause airway obstruction?
A.Subcutaneous abscess
B.Ludwig’s Angina
C.Buccal abscess
All of the above
21. In which case do you need to refer the patient to the hospital?
A.Localized infection
B.Ludwig’s Angina
C.Cavernous sinus thrombosis
D. Ludwig’s Angina & Cavernous sinus thrombosis
22-Ludwig`s angina was first described by :
The German physician, Wilhelm Frederick von Ludwig in 1836.
B-Maxwell
Garre in the year 1893
D-Rene LeFort
23-The most common cause of cellulitis in face is :
A-Dental carie
B-Pericoronitis
C-Trauma
D-Antral infection
24-A diffuse inflammation of soft tissue that is not circumscribed is an :
A-Abscess
B-Granuloma
C-Swelling
D-Cellulutis
25- The most common orgeism associated with cellulitis is :
A-Streptococci
B-Staphylococci
C-Actinomyces
D-Lactobacillus
26-A corne-shaped space infection involving inner canthus of eye is :
A-Canine space
B-Buccal space
C-Parotid space
D-Palatal abscess
27-ឝើ អ្វីទៅដែលហៅឝា The osteitis ?
A-Osteitis is an flammatory process within medullary (Trabecular) bone that involves the marrow spaces.
Osteitis is a painful swelling of the soft tissue of the mouth and face resultating from a diffuse spreading of purulent exudate along the facial planes that separate the muscle bundles.
C-Osteitis is an acute deep suppurative abcess of upper neck and perioral area.
D-Osteitis is a rare group of blistering autoimmune diseases.
28- ឝើ Classification of osteitis មានចំនួនប៉ុន្មាន?អ្វីឝ្លះ?
A-Acute and chronic osteitis .
B-Acute, subacute and chronic osteitis.
C-Low severity,mederate severity and high severity.
D-Close and open osteitis.
29 - នៅព៝លដែលល៝ចច៝ញនូវ Purulent exudate ,fistula and sequestra ឝើគ៝ចាឝ់វាជា Osteitis ប្រភ៝ទណា?
A-Acute osteitis.
B-Chronic osteitis.
Osteomyelitis.
D-Diffuse osteitis.
30 - ឝើ Treatment of chronic osteitis គ៝ឝ្រូវធ្វើដូចម្ឝ៝ចឝ្លះ?
A-Incision and drainage.
Debridement -the removal of foreign material or devitalized tissue from the vicinity of a wound, Remove teeth,Incision and Drainage
Sequestrectomy,Saucerization- an excavation of the tissue of a wound to form a shallow,saucelike depression.
D-Irrigation and medical treatment.
31 -Dry soket is also termed all except :
A-Localized acute alveolar osteomyelitis
B-Acute suppurative osteomyelitis .
C-Alveolar osteitis
D-Alveolalgia
32- The treatment of dry socket :
Curettage the socket and Irrigation with chlorhexidine
Place Alvogyl in the socket
Prescribe strong analgesics
All of the above
33-Squestrum is a :
A-Necrotized bone
B-Newly formed bone
C-Vital bone
D-Reactive bone formation
34-Acute osteomyelitis in maxilla is :
A-Localized
B-Diffuse
C-Widespread
D-None of the above
35- The treatment of chronic suppurative osteomyelitis is :
A-Hyperbaric oxygen therapy
B-Sequestrectomy,saucerization and hyperbaric oxygen therapy
Sequestrectomy ,with hyperbaric oxygen therapy
D-Saucerization only
36- Chronic focal sclerosing osteomyelitis is also known as :
A-Perosteitis ossificans
B-Condensing osteitis
C-Garre`s osteomyelitis
D-Alveolar osteitis
37 -Garre`s osteomyelitis was first described by Garre in the year :
A-1873
B-1883
C-1893
D-1903
38- A focal gross thickening of the periosteum with peripheral bone formation is :
A-Chronic osteomyelitis
B-Condencing osteitis
C-Garre`s osteomyelitis
D-Periostitis
39-Inflammatory cells seen chiefly in acute suppurative osteomyelitis histology are :
A-plasmacells
B-Lymphocytes
C-Monocytes
D-Neurophilic PMNL`s
40- After decortication of mandible in osteomyelitis,closed irrigation suction and/or placement of antibiotic is done for a period of :
A-5-7 days
B-7-10 days
C-10-14 days
D-14-20 days
41- Decortication of the mandible for the treatment of osteomyelitis was described by ;
A-Maxwell
B-Mowlem
C-Mader
D-Michellin
42-For a patient of osteomyelitis who is allergic to penicillin,all of the following drugs are recommended as 2nd and 3rd choices except :
A-Clindamycin
B-Cephalosporin
C-Erythromycin
D-Sulfa drugs
43-Radiographic characteristics of osteomyelitis were described by :
A-Wilson
B-Worth
C-Wright
D-Williams
44- Radiolucencies due to spreading infection of osteomyelitis:
A-moth eaten r/lucency, I.e. irregular & poorly outline
Radiopaque sequestrae, I.e. Piece of necrotic bone
C-Patchy,ragget & ill define radiolucency
D-All of the above.
45-All of the following are true about osteomyelitis of the mandible, except :
A-Symphysis is more commonly involved than angle
B-Ramus is more commonly involved than symphysis
C-Body is more commonly involved than symphysis
D-Angle is more commonly involved than condyle
46- Osteomyelitis of the jaws is primarily caused by :
A-Peptostreptococcus
B-Prevotella (Bacteroids)
Streptococcus sp
D-Vincent`s organism
47-The most common organisms isolated from primary hematogenuos osteomyelitis of long bones in adult :
A-staphylococcus sp
B-E.coli
C-Salmonella typhi
D-Pneumococcus
48 - ឝើឝើ អ្វីទៅដែលហៅឝា The sinusitis ?
A-Sinusitis is a flammation of medular bone.
Sinusitis is a painful swelling of the soft tissue of the mouth and face resultating from a diffuse spreading of purulent exudate along the facial planes that separate the muscle bundles.
C-Sinusitis is an inflammatory of the mucosa of the sinus.
D-Sinusitis is an infection of sinus bone.
49 - ឝើ Blood supply to the mucous membrane of sinus មានសសៃឈាមណាឝ្លះ?
A-Facial and maxillary arteries.
Facial ,maxillary and infraorbital arteries
Facial ,maxillary , infraorbital arteries and greater palatine arteries.
D-External Carotid artery.
50 - ឝើ The nerve supply to the mucous membrane of sinus មានសសៃប្រសាទ ណាឝ្លះ?
A-V1 of trigeminal nerve or Nerve ophthalmic.
V2 of trigeminal nerve or superior dental nerve and the greater palatine nerve.
V3 of trigeminal nerve or Inferior alveolar nerve.
D-Facial nerve.
51- ឝើ Sinuses មានអឝ្ឝប្រយោជន៝ដែរឬទ៝?
A-គ្មានអឝ្ឝប្រយោជន៝អ្វីសោះ
B-មានអឝ្ឝប្រយោជន៝ច្រើនដូចជាLighten head,protect eyes and nasal cavity,produce resonant tones of voice, insulation,air conditioning, water conservation,olfaction, strengthen area against trauma.
C-មិនសូវជាមានអឝ្ឝប្រយោជន៝ប៉ុន្មានទ៝
D-Sinus វាបង្កបញ្ហាច្រើនណាស់ ដូចជារលាកឬ Allergy
52 -ឝើ Radiograph ប្រភ៝ទណាមួយ ដែលអាចមើលទៅឃើញ Infection of Sinuses បានច្បាស់?
A-Periapical radiograph
B- PA projection
OPG or panoramic radiograph
D-CTScan or Water view.
53- ឝើព៝លណាធ្វើ Churgical treatment of sinusitis by using technique of Caldwell Luc?
A-Acute sinusitis
B- Subacute sinusitis
C- Chronic terminal of sinusitis.
D-Chronic sinusitis.
54- ដើម្បីធ្វើ Antral closure of Oroantral Communication ឝើគ៝ប្រើ Flap ប្រភ៝ទណាឝ្លះ?
Vestibular flap
Palatal flap
C-Vestibular flap,Palatal flap, Bridge flap,Fat pad flap.
Fat pad flap
55 -The volume of maxillary sinus is :
A-15-30 ml
B-10 ml
C-40 ml
50 ml
56- Maxillary sinus is also known as :
A-Paranasal sinus
B-Antrum of Highmore
C-Antrum of Keith
D-No other name
57-The best view for maxillary sinus is :
A-PA view
B-AP view
C-PA view in waters`s position
D-Lateral view of skull
58 -A small opening is made into the maxillary antrum during extraction, immediate treatment is :
A-Phack the socket with gauge
B-Allow the clot to form No special treatment is necessary
C-Place the patient on antibiotics
D-Rise a big mucoperiosteal flap and close the antrum
59-How to diagnose an Oro-antral fistula?
Squeeze patient nose & ask to strongly blow to see air bubble
Insert a large needle into fistula & take X-ray
Use the probe to explore the fistula
None of the above
60- Caldwell-luc procedure is done to :
A-Visualize the antrum from oral cavity
B- Visualize the antrum from nasal cavity
C-To establish drainage through nasal cavity
D-To pack the maxillary antrum
61-Acute maxillary sinusitis :
A-Results in referred pain to a single tooth
B- Results in referred pain to the orbit and maxillary posterior tooth
C-Is exacerbated by cold history
Is usually a non-infection process
62-A tooth displaced into maxillary antrum can be removed by :
A-Caldwell-luc procedure
B-Transalveolar extraction
C-Bergers`s method
D-Intranasal antrostomy
63-The other name of maxillary sinus is :
A-Antrum of Highmore
B-Antrum of Denver
C-Antrum of Khnopfleer
D-Antrum of Wilson
64- The base of the maxillary sinus is formed by the :
A-Zygomatic bone
B-Orbital floor
C-Hard palate
D-Lateral wall of the nose
65- The shape of the adult maxillary sinus is :
A-Rhomboid
B-Trapezoid
C-Rectangular
D-Pyramidal
66-The incidence of oro-antral fistulae is less in :
A-Children and young adults
B-Midle aged adults
C-Elderly
D-All of the above
67- The apex of the maxillary sinus faces the :
A-Nasal bone
B-Floor of the orbit
C-Palate
D-Zygomatic process of the maxilla
68-Inflammation of most or all para nasal sinuses simultaneously is described as :
A-pan sinusitis
B-Sinusitis
C-Para nasal sinusitis
D-Sinus thrombosis
69-Maxillary sinus infection of odontogenic origin is most commonly caused by :
A-Aerobic bacteria
B-Anaerobic bacteria
C-Fungal
D-Viral
70 -ឝើ Classification of maxillary fracture by location មានអ្វី ឝ្លះ ?
A-Close Fracture and open Fracture
B- Le Fort I,Le Fort II and Le Fort III Fractures.
C-Nasal Fracture and Zygomatic Complex Fracture.
D-Pan facial
71-ឝើ NOE Fracture ចូលរួមផ្សំដោយឆ្អឹងណាឝ្លះ ?
A-frontal bone,nasal bone, maxillary bone.
B- frontal bone,nasal bone, maxillary bone, lacrimal bone.
C- frontal bone,nasal bone, maxillary bone, lacrimal bone, ethmoid bone and sphenoid bone.
D-Nasal bone,eth moid bone and sphenoid bone.
72-ឝើ Zygomatic complex Fracture ចូលរួមផ្សំដោយឆ្អឹងណាឝ្លះ ?
A-Zygomatic bone,Frontozygomatic bone and Zygomatic arch.
B- Zygomatic bone,Frontozygomatic bone , Zygomatic arch,Orbital rim.
C- Zygomatic bone,Frontozygomatic bone ,Zygomatic arch,Lateral orbital rim,infraorbital rim,orbital floor, anterior and lateral maxillary sinus.
D-Zygomatic bone,Frontozygomatic bone and Zygomatic arch.
73-ឝើThe treatment of Zygomatic Complex Fracture យ៉ាងដូចម្ឝ៝ចដែរ?
A-MMF or IMF Technique
B- Trans osseous wiring
C- Trans osseous wiring and Mini bone plates.
D-Reduction alone and reduction &fixation.
74-ឝើ Classification of mandibular fracture by type មានអ្វីឝ្លះ?
A-Close and open fracture.
B- Simple Fx,compound Fx,comminuted Fx,greenstick Fx,Complex Fx,telescoped or impacted Fx.
C- Dentoalveolar Fx,symphysisFx,parasymphysis Fx,body Fx,angle Fx,coronoid Fx,condyle Fx.
D-Class I (កន្លែងបាក់មានធ្ម៝ញ ),Class II(កន្លែងបាក់មានធ្ម៝ញ) ,Class III ( អ្នកជំងឺគ្មានធ្ម៝ញសោះ)
75-ឝើ Classification of mandibular fracture by location មានអ្វី ឝ្លះ?
A-Close and open fracture.
B- Simple Fx,compound Fx,comminuted Fx,greenstick Fx,Complex Fx,telescoped or impacted Fx.
C- Dentoalveolar Fx,symphysisFx,parasymphysis Fx,body Fx,angle Fx,coronoid Fx, condyle Fx.
Class I (កន្លែងបាក់មានធ្ម៝ញ ),Class II(កន្លែងបាក់មានធ្ម៝ញ) ,Class III ( អ្នកជំងឺគ្មានធ្ម៝ញសោះ)
76- ឝើ Treatment of compound Fx ឝ្រូវធ្វើដូចម្ឝ៝ចឝ្លះ?
MMF Technique.
Trans osseous wiring
Trans osseous wiring and Mini bone plates.
D-External fixation.
77- ឝើ MMF គ៝ឝ្រូវដោះច៝ញក្នុងរយះព៝លប៉ុន្មានឝ្ងៃ?
2 weeks
4-6 weeks .
10 weeks
D-3 months
78- ឝើ Simple fractures of condyle គ៝ព្យាបាលដូចម្ឝ៝ច?
MMF Technique.
Osteosynthesis
Bandage
D-Dental wiring.
79- ឝើ Compound fractures of condyle គ៝ព្យាបាលដូចម្ឝ៝ច?
MMF Technique
Osteosynthesis by ORIF .
Bandage
D-External fixation.
80- ចំពោះ Edentulous patient គ៝ព្យាបាលដូចម្ឝ៝ច?
MMF Technique
Osteosynthesis
Gunning’s splint.
D-Gunning`s splint or Osteosynthesis.
81-The muscles that aid in displacement of maxillary fractures are :
A-Masseter
B-Temporalis
C-Upper part of orbicularis and lower part of orbicularis occuli
D-None of the above
82-A fracture mandible should be immobilized an everage of :
A-3 weeks
B-6 weeks
C-9 weeks
D-12 weeks
83-Fracture of mandible all are true except :
A-Fractures of the mandible are common at the angle of the mandible
B-Fractures of the mandible are effected by the muscle pull
Fractures of the mandible are usually characterized by sublingual hematoma
D-C.S.F. Rhinorrhea is a common finding
84-The ideal treatment for fracture of the angle of mandible is :
A-Transosseous wiring
B-Intermaxillary fixation
C-Plating on the lateral side of the body of the mandible
D-Plating at the inferior border of the mandible
85-Most common complication of condylar injuries in children :
A-Pain
B-Ankylosis
C-Osteoartrhitis
D-Fracture of glenoid fossa
86-Primary healing of a mandibular fracture is seen following fixation with :
A-Gunning splints
B-Compression plates
C-Trans-osseous wires
D-Champy plates
87-In the maxilla,a compression plate can be safely applied along the :
A-Infraorbital margin
B-Anterolateral wall of the maxillary sinus
C-Frontozygomatic suture
D-Zygomaticomaxillary suture
88-To provide absolute stability of the fracture ends by a compression bone plate, the minimum number of screws that have to be placed on both side of the fracture line is :
A-Six
B-Two
C-Three
D-Four
89-After extraction of maxillary first molar,a communication is found between the palatal socket and a disease of free maxillary sinus which measure 0.2 cm.The best treatment is :
A-Allow the clot to form advice proper home care
B-Primary closure and antihistamine
C-Gold foil closure
D-Caldwell-Luc operation
90-True open bite is caused by :
Horizontal fracture of the maxilla
Unilateral fracture of mandibular angle
Fracture of the coronoid process of left side of mandible
Fracture of mandibular symphysis
91-In depressed zygomatic arch fracture, difficulty in opening the mouth is caused by impingement of:
Condyles
Ramus
Petrous temporal
Coronoid process
92-Which is the immediate danger to a patient with severe facial injuries :
Bleeding
Associated fracture spine
Infection
Respiratory obstruction
93- Le fort 1 fracture is characterized by:
Bleeding from the ear
Bleeding from the antrum
Angle class 2 skeletal relationship
None of the above
94-Suturing in facial wound injuries should be done with in:
2 hours
B - 6 hours
C - 4 hours
D - 8 hours
95- Paresthesia is seen with which of the following types of fractures:
Subcondylar
Zygomatico maxillary
Coronoid process
Symphyseal
96- Forceps used for maxillary fracture disimpaction
Rowe's
Bristows
Ashs
Walshams
97-A patient is in shock with gross comminuted fracture, immediate treatment is to give :
Normal saline
Ringer's lactate solution
Whole blood
Plasma expanders
98-Walsham's forceps are used to :
Remove teeth
Remove root
Clamp blood vessels
Reduce nasal bone fractures
99- "Panda facies" is commonly seen after
Le fort I fractures
Le fort II fractures
Mandible fractures
None of the above
100-CSF rhinorrhea is not found in
Lefort 1
Lefort II
Lefort III
Ethmoidal
101-Gillis approach for reduction of zygomatic fractures is done through :
Temporal fossa
Intra temporal fossa
Infra orbital fossa
All of the above
102-Which of the following is not a feature of Le Fort II fracture :
Enophthalmos
Malocclusion
Paraesthesia
CSF rhinorrhea
103-The first step in management of head injury is :
Secure airway
I.V. mannitol
I.V. dexamethasone
Blood transfusion
104-CSF rhinorrhea is found in :
Frontal bone structure
Zygomatico maxillary fracture
Naso ethmoidal fracture
Condylar fracture
105- Le Fort III fracture is the same as :
Craniofacial dysjunction
Guerrin's fracture
Pyramidal fracture
None of the above
106- Fixation with pack in maxillary sinus is :
To support comminuted fracture of the body of zygomatic complex
To support and reconstitute comminuted orbital floor fracture
To protect mucosal covering of maxillary sinus
(A) and (B) are correct
107- Floating maxilla is typically found in :
Le Fort I or guerin fractures
Le Fort II or pyramidal fractures
Craniomandibular dysjunction
All of the above
108- In a patient of head injury which is more important to note first:
Pupillary light reflex
Pupillary size
Corneal reflex
Ability to open eye
109-Which of the following always indicates obstruction to the airway?
Slow pounding pulse
Stertoreous breathing
Increase in pulse rate
Decrease in blood pressure
110-Moon face is seen in
Le Fort I
Le Fort II
Le Fort III
Orbital fractures
111- In blow out fractures which of the following is seen
Enophthalmos
Exophtholmos
Bulbar hemorrhage
None
112- Diplopia after fracture results from entrapment of
Inferior rectus
Inferior oblique
Lateral rectus
Superior oblique
113- In Le Fort III fracture all are seen except
Crack pot sound on tapping teeth
CSF rhinorrhea
Fracture at frontozygomatic suture
Whole face is mobile
None of the above
114-The muscle that aids in displacement of maxillary fractures are
Masseter
Temporalis
Orbicularis oculi and orbicularis oris
None of the above
115-What is the name of the fracture that is clinically detected by tugging on the maxilla/hard palate causing the nose to move.
A-le fort 1
B-le fort 2
C-le fort 3
D-le fort 4
116-Which facial view x-ray is the best for examining the orbits and midface?
A-OPG
B-Waters or occipitomental
C-Caldwell or PA view
D-Submental vertex
E-Towne
117-A tripod fracture involves what?
A-it is another word for le fort fracture
B-zygomaticotemperal and zygomatico frontal suture diastasis and inferiororbital rim fracture
C-Fracture through maxilla, zygomatic arch and nasal bones
D-Fracture through neck angle and body of the mandible
118-Which part of the mandible is fractured the most frequently in trauma?
A-Condyle
B-Ramus
C-Body
D-Symphysis
119-Maxillary sinus is usually involved in fractures:
A-Le fort 1
B-Zygomatic arch fracture
C-Le fort 3
D-Nasoethmoidal fracture
120-If a fracture of jaw bone is communicated to external environment ,it is called :
A-Comminuted fracture
B-Compound fracture
C-Simple fracture
D-Transverse fracture
121-Le fort 3 fracture is also called :
A-Horizontal fracture
B-Pyramidal fracture
C-Transverse fracture
D-Green stick fracture
122-Goals of Maxillomandibular Fixation (MMF) :
A-Restore occlusion
B-Reduction of fracture segments
C-Stabilization of fracture segments
D-All of the above
123-Facial fractures are diagnosed from :
A-History
B-Physical examination
C-Radiographs
D-All of the above
124- During the Gillies approach,the structure of anatomic significance is :
A-Superficial temporal artery
B-Marginal mandibular nerve
C-Internal jugular vein
D-Inferior alveolar nerve
125-An unfavorable displaced fracture of the mandibular angle is difficult to treat because of :
A-Muscle pull causes distraction
B-Malocclusion secondary to the injury
C-Injury to nerves and vessels
D-Bone in that region is very thick
126-Among the following which may produce respiratory obstruction ?
A-Bilateral condylar fracture
B-Symphysis fracture of the mandible
C-Bilateral fracture of mandible in the second premolar area
D-Fracture of the angle of the mandible
127-In a patient with bilateral dislocated fractures of the neck of the mandibular condyles one
can expect the following clinical signs :
A-Anterior open bite
B-Inability to protrude the mandible
C-Inability to bring posterior molars into contact
D-Anterior open bite & Inability to protrude the mandible
128-Of the following which facial bone is most frequently fractured ?
A-Mandible
B-Maxilla
C-Nasal
D-Zygomatic
129-Which of the following is complication often open fracture ?
A-Malunion
B-Nonunion
C-Infection
D-Crepitation
130-Principles in treatment fractures include :
A-Reduction of fracture
B-Fixation of fracture and restoration of occlusion
C-Immmobilisation
D-All of the above
131-Depressed fracture of the zygomatic area may be clinically recognized by :
A-Concavity of the overlaying tissue in the zygomatic arch area
B-Interference with movements of the mandible
C-Subluxation of condyles
D-Concavity of the overlaying tissue in the zygomatic arch area & Interference with movements of the mandible
132-Which of the following is characteristic of lefort fracture ?
A-CSF rhinorrhea
B-Bleeding from the ear
C-Bleeding into antrum
D-CSF rhinorrhea & Bleeding from the ear
133-After a depressed fracture of zygomatic arch mandibular movement is restricted. The most probable reason is :
A-Disruption of TMJ
B-Spasm of the lateral pterygoid muscle
C-Mechanical impingement of the fracture fragment on the coronoid process
D-Splinting action of masseter and medial pterygoid muscle
134-Among the following which is compound fracture ?
A-Fracture with many small fragments
B-Fracture in a star shaped appearance
C-Fracture with communition with the oral cavity
D-Fracture with bleeding into the masticator space
135-The mini-bone plate system is a :
A-Compressive bone plating system
B-Monocortical system
C-Bicortical system
D-None of the above
136-The minimum number of miniplates required in fractures anterior to canine in mandible is:
A-No plate is required since anterior region develops less amount of tension forces than in molar region
B-Only one plate as in molar region
C-Two plates
D-Three plates
137-Minimum number of screw required for fixation of miniplate are :
A-One screw on each side of fracture site
B-Two screws on each side of fracture site
C-Three screws on each side of fracture site
D-Two screws in small fragment and three screws in large fragment
138-Risdom wiring is indicated for :
A-Body fracture
B-Angle fracture
C-Symphysis fracture
D-Subcondylar fracture
139-The most common complication of maxillofacial injuries requiring immediate attention is:
A-Haemorrhage
B-Airway obstruction
C-Infection
D-Shock
140-The Gillies approach is used to gain acess to the following bone :
A-Nasal bone
B-Zygomatic bone
C-Maxilla
D-Temporal bone
141-While doing circumferential wiring around a mandibular Gunning splint,care most be taken not to damage the :
A-Mandibular branch of the facial nerve
B-Facial artery as it crosses the anteroinferior of the masseter
C-The lingual nerve
D-The submsndibular gland and its duct
142-The elastic traction used commonly to reduce facial fractures,does so by overcoming :
A-The active mascular pull that distracts the fragments
B-The organized connected tussue at the fracture site
C-The malposion caused by the direction and force of trauma
D-All of the above
143-Panda facies is commonly seen after :
A-Le fort 1 fractures
B-Le fort 2 fractures
C-Zygoatic arch fractures
D-Orbital blow-out fractures
144-A subconjunctival haemorrhage remains bright red in colour for a long time because of the :
A-Permeability of the conjunctiva to oxygen
B-Natural colour of blood
C-Lack of drainage of the pooled blood
D-None of the above
145-The following fracture is usually pyramidal in shape :
A-Le firt I fracture
B-Le fort II fracture
C-Le fort III fracture
D-Mandibular symphysis fracture
146-Cranio facial disjunctioan commonly occurs in :
A-Le fort I fracture
B-Le fort III fracture
C-Mandibular symphysis fracture
D-Mandibular condyle
147-Gilli`s approach is :
A-Used to block inferior alveolar nerve
B-Used to reduce the fractured zygoma
C-Placed just anterior to the ear
D-One of the frequent approach for condylar surgery
148- Contraindications of close reduction are :
A-Alcoholic and siezure disorder
Mental retardation and nutritional concerns
Respiratory diseases(COPD) and unfavorable fractures
D-All of the above
149- Indications of close reduction are :
A-Nondisplaced favorable fractures
B- Mandibular fractures in children with developing dentition.
Condylar fractures(intracapsular fracture )
D-All of the above
150- Indications of open reduction are :
A-Unfavorable/unstable mandibular fractres/Multiple fractures of the facial bones
B-Fractures of an edentulous mandibule fracture with severe displacement and malunion
C-Delayed treatment with interposition of soft tissue that prevents closed reduction techniques to reapproximate the fragments
D-All of the above
151-Indication of Transosseous wiring :
A-Control of edentulous posterior fragment and edentulous mandibular fractures
B-Grossly comminuted fractures
C-Control of lower border when upper border has been fixed by conventional methods
D-All of the above
152-The treatment goals of condylar fractures:
A-To restore mandibular function, occlusion, prevent growth disturbances, and maintain symmetry
B-Must avoid ankylosis
C-Use short periods of IMF (7-14 days), then jaw opening exercises; in children under 3 years, immediate function necessary to prevent ankylosis
D-All of the above
153-Which methods of treatment are appropriate for reduction of a fractured mandibular angle in a dentate patient :
A-Intramaxillary fixation(IMF) using eyelet wires
B-IMF using arch bars
C-Mini bone plates
D-IMF using K-wires
154-Subconjunctival bleed with no posterior border indicates fracture of which bone:
A-Maxilla
B-Mandible
C-Zygoma
D-Nasal
155-The weakest part of mandible where fracture occurs :
A-Neck condyle
B-Angle of mandible
C-Canine fossa
D-Midline
156-The most common fracture of face is that of :
A-Mandible
B-Maxilla
C-Zygoma
D-Nasal bone
157-Sinus disease is best demonstrated by :
A-CTscan
B-Plain X-ray
C-Tomography
D-Ultrasound
158-Nasal pyramid consist of :
A-Nasal bones and Nasal septum
B-Frontal processes of maxilla
C-Lateral cartilages
D-All the above
159-Diplopia is caused by:
A-Hematoma or edema arround extraoccular muscle
B-Neuromuscular injury
C-Disruption of attachment of inferior rectus or inferior oblique muscle
D-All the above
160-Signs and Symptoms of LeFort I fracture :
A-Damaged teeth and soft tissues,swelling and bruising and deformity of alveolus
B-Crepitus over maxilla,ecchymosis in buccal vestibule and epistaxis
C-Malocclusion,maxilla mobility or Independent movement of fragments,altered sensation
D-All of the above
161- Signs and Symptoms of LeFort II fracture :
A-Midface crepitus,face lengthening and anterior open bite
B- Malocclusion, mobility of maxilla,bilateral epistaxis and infraorbital paresthesia
Ecchymoses: buccal vestibule, periorbital, subconjunctival ,orbital rim defects and paraesthesis (infra-orbital nerve)
D-All of the above
162- Signs and Symptoms of LeFort III fracture :
A-Bilateral periorbital edema , ecchymosis,step deformity palpated infraorbital, nasofrontal area and infraorbital paresthesia
B- Bilateral epistaxis,often medial canthal deformity,often unequal pupil height,face lengthening: “caved-in” or “donkey face”
Malocclusion: “open bite”,lateral orbital rim defect and ecchymoses: periorbital, subconjunctival
D-All of the above
163- LeFort Fractures were described by :
A-Wilson
B- Rene LeFort,1991.
Knight and North
D-Williams
164- The coronal or bi-temporal approach is used to expose :
The anterior cranial vault
B-The forehead
The apper and middle regions of the facial skeleton.
D-All of the above
165- Clinical sign that is always positive in fracture is
A-Crepitus
B-Tenderness
C-Abnormal mobility
D-All of the above
166-The most (common ) sign mandibular fracture is :
Malocclusion
Trismus
C-Deviation of the jaw on opening
D-Paraesthesia of the mental nerve
167-Which of them is not rigid osteosynthetic fixation
Osteosynthesis
Microplating
Screw plating
Wiring
168-Treatment of choice of a linear non-displaced fracture of the body of the mandible, with full compliment of teeth is
Kirschner wire
Circumferential wiring
External pin fixation
Interdental fixation
169-Which of the following condition is associated with anterior open bite
Unilateral condylar #
Bilateral condylar #
Maxillary fractures
Coronoid fracture
170-Fracture of mandible not involving dental arch is treated by :
Open reduction
Closed reduction
No treatment required
None of the above
171- In case of sub condylar fracture, the condyle move in
Anterior - lateral direction
Posterior - medial direction
Posterior- lateral direction
Anterior-medial direction
172-A 7-year-old boy presented with fracture of left sub condylar region with occlusion undisturbed, the treatment would be
Immobilization for 7 days
Immobilization for 14 days with intermittent active opening
No immobilization with restricted mouth opening for 10 days
D-No immobilization and active treatment
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