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Oral Maxillofacial part 2

A detailed dental surgical scene showcasing a dentist performing an oral maxillofacial procedure, with tools and anatomical charts in the background.

Oral Maxillofacial Knowledge Quiz

Test your expertise in Oral Maxillofacial surgery with our comprehensive quiz designed for dental professionals and students. This quiz covers a range of topics including surgical techniques, anesthesia, patient management, and complications.

232 Questions
Diverse Topics
Multiple Choice Format

232 Questions58 MinutesCreated by SurgicalSkill21

1. Which of the following is NOT the differential diagnosis of a soft tissue lesion?

σ� List all the most probable diagnosis

σ� Look at the characteristics of each condition/lesion

σ� Blood tests

σ� Compare & distinguish between them

σ� Choose on a “best-fit” basis

2. Which one of the following is NOT the investigation before extraction?

σ� Radiographs

σ� Antibiotic

σ� Pulp vitality tests

σ� Study models

σ� Plaque disclosure

3. What is the ideal treatment plan?

σ� Long-term outcomes

σ� Address all patient concerns

σ� Minimum intervention

σ� All of the above

σ� None of the above

4. In which cases consent should be informed before starting the treatment?

σ� Suture removal

σ� Surgical removal of deep unerupted mandibular wisdom teeth

σ� Prescription writing for orofacial pain

σ� Extraction of a maxillary second molar which the root is close proximity to the sinus

σ� Surgical removal of deep unerupted mandibular wisdom teeth and Extraction of a maxillary second molar which the root is close proximity to the sinus

5. Which of one of the following is NOT the clinical factors predicting the difficulty of extractions?

σ� Extensive loss of coronal tooth structure

σ� Thickness of the buccal plate

σ� Limited access to the area of extraction

σ� Limited access to the tooth in the dental arch

σ� Severe periodontitis

6. Which of one of the following is NOT the radiographic factors predicting the difficulty of extraction?

σ� Severely divergent roots

σ� Periapial radiolucency

σ� Endodontically treated teeth with or without post and core

σ� Dilacerated roots

σ� Increased number of roots present

7. Which teeth are at risk for sinus exposure when doing extraction?

σ� Lone standing maxillary molar with pneumatized maxillary sinus

σ� Roots projecting into a severely pneumatized maxillary sinus and minimal coronal bone visible radiographically

σ� Long divergent bulbous roots with a pneumatized sinus into the trifurcation area

σ� Teeth with advanced periodontal disease but with no mobility; also teeth with the maxillary sinus extending into the trifurcation area

σ� All of the above

8. Which one of the following is NOT one of the principles of flap designs?

σ� Good surgical access

σ� Avoid vital structures

σ� A little broad base flap

σ� Very broad base

σ� Prevention of flap dehiscence

9. What are the factors to consider in flap design?

σ� Depth of the buccal sulcus

σ� Position & size of labial fraenum and muscle attachments

σ� Vital structures

σ� Size of lesion

σ� Number of teeth to be treated

σ� All of the above

10. Which one of the following is NOT one of the basic steps of surgical extraction?

σ� Incision & raising a flap

σ� Application of Betadine

σ� Removal of bone

σ� Tooth or root division

σ� Removal of tooth or roots

11. Which suture that can be used in contaminated wounds?

σ� Vicryl

σ� Silk

σ� Nylon

σ� Catgut

σ� Stainless steel

12. Which suture creates eversion of the wound edges?

σ� Interrupted sutures

σ� Continuous sutures

σ� Horizontal mattress suture

σ� Vertical mattress suture

σ� Figure-of-eight suture

13. What sizes of the sutures that commonly used in oral cavity?

σ� 2//0

σ� 3/0 & 4/0

σ� 4/0 & 5/0

σ� 6/0

σ� 7/0

14. What is the atraumatic suturing technique?

σ� No crushing tissues with forceps

σ� Not too large suture and needle

σ� Not too large tissue bites

σ� Not too tight

σ� Not too dry

σ� All of the above

15. Which suture is used for extraction socket of molar teeth to control bleeding?

σ� Horizontal mattress

σ� Vertical mattress

σ� Figure-of-eight and interrupted

σ� Interrupted

σ� Sling suture

16. How many knots do you need to tie tissues intra-orally?

σ� One knot

σ� Two knots

σ� Three knots

σ� Four knots

σ� Five knots

17. Suture is selected depends on:

σ� Tissue to be suturing, ie. mucosa, muscle, skin

σ� Wound condition

σ� Healing process, cost, and tissue tolerance

σ� Patient’s availability to come for suture removal

σ� All of the above

18. How do you prevent aspiration of a tooth or root into the lungs when doing an extraction?

σ� Place a piece of sterilized gauze as a pharyngeal screen at the back of the patient's mouth

σ� Place a rubber dam on the tooth

σ� Patient stands up while extracting the tooth

σ� Lay the patient flat while extracting the tooth

σ� Use bite block or mouth prop

19. How to treat postoperative ecchymosis?

σ� Apply ice pack on the bruise

σ� Reassure the patient

σ� Inject steroid

σ� Apply warm moist pack

σ� Reassure the patient and Apply warm moist pack

20. How do you avoid TMJ dislocation during dental procedures?

σ� Tell the patient not to open too wide

σ� Make short appointment

σ� Use mouth prop

σ� Support the mandible during extraction

σ� All of the above

21. What are the symptoms and signs of alveolar osteitis (dry socket)?

σ� Severe pain and discomfort from the extraction site

σ� Pain may radiate from to other parts of the head, ear, eye, and neck

σ� Exposed bone around the socket and Delayed healing

σ� Remaining food debris inside the socket

σ� All of the above

22. Which one of the treatment procedures of alveolar osteitis (dry socket) below is NOT always given to the patients?

σ� Irrigate the socket with chlorhexidine

σ� Prescribed antibiotic

σ� Apply Alvogyl in the socket

σ� Prescribe strong analgesics

σ� Take note in the patient's file

23. Which one of the following is NOT the prevention of dry socket?

σ� Stop smoking

σ� Stop oral contraceptive for several days before & a few days after surgery

σ� Give antibiotic before extraction/surgery

σ� Minimize extraction force

σ� Give clear oral health instruction

24. Which of the following are the local measures to control bleeding after surgical extraction?

σ� Use vitamin K and Blood transfusion

σ� Apply pressure with sterilized gauze

σ� Use tranexamic acide injection

σ� Place Gelfoam or Surgicel in the socket

σ� Suture across the socket

σ� Apply pressure with sterilized gauze, Place Gelfoam or Surgicel in the socket and Suture across the socket

25. In aggressive measure to control bleeding, which medication is commonly used?

σ� Adrenoxyl

σ� Dicinone

σ� Tranexamic acid mouthrinse

σ� Vitamin K

σ� Desmopressin

26. Which hemostatic agent do you use to control bleeding from bone?

σ� A. Gelfoam

σ� B. Bone wax

σ� C. Surgicel

σ� D. Ferric sulfate

σ� E. Thrombin

27. How do you prevent inferior dental nerve injury during surgical removal of mandibular wisdom teeth?

σ� Use atraumatic surgical techniques

σ� Use high speed to dissect the crown

σ� Perform coronectomy

σ� Raise small flap

σ� Use atraumatic surgical techniques and Perform coronectomy

28. What are the contraindications for coronectomy?

σ� Mobile tooth (advanced periodontitis)

σ� Caries with potential pulp involvement and Periapical abscess

σ� Associated with cyst which won’t resolve with the root left in place

σ� Nerve too close to the coronectomy cut

σ� All of the above

29. In coronectomy, how far from the CEJ of the crown do you need to cut?

σ� 1mm to 2mm below the CEJ

σ� 2mm to 4mm below the CEJ

σ� 4mm to 6mm below the CEJ

σ� 2cm to 4cm below the CEJ

σ� All of the above

30. Which one of the following is NOT the specific warning after coronectomy?

σ� Root exposure migration in the later date

σ� Paresthesia of the upper lip

σ� Later removal of roots

σ� Roots inadvertently removed at the time of attempted coronectomy

σ� All of the above

31. Which one of the following statements are NOT the treatments of acute pericoronitis?

σ� Extraction of opposing tooth, Prescribe potent analgesics

σ� Apply acid around the operculome

σ� Operculectomy

σ� Irrigation around the tooth crown with Chlorhexidine

σ� Apply acid around the operculome and Operculectomy

32. Which of the following statements are NOT the factors associated with surgical difficulty of mandibular wisdom teeth?

σ� A. Verical angulation

σ� B. Increased age, obesity and Body mass index

σ� C. Patient with no TMJ disorders

σ� D. Curvature of roots & dense bone

σ� E. Verical angulation and Patient with no TMJ disorders

33. 33. What are the radiographic signs indicative of possible inferior alveolar nerve injury during surgical removal of unerupted mandibular wisdom teeth?

σ� Darkening of the root and Narrowing of the roots

σ� Deflection of the root

σ� Interruption of radiopaque line

σ� Diversion of canal

σ� Darkening of the root, Deflection of the root and Interruption of radiopaque line

34. Which case the enucleation of cyst in applied?

σ� Small cyst in the jaws

σ� Large cysts near vital structures

σ� Ameloblastoma with aggressive behaviour

σ� Cystic fibrosis

σ� All of the above

35. Which case of cyst do you need to do marsupialization?

σ� Very large cyst involving vital structures

σ� Pocket cyst of lateral incisor

σ� Traumatic bone cyst

σ� Mucous retention cyst in the floor of the mouth (ranula)

σ� Very large cyst involving vital structures and Mucous retention cyst in the floor of the mouth (ranula)

36. Which flap design is best indicated for an apicectomy of maxillary incisors with ceramic crowns on?

σ� Seminlunar flap

σ� Triangular flap

σ� Modified scallop semilunar

σ� Rectangular flap

σ� All of the above

37. Which of the following is the most recommended and affordable retrograde filling material for apicectomy?

σ� Amalgam

σ� Gutta percha

σ� Glass Ionomer cement

σ� Zinc Oxide Eugenol or IRM

σ� EBA

38. How to diagnose an Oro-antral fistula?

σ� Squeeze patient nose & ask to strongly blow to see air bubble

σ� Insert a large needle into fistula & take X-ray

σ� Use the probe to explore the fistula

σ� None of the above

σ� All of the above

39. Which one of the following is NOT the factors influencing the course of infection?

σ� Portal of entry

σ� Virulence

σ� Patient's weight

σ� Pathogenicity

σ� Host defens

40. What are the investigations for infection?

σ� Take swap of pus for microbiology & antibiotic sensitivity

σ� Immunoflurescence

σ� Blood culture

σ� Urine test

σ� Take swap of pus for microbiology & antibiotic sensitivity and Blood culture

41. Which of the following are NOT the modes of spread of infection?

σ� Saliva

σ� Lymphatic, Blood

σ� Tear

σ� D. Direct spread

σ� Saliva and Tear

42. Where can the infection spread from maxillary 2nd premolar spread to?

σ� Maxillary sinus

σ� Palatal space

σ� Infratemporal space

σ� Infraorbital space or buccal space

σ� All of the above

43. Where can the infection from mandibular molars spread to?

σ� Submandibular or buccal space

σ� Sublingual space

σ� Submental space

σ� Lateral pharyngeal space

σ� All of the above

44. Which one of the following space that the infection from the mandibular 3rd molar will NOT spread to?

σ� Pterygomandibular

σ� Lateral pharyngeal

σ� Submandibular

σ� Submesseteric

σ� Palatal space

45. Which type of acute infection that can cause airway compromised?

σ� Infraorbital space

σ� Ludwig’s Angina

σ� Buccal space

σ� Canine space

σ� Cavernous sinus

46. What is the most important and first step to treat acute infection?

σ� Prescribe antibiotic

σ� Prescribe analgesics

σ� Antiseptic mouthwash

σ� Incision and drainage of pus

σ� All of the above

47. What is the first line antibiotic for acute infection?

σ� Rodogyl

σ� Tetracycline

σ� Amoxicillin or with clavulanic acid

σ� Cephaxin

σ� All of the above

48. In which case do you need to refer the patient to the hospital?

σ� Localized infection

σ� Ludwig’s Angina

σ� Palatal abscess

σ� ] Cavernous sinus thrombosis

σ� Ludwig’s Angina and Cavernous sinus thrombosis

49. How to confirm the definitive diagnosis of a soft tissue lesion (diameter ˃2cm) on the lateral border of the tongue?

σ� Blood test

σ� Fine needle aspiration

σ� Incisional biopsy

σ� Excisional biopsy

σ� All of the above

50. 50. What are the principles of treatment of benign soft tissue lesions?

σ� Observe

σ� Reduce

σ� Excise

σ� Resect

σ� All of the above

51. Which lesions are needed for fine needle aspiration?

σ� Vascular lesions

σ� Fluctuant soft tissue pathology

σ� Surgical emphysema

σ� Intraosseous pathology

σ� Fluctuant soft tissue pathology and Intraosseous pathology

52. What are the flap designs for frenectomy?

σ� Elliptical incision, Triangular flap

σ� Z-plasty, Semilunar flap

σ� V-type incision, Rectangular flap

σ� Elliptical incision, Z-plasty and V-type incision

σ� Elliptical incision, Z-plasty and V-type incision and Triangular flap

53. Which of the following statements are the clinical assessments of unerupted maxillary canines?

σ� Observation or visual inspection for bulging, lateral incisors’ position

σ� Taking radiographs, Retained deciduous canines

σ� Palpation on both labial & palatal sides for bone projection

σ� Family history of missing canines

σ� Probing by using a Michelle Trimmer

σ� Observation or visual inspection for bulging, lateral incisors’ position, Palpation on both labial & palatal sides for bone projection and Probing by using a Michelle Trimmer

54. Which one of the following is NOT the radiographic assessment of unerupted maxillary canines?

σ� OPG

σ� Sialogram

σ� Periapical X-rays

σ� Occlusals: Ant. & Vertex Occlusal

σ� Lateral Cephalogram

55. Which one of the following is NOT the treatment option of unerupted maxillary canines?

σ� Surgical removal of unerupted canine

σ� Interceptive removal of primary canine

σ� No treatment or leave in-situ

σ� Surgical exposure with orthodontic alignment

σ� Laser treatment

56. What are the criteria for surgical removal of unerupted maxillary canines?

σ� Patient is older than 16 years old

σ� Good contact between premolar & lateral incisor

σ� Poor prognosis for alignment

σ� Good aesthetic of a retained deciduous canine with a long root

σ� Unwilling to wear orthodontic appliance

σ� All of the above

57. When aspirate a cystic lesion which shows cholesterol, what type of cyst might it be?

σ� Dentigerous cyst

σ� Eruption cyst

σ� Inflammatory cyst

σ� Odontogenic keratocyst

σ� Aneurysmal bone cyst

58. When aspirate a cyst-like lesion which shows blood, what type of lesion might it be?

σ� Contamination, Lipoma

σ� Aneurysmal bone cyst, Radicular cyst

σ� Haemengioma

σ� Mucoccel

σ� Contamination, Aneurysmal bone cyst and Haemengioma

59. When aspirate a cyst-like lesion which shows air, what type of lesion/structure might it be?

σ� Salivary gland duct,

σ� Maxillary sinus

σ� Traumatic bone cyst

σ� Nerve canal

σ� Maxillary sinus, Traumatic bone cyst

60. Which of one the following lesions do NOT need to do excisional biopsy?

σ� Firoepithelial polyps

σ� Mucocoeles

σ� Fibromas

σ� Haemengioma

σ� Papillomas

1-ឝើអ្វីទៅដែលហៅឝា Abscess or Cellulitis ?

A-Cellulitis is a flammation of medular bone.

B- Cellulitis is a painful swelling of the soft tissue of the mouth and face resultating from a diffuse spreading of purulent exudate along the facial planes that separate the muscle bundles.

C-Cellulitis is an acute deep suppurative abcess of upper neck and perioral area.

D-Cellilitis is inflammation of hair follicle from infection or trauma or Chemical irritation.

2-ឝើ Abscess or Cellulitis កកើឝឡើងពីអ្វី?

A-Inflammation of hair follicles

B-Chronic of apical infection

C- Acute of apical infection.

D- Chronic blistering disease

3- ឝើ Spread of pus inside tissues មានចំនួនប៉ុន្មានផ្លូវ?អ្វីឝ្លះ?

A-by continuity through tissue spaces and planes, by way of the lymphatic system and by way of blood circulation .

B- by way of the lymphatic system by way of the lymphatic System.

C-by way of blood circulation.

D-By direct skin-to-skin contact with the infected areas.

4-ឝើ Classification of cellulitis មានចំនួនប៉ុន្មាន?អ្វីឝ្លះ?

A-Acute and chronic.

B-Acute, subacute and chronic

C-Low severity,medium severity and high severity.

D-Odontogenic and nonodontogenic cellulitis.

5- ឝើ Facial plan មានចំនួនប៉ុន្មាន ?

Surface of gingiva, palatal abscess and maxillary sinus.

B-Surface of gingiva, palatal abscess , maxillary sinus,maxilla and mandible

C-Surface of gingiva, palatal abscess , maxillary sinus, maxilla and mandible, floor of the mouth.

D-Vestibular region and palatal region.

6- ឝើ Abscess of base of upper lip,Subperiosteal abscess,Vestibular abscess,Intraalveolar abscess of maxilla&Mandible ,Infraorbital abscess,Buccal abscess ស្ឝិឝក្នុងក្រុមណា?

Low severity.

B-Medium severity

C-High severity

D-Diffuse abscess.

7- ឝើ Submental, Submandibular,Sublingual,Masseteric,Pterygomandibular,Superficia temporal,Deep temporal ស្ឝិឝក្នុងក្រុមណា?

C-Low severity

B-Medium severity.

C-High severity

D-Diffuse abscess.

8- ឝើ Diffuse Cellulitis ,Ludwig’s angina,Lateral Pharyngeal Space Abscess, Retropharyngeal Abscess ស្ឝិឝក្នុងក្រុមណា?

C-Low severity

B-Medium severity

C-High severity.

D-Diffuse abscess.

9- ឝើ Goals of management of odontogenic infection មានអ្វីឝ្លះ?

A-Medical treatment.

B-Incision and drainage.

Airway protection,Surgical drainage,Medical support of the patient ,Identification of etiologic bacteria,Selection of appropriate antibiotic therapy.

D-Laser therapy.

10-What is/are the clinical features of cellulitis ?

redness(erythema) and warmth

B - swellin(edema)

Tenderness or pain

D – All of the above

11-How many types of localized odontogenic infection ?

A-Periapical Infections - infection at the apex of an abscessed tooth.

B-Periodontal Infections – soft tissue infection in the periodontal pocket from advanced periodontitis.

C-Pericoronal Infections – soft tissue infection around the crown of the unerupted or partially erupted tooth.

All of the above.

12-Spread of pus inside tissues from the site of the initial lesion, inflammation may spread in many ways :

A- by continuity through tissue spaces and planes

B- by way of the lymphatic system

C- by way of blood circulation

All of the above

13-To drain pus from an abscess,the surgeon should :

A-Penetrate into abscess cavity and probe with an artery to allow for flow of pus

B-Cut and eclipse from the abscess surface to allow for a drain

C-Aspirate the contents

D-Cut only the mucosa and skin

14-To drain pus from a submental abscess,the surgeon should :

A-Cut and eclipse from the abscess surface to allow for a drain

B-Aspirate the contents

C-A horizontal incision should be placed 1–3 cm below the lower border of the mandible rather than the top of the swelling (abscess) to exploit gravity to encourage drainage.

D-Cut only the mucosa and skin

15-To drain pus from a submandibular abscess,the surgeon should :

A-Cut and eclipse from the abscess surface to allow for a drain

B-The incision for drainage is performed on the skin, approximately 1 cm beneath and parallel to the inferior border of the mandible.

C-Aspirate the contents

D-Cut only the mucosa and skin

16-Treatment of choice to localized infection with pus is :

A-Antibiotc administration

B-Establish drainage

C-Apply col to the area

D-Advise hot mouth washes

17-Among of the followinh which is treatment of choice for infection with fluctuation in an afebrile patient ?

A-Administration of antibiotics

B-Application of hot packs to the area

C-Incision and drainage

D-Antibiotics administration followed by I and D

18-Surgical blade used for drainage of abscess is :

A-Blade No 12

B-Blade No 15

C-Blade No 11

D-Blade No 22

19. What is the most important and first step to treat acute infection?

Prescribe antibiotic

Prescribe analgesics

Incision and drainage of pus

All of the above

20. Which type of abscess that can cause airway obstruction?

A.Subcutaneous abscess

B.Ludwig’s Angina

C.Buccal abscess

All of the above

21. In which case do you need to refer the patient to the hospital?

A.Localized infection

B.Ludwig’s Angina

C.Cavernous sinus thrombosis

D. Ludwig’s Angina & Cavernous sinus thrombosis

22-Ludwig`s angina was first described by :

The German physician, Wilhelm Frederick von Ludwig in 1836.

B-Maxwell

Garre in the year 1893

D-Rene LeFort

23-The most common cause of cellulitis in face is :

A-Dental carie

B-Pericoronitis

C-Trauma

D-Antral infection

24-A diffuse inflammation of soft tissue that is not circumscribed is an :

A-Abscess

B-Granuloma

C-Swelling

D-Cellulutis

25- The most common orgeism associated with cellulitis is :

A-Streptococci

B-Staphylococci

C-Actinomyces

D-Lactobacillus

26-A corne-shaped space infection involving inner canthus of eye is :

A-Canine space

B-Buccal space

C-Parotid space

D-Palatal abscess

27-ឝើ អ្វីទៅដែលហៅឝា The osteitis ?

A-Osteitis is an flammatory process within medullary (Trabecular) bone that involves the marrow spaces.

Osteitis is a painful swelling of the soft tissue of the mouth and face resultating from a diffuse spreading of purulent exudate along the facial planes that separate the muscle bundles.

C-Osteitis is an acute deep suppurative abcess of upper neck and perioral area.

D-Osteitis is a rare group of blistering autoimmune diseases.

28- ឝើ Classification of osteitis មានចំនួនប៉ុន្មាន?អ្វីឝ្លះ?

A-Acute and chronic osteitis .

B-Acute, subacute and chronic osteitis.

C-Low severity,mederate severity and high severity.

D-Close and open osteitis.

29 - នៅព៝លដែលល៝ចច៝ញនូវ Purulent exudate ,fistula and sequestra ឝើគ៝ចាឝ់វាជា Osteitis ប្រភ៝ទណា?

A-Acute osteitis.

B-Chronic osteitis.

Osteomyelitis.

D-Diffuse osteitis.

30 - ឝើ Treatment of chronic osteitis គ៝ឝ្រូវធ្វើដូចម្ឝ៝ចឝ្លះ?

A-Incision and drainage.

Debridement -the removal of foreign material or devitalized tissue from the vicinity of a wound, Remove teeth,Incision and Drainage

Sequestrectomy,Saucerization- an excavation of the tissue of a wound to form a shallow,saucelike depression.

D-Irrigation and medical treatment.

31 -Dry soket is also termed all except :

A-Localized acute alveolar osteomyelitis

B-Acute suppurative osteomyelitis .

C-Alveolar osteitis

D-Alveolalgia

32- The treatment of dry socket :

Curettage the socket and Irrigation with chlorhexidine

Place Alvogyl in the socket

Prescribe strong analgesics

All of the above

33-Squestrum is a :

A-Necrotized bone

B-Newly formed bone

C-Vital bone

D-Reactive bone formation

34-Acute osteomyelitis in maxilla is :

A-Localized

B-Diffuse

C-Widespread

D-None of the above

35- The treatment of chronic suppurative osteomyelitis is :

A-Hyperbaric oxygen therapy

B-Sequestrectomy,saucerization and hyperbaric oxygen therapy

Sequestrectomy ,with hyperbaric oxygen therapy

D-Saucerization only

36- Chronic focal sclerosing osteomyelitis is also known as :

A-Perosteitis ossificans

B-Condensing osteitis

C-Garre`s osteomyelitis

D-Alveolar osteitis

37 -Garre`s osteomyelitis was first described by Garre in the year :

A-1873

B-1883

C-1893

D-1903

38- A focal gross thickening of the periosteum with peripheral bone formation is :

A-Chronic osteomyelitis

B-Condencing osteitis

C-Garre`s osteomyelitis

D-Periostitis

39-Inflammatory cells seen chiefly in acute suppurative osteomyelitis histology are :

A-plasmacells

B-Lymphocytes

C-Monocytes

D-Neurophilic PMNL`s

40- After decortication of mandible in osteomyelitis,closed irrigation suction and/or placement of antibiotic is done for a period of :

A-5-7 days

B-7-10 days

C-10-14 days

D-14-20 days

41- Decortication of the mandible for the treatment of osteomyelitis was described by ;

A-Maxwell

B-Mowlem

C-Mader

D-Michellin

42-For a patient of osteomyelitis who is allergic to penicillin,all of the following drugs are recommended as 2nd and 3rd choices except :

A-Clindamycin

B-Cephalosporin

C-Erythromycin

D-Sulfa drugs

43-Radiographic characteristics of osteomyelitis were described by :

A-Wilson

B-Worth

C-Wright

D-Williams

44- Radiolucencies due to spreading infection of osteomyelitis:

A-moth eaten r/lucency, I.e. irregular & poorly outline

Radiopaque sequestrae, I.e. Piece of necrotic bone

C-Patchy,ragget & ill define radiolucency

D-All of the above.

45-All of the following are true about osteomyelitis of the mandible, except :

A-Symphysis is more commonly involved than angle

B-Ramus is more commonly involved than symphysis

C-Body is more commonly involved than symphysis

D-Angle is more commonly involved than condyle

46- Osteomyelitis of the jaws is primarily caused by :

A-Peptostreptococcus

B-Prevotella (Bacteroids)

Streptococcus sp

D-Vincent`s organism

47-The most common organisms isolated from primary hematogenuos osteomyelitis of long bones in adult :

A-staphylococcus sp

B-E.coli

C-Salmonella typhi

D-Pneumococcus

48 - ឝើឝើ អ្វីទៅដែលហៅឝា The sinusitis ?

A-Sinusitis is a flammation of medular bone.

Sinusitis is a painful swelling of the soft tissue of the mouth and face resultating from a diffuse spreading of purulent exudate along the facial planes that separate the muscle bundles.

C-Sinusitis is an inflammatory of the mucosa of the sinus.

D-Sinusitis is an infection of sinus bone.

49 - ឝើ Blood supply to the mucous membrane of sinus មានសសៃឈាមណាឝ្លះ?

A-Facial and maxillary arteries.

Facial ,maxillary and infraorbital arteries

Facial ,maxillary , infraorbital arteries and greater palatine arteries.

D-External Carotid artery.

50 - ឝើ The nerve supply to the mucous membrane of sinus មានសសៃប្រសាទ ណាឝ្លះ?

A-V1 of trigeminal nerve or Nerve ophthalmic.

V2 of trigeminal nerve or superior dental nerve and the greater palatine nerve.

V3 of trigeminal nerve or Inferior alveolar nerve.

D-Facial nerve.

51- ឝើ Sinuses មានអឝ្ឝប្រយោជន៝ដែរឬទ៝?

A-គ្មានអឝ្ឝប្រយោជន៝អ្វីសោះ

B-មានអឝ្ឝប្រយោជន៝ច្រើនដូចជាLighten head,protect eyes and nasal cavity,produce resonant tones of voice, insulation,air conditioning, water conservation,olfaction, strengthen area against trauma.

C-មិនសូវជាមានអឝ្ឝប្រយោជន៝ប៉ុន្មានទ៝

D-Sinus វាបង្កបញ្ហាច្រើនណាស់ ដូចជារលាកឬ Allergy

52 -ឝើ Radiograph ប្រភ៝ទណាមួយ ដែលអាចមើលទៅឃើញ Infection of Sinuses បានច្បាស់?

A-Periapical radiograph

B- PA projection

OPG or panoramic radiograph

D-CTScan or Water view.

53- ឝើព៝លណាធ្វើ Churgical treatment of sinusitis by using technique of Caldwell Luc?

A-Acute sinusitis

B- Subacute sinusitis

C- Chronic terminal of sinusitis.

D-Chronic sinusitis.

54- ដើម្បីធ្វើ Antral closure of Oroantral Communication ឝើគ៝ប្រើ Flap ប្រភ៝ទណាឝ្លះ?

Vestibular flap

Palatal flap

C-Vestibular flap,Palatal flap, Bridge flap,Fat pad flap.

Fat pad flap

55 -The volume of maxillary sinus is :

A-15-30 ml

B-10 ml

C-40 ml

50 ml

56- Maxillary sinus is also known as :

A-Paranasal sinus

B-Antrum of Highmore

C-Antrum of Keith

D-No other name

57-The best view for maxillary sinus is :

A-PA view

B-AP view

C-PA view in waters`s position

D-Lateral view of skull

58 -A small opening is made into the maxillary antrum during extraction, immediate treatment is :

A-Phack the socket with gauge

B-Allow the clot to form No special treatment is necessary

C-Place the patient on antibiotics

D-Rise a big mucoperiosteal flap and close the antrum

59-How to diagnose an Oro-antral fistula?

Squeeze patient nose & ask to strongly blow to see air bubble

Insert a large needle into fistula & take X-ray

Use the probe to explore the fistula

None of the above

60- Caldwell-luc procedure is done to :

A-Visualize the antrum from oral cavity

B- Visualize the antrum from nasal cavity

C-To establish drainage through nasal cavity

D-To pack the maxillary antrum

61-Acute maxillary sinusitis :

A-Results in referred pain to a single tooth

B- Results in referred pain to the orbit and maxillary posterior tooth

C-Is exacerbated by cold history

Is usually a non-infection process

62-A tooth displaced into maxillary antrum can be removed by :

A-Caldwell-luc procedure

B-Transalveolar extraction

C-Bergers`s method

D-Intranasal antrostomy

63-The other name of maxillary sinus is :

A-Antrum of Highmore

B-Antrum of Denver

C-Antrum of Khnopfleer

D-Antrum of Wilson

64- The base of the maxillary sinus is formed by the :

A-Zygomatic bone

B-Orbital floor

C-Hard palate

D-Lateral wall of the nose

65- The shape of the adult maxillary sinus is :

A-Rhomboid

B-Trapezoid

C-Rectangular

D-Pyramidal

66-The incidence of oro-antral fistulae is less in :

A-Children and young adults

B-Midle aged adults

C-Elderly

D-All of the above

67- The apex of the maxillary sinus faces the :

A-Nasal bone

B-Floor of the orbit

C-Palate

D-Zygomatic process of the maxilla

68-Inflammation of most or all para nasal sinuses simultaneously is described as :

A-pan sinusitis

B-Sinusitis

C-Para nasal sinusitis

D-Sinus thrombosis

69-Maxillary sinus infection of odontogenic origin is most commonly caused by :

A-Aerobic bacteria

B-Anaerobic bacteria

C-Fungal

D-Viral

70 -ឝើ Classification of maxillary fracture by location មានអ្វី ឝ្លះ ?

A-Close Fracture and open Fracture

B- Le Fort I,Le Fort II and Le Fort III Fractures.

C-Nasal Fracture and Zygomatic Complex Fracture.

D-Pan facial

71-ឝើ NOE Fracture ចូលរួមផ្សំដោយឆ្អឹងណាឝ្លះ ?

A-frontal bone,nasal bone, maxillary bone.

B- frontal bone,nasal bone, maxillary bone, lacrimal bone.

C- frontal bone,nasal bone, maxillary bone, lacrimal bone, ethmoid bone and sphenoid bone.

D-Nasal bone,eth moid bone and sphenoid bone.

72-ឝើ Zygomatic complex Fracture ចូលរួមផ្សំដោយឆ្អឹងណាឝ្លះ ?

A-Zygomatic bone,Frontozygomatic bone and Zygomatic arch.

B- Zygomatic bone,Frontozygomatic bone , Zygomatic arch,Orbital rim.

C- Zygomatic bone,Frontozygomatic bone ,Zygomatic arch,Lateral orbital rim,infraorbital rim,orbital floor, anterior and lateral maxillary sinus.

D-Zygomatic bone,Frontozygomatic bone and Zygomatic arch.

73-ឝើThe treatment of Zygomatic Complex Fracture យ៉ាងដូចម្ឝ៝ចដែរ?

A-MMF or IMF Technique

B- Trans osseous wiring

C- Trans osseous wiring and Mini bone plates.

D-Reduction alone and reduction &fixation.

74-ឝើ Classification of mandibular fracture by type មានអ្វីឝ្លះ?

A-Close and open fracture.

B- Simple Fx,compound Fx,comminuted Fx,greenstick Fx,Complex Fx,telescoped or impacted Fx.

C- Dentoalveolar Fx,symphysisFx,parasymphysis Fx,body Fx,angle Fx,coronoid Fx,condyle Fx.

D-Class I (កន្លែងបាក់មានធ្ម៝ញ ),Class II(កន្លែងបាក់មានធ្ម៝ញ) ,Class III ( អ្នកជំងឺគ្មានធ្ម៝ញសោះ)

75-ឝើ Classification of mandibular fracture by location មានអ្វី ឝ្លះ?

A-Close and open fracture.

B- Simple Fx,compound Fx,comminuted Fx,greenstick Fx,Complex Fx,telescoped or impacted Fx.

C- Dentoalveolar Fx,symphysisFx,parasymphysis Fx,body Fx,angle Fx,coronoid Fx, condyle Fx.

Class I (កន្លែងបាក់មានធ្ម៝ញ ),Class II(កន្លែងបាក់មានធ្ម៝ញ) ,Class III ( អ្នកជំងឺគ្មានធ្ម៝ញសោះ)

76- ឝើ Treatment of compound Fx ឝ្រូវធ្វើដូចម្ឝ៝ចឝ្លះ?

MMF Technique.

Trans osseous wiring

Trans osseous wiring and Mini bone plates.

D-External fixation.

77- ឝើ MMF គ៝ឝ្រូវដោះច៝ញក្នុងរយះព៝លប៉ុន្មានឝ្ងៃ?

2 weeks

4-6 weeks .

10 weeks

D-3 months

78- ឝើ Simple fractures of condyle គ៝ព្យាបាលដូចម្ឝ៝ច?

MMF Technique.

Osteosynthesis

Bandage

D-Dental wiring.

79- ឝើ Compound fractures of condyle គ៝ព្យាបាលដូចម្ឝ៝ច?

MMF Technique

Osteosynthesis by ORIF .

Bandage

D-External fixation.

80- ចំពោះ Edentulous patient គ៝ព្យាបាលដូចម្ឝ៝ច?

MMF Technique

Osteosynthesis

Gunning’s splint.

D-Gunning`s splint or Osteosynthesis.

81-The muscles that aid in displacement of maxillary fractures are :

A-Masseter

B-Temporalis

C-Upper part of orbicularis and lower part of orbicularis occuli

D-None of the above

82-A fracture mandible should be immobilized an everage of :

A-3 weeks

B-6 weeks

C-9 weeks

D-12 weeks

83-Fracture of mandible all are true except :

A-Fractures of the mandible are common at the angle of the mandible

B-Fractures of the mandible are effected by the muscle pull

Fractures of the mandible are usually characterized by sublingual hematoma

D-C.S.F. Rhinorrhea is a common finding

84-The ideal treatment for fracture of the angle of mandible is :

A-Transosseous wiring

B-Intermaxillary fixation

C-Plating on the lateral side of the body of the mandible

D-Plating at the inferior border of the mandible

85-Most common complication of condylar injuries in children :

A-Pain

B-Ankylosis

C-Osteoartrhitis

D-Fracture of glenoid fossa

86-Primary healing of a mandibular fracture is seen following fixation with :

A-Gunning splints

B-Compression plates

C-Trans-osseous wires

D-Champy plates

87-In the maxilla,a compression plate can be safely applied along the :

A-Infraorbital margin

B-Anterolateral wall of the maxillary sinus

C-Frontozygomatic suture

D-Zygomaticomaxillary suture

88-To provide absolute stability of the fracture ends by a compression bone plate, the minimum number of screws that have to be placed on both side of the fracture line is :

A-Six

B-Two

C-Three

D-Four

89-After extraction of maxillary first molar,a communication is found between the palatal socket and a disease of free maxillary sinus which measure 0.2 cm.The best treatment is :

A-Allow the clot to form advice proper home care

B-Primary closure and antihistamine

C-Gold foil closure

D-Caldwell-Luc operation

90-True open bite is caused by :

Horizontal fracture of the maxilla

Unilateral fracture of mandibular angle

Fracture of the coronoid process of left side of mandible

Fracture of mandibular symphysis

91-In depressed zygomatic arch fracture, difficulty in opening the mouth is caused by impingement of:

Condyles

Ramus

Petrous temporal

Coronoid process

92-Which is the immediate danger to a patient with severe facial injuries :

Bleeding

Associated fracture spine

Infection

Respiratory obstruction

93- Le fort 1 fracture is characterized by:

Bleeding from the ear

Bleeding from the antrum

Angle class 2 skeletal relationship

None of the above

94-Suturing in facial wound injuries should be done with in:

2 hours

B - 6 hours

C - 4 hours

D - 8 hours

95- Paresthesia is seen with which of the following types of fractures:

Subcondylar

Zygomatico maxillary

Coronoid process

Symphyseal

96- Forceps used for maxillary fracture disimpaction

Rowe's

Bristows

Ashs

Walshams

97-A patient is in shock with gross comminuted fracture, immediate treatment is to give :

Normal saline

Ringer's lactate solution

Whole blood

Plasma expanders

98-Walsham's forceps are used to :

Remove teeth

Remove root

Clamp blood vessels

Reduce nasal bone fractures

99- "Panda facies" is commonly seen after

Le fort I fractures

Le fort II fractures

Mandible fractures

None of the above

100-CSF rhinorrhea is not found in

Lefort 1

Lefort II

Lefort III

Ethmoidal

101-Gillis approach for reduction of zygomatic fractures is done through :

Temporal fossa

Intra temporal fossa

Infra orbital fossa

All of the above

102-Which of the following is not a feature of Le Fort II fracture :

Enophthalmos

Malocclusion

Paraesthesia

CSF rhinorrhea

103-The first step in management of head injury is :

Secure airway

I.V. mannitol

I.V. dexamethasone

Blood transfusion

104-CSF rhinorrhea is found in :

Frontal bone structure

Zygomatico maxillary fracture

Naso ethmoidal fracture

Condylar fracture

105- Le Fort III fracture is the same as :

Craniofacial dysjunction

Guerrin's fracture

Pyramidal fracture

None of the above

106- Fixation with pack in maxillary sinus is :

To support comminuted fracture of the body of zygomatic complex

To support and reconstitute comminuted orbital floor fracture

To protect mucosal covering of maxillary sinus

(A) and (B) are correct

107- Floating maxilla is typically found in :

Le Fort I or guerin fractures

Le Fort II or pyramidal fractures

Craniomandibular dysjunction

All of the above

108- In a patient of head injury which is more important to note first:

Pupillary light reflex

Pupillary size

Corneal reflex

Ability to open eye

109-Which of the following always indicates obstruction to the airway?

Slow pounding pulse

Stertoreous breathing

Increase in pulse rate

Decrease in blood pressure

110-Moon face is seen in

Le Fort I

Le Fort II

Le Fort III

Orbital fractures

111- In blow out fractures which of the following is seen

Enophthalmos

Exophtholmos

Bulbar hemorrhage

None

112- Diplopia after fracture results from entrapment of

Inferior rectus

Inferior oblique

Lateral rectus

Superior oblique

113- In Le Fort III fracture all are seen except

Crack pot sound on tapping teeth

CSF rhinorrhea

Fracture at frontozygomatic suture

Whole face is mobile

None of the above

114-The muscle that aids in displacement of maxillary fractures are

Masseter

Temporalis

Orbicularis oculi and orbicularis oris

None of the above

115-What is the name of the fracture that is clinically detected by tugging on the maxilla/hard palate causing the nose to move.

A-le fort 1

B-le fort 2

C-le fort 3

D-le fort 4

116-Which facial view x-ray is the best for examining the orbits and midface?

A-OPG

B-Waters or occipitomental

C-Caldwell or PA view

D-Submental vertex

E-Towne

117-A tripod fracture involves what?

A-it is another word for le fort fracture

B-zygomaticotemperal and zygomatico frontal suture diastasis and inferiororbital rim fracture

C-Fracture through maxilla, zygomatic arch and nasal bones

D-Fracture through neck angle and body of the mandible

118-Which part of the mandible is fractured the most frequently in trauma?

A-Condyle

B-Ramus

C-Body

D-Symphysis

119-Maxillary sinus is usually involved in fractures:

A-Le fort 1

B-Zygomatic arch fracture

C-Le fort 3

D-Nasoethmoidal fracture

120-If a fracture of jaw bone is communicated to external environment ,it is called :

A-Comminuted fracture

B-Compound fracture

C-Simple fracture

D-Transverse fracture

121-Le fort 3 fracture is also called :

A-Horizontal fracture

B-Pyramidal fracture

C-Transverse fracture

D-Green stick fracture

122-Goals of Maxillomandibular Fixation (MMF) :

A-Restore occlusion

B-Reduction of fracture segments

C-Stabilization of fracture segments

D-All of the above

123-Facial fractures are diagnosed from :

A-History

B-Physical examination

C-Radiographs

D-All of the above

124- During the Gillies approach,the structure of anatomic significance is :

A-Superficial temporal artery

B-Marginal mandibular nerve

C-Internal jugular vein

D-Inferior alveolar nerve

125-An unfavorable displaced fracture of the mandibular angle is difficult to treat because of :

A-Muscle pull causes distraction

B-Malocclusion secondary to the injury

C-Injury to nerves and vessels

D-Bone in that region is very thick

126-Among the following which may produce respiratory obstruction ?

A-Bilateral condylar fracture

B-Symphysis fracture of the mandible

C-Bilateral fracture of mandible in the second premolar area

D-Fracture of the angle of the mandible

127-In a patient with bilateral dislocated fractures of the neck of the mandibular condyles one

can expect the following clinical signs :

A-Anterior open bite

B-Inability to protrude the mandible

C-Inability to bring posterior molars into contact

D-Anterior open bite & Inability to protrude the mandible

128-Of the following which facial bone is most frequently fractured ?

A-Mandible

B-Maxilla

C-Nasal

D-Zygomatic

129-Which of the following is complication often open fracture ?

A-Malunion

B-Nonunion

C-Infection

D-Crepitation

130-Principles in treatment fractures include :

A-Reduction of fracture

B-Fixation of fracture and restoration of occlusion

C-Immmobilisation

D-All of the above

131-Depressed fracture of the zygomatic area may be clinically recognized by :

A-Concavity of the overlaying tissue in the zygomatic arch area

B-Interference with movements of the mandible

C-Subluxation of condyles

D-Concavity of the overlaying tissue in the zygomatic arch area & Interference with movements of the mandible

132-Which of the following is characteristic of lefort fracture ?

A-CSF rhinorrhea

B-Bleeding from the ear

C-Bleeding into antrum

D-CSF rhinorrhea & Bleeding from the ear

133-After a depressed fracture of zygomatic arch mandibular movement is restricted. The most probable reason is :

A-Disruption of TMJ

B-Spasm of the lateral pterygoid muscle

C-Mechanical impingement of the fracture fragment on the coronoid process

D-Splinting action of masseter and medial pterygoid muscle

134-Among the following which is compound fracture ?

A-Fracture with many small fragments

B-Fracture in a star shaped appearance

C-Fracture with communition with the oral cavity

D-Fracture with bleeding into the masticator space

135-The mini-bone plate system is a :

A-Compressive bone plating system

B-Monocortical system

C-Bicortical system

D-None of the above

136-The minimum number of miniplates required in fractures anterior to canine in mandible is:

A-No plate is required since anterior region develops less amount of tension forces than in molar region

B-Only one plate as in molar region

C-Two plates

D-Three plates

137-Minimum number of screw required for fixation of miniplate are :

A-One screw on each side of fracture site

B-Two screws on each side of fracture site

C-Three screws on each side of fracture site

D-Two screws in small fragment and three screws in large fragment

138-Risdom wiring is indicated for :

A-Body fracture

B-Angle fracture

C-Symphysis fracture

D-Subcondylar fracture

139-The most common complication of maxillofacial injuries requiring immediate attention is:

A-Haemorrhage

B-Airway obstruction

C-Infection

D-Shock

140-The Gillies approach is used to gain acess to the following bone :

A-Nasal bone

B-Zygomatic bone

C-Maxilla

D-Temporal bone

141-While doing circumferential wiring around a mandibular Gunning splint,care most be taken not to damage the :

A-Mandibular branch of the facial nerve

B-Facial artery as it crosses the anteroinferior of the masseter

C-The lingual nerve

D-The submsndibular gland and its duct

142-The elastic traction used commonly to reduce facial fractures,does so by overcoming :

A-The active mascular pull that distracts the fragments

B-The organized connected tussue at the fracture site

C-The malposion caused by the direction and force of trauma

D-All of the above

143-Panda facies is commonly seen after :

A-Le fort 1 fractures

B-Le fort 2 fractures

C-Zygoatic arch fractures

D-Orbital blow-out fractures

144-A subconjunctival haemorrhage remains bright red in colour for a long time because of the :

A-Permeability of the conjunctiva to oxygen

B-Natural colour of blood

C-Lack of drainage of the pooled blood

D-None of the above

145-The following fracture is usually pyramidal in shape :

A-Le firt I fracture

B-Le fort II fracture

C-Le fort III fracture

D-Mandibular symphysis fracture

146-Cranio facial disjunctioan commonly occurs in :

A-Le fort I fracture

B-Le fort III fracture

C-Mandibular symphysis fracture

D-Mandibular condyle

147-Gilli`s approach is :

A-Used to block inferior alveolar nerve

B-Used to reduce the fractured zygoma

C-Placed just anterior to the ear

D-One of the frequent approach for condylar surgery

148- Contraindications of close reduction are :

A-Alcoholic and siezure disorder

Mental retardation and nutritional concerns

Respiratory diseases(COPD) and unfavorable fractures

D-All of the above

149- Indications of close reduction are :

A-Nondisplaced favorable fractures

B- Mandibular fractures in children with developing dentition.

Condylar fractures(intracapsular fracture )

D-All of the above

150- Indications of open reduction are :

A-Unfavorable/unstable mandibular fractres/Multiple fractures of the facial bones

B-Fractures of an edentulous mandibule fracture with severe displacement and malunion

C-Delayed treatment with interposition of soft tissue that prevents closed reduction techniques to reapproximate the fragments

D-All of the above

151-Indication of Transosseous wiring :

A-Control of edentulous posterior fragment and edentulous mandibular fractures

B-Grossly comminuted fractures

C-Control of lower border when upper border has been fixed by conventional methods

D-All of the above

152-The treatment goals of condylar fractures:

A-To restore mandibular function, occlusion, prevent growth disturbances, and maintain symmetry

B-Must avoid ankylosis

C-Use short periods of IMF (7-14 days), then jaw opening exercises; in children under 3 years, immediate function necessary to prevent ankylosis

D-All of the above

153-Which methods of treatment are appropriate for reduction of a fractured mandibular angle in a dentate patient :

A-Intramaxillary fixation(IMF) using eyelet wires

B-IMF using arch bars

C-Mini bone plates

D-IMF using K-wires

154-Subconjunctival bleed with no posterior border indicates fracture of which bone:

A-Maxilla

B-Mandible

C-Zygoma

D-Nasal

155-The weakest part of mandible where fracture occurs :

A-Neck condyle

B-Angle of mandible

C-Canine fossa

D-Midline

156-The most common fracture of face is that of :

A-Mandible

B-Maxilla

C-Zygoma

D-Nasal bone

157-Sinus disease is best demonstrated by :

A-CTscan

B-Plain X-ray

C-Tomography

D-Ultrasound

158-Nasal pyramid consist of :

A-Nasal bones and Nasal septum

B-Frontal processes of maxilla

C-Lateral cartilages

D-All the above

159-Diplopia is caused by:

A-Hematoma or edema arround extraoccular muscle

B-Neuromuscular injury

C-Disruption of attachment of inferior rectus or inferior oblique muscle

D-All the above

160-Signs and Symptoms of LeFort I fracture :

A-Damaged teeth and soft tissues,swelling and bruising and deformity of alveolus

B-Crepitus over maxilla,ecchymosis in buccal vestibule and epistaxis

C-Malocclusion,maxilla mobility or Independent movement of fragments,altered sensation

D-All of the above

161- Signs and Symptoms of LeFort II fracture :

A-Midface crepitus,face lengthening and anterior open bite

B- Malocclusion, mobility of maxilla,bilateral epistaxis and infraorbital paresthesia

Ecchymoses: buccal vestibule, periorbital, subconjunctival ,orbital rim defects and paraesthesis (infra-orbital nerve)

D-All of the above

162- Signs and Symptoms of LeFort III fracture :

A-Bilateral periorbital edema , ecchymosis,step deformity palpated infraorbital, nasofrontal area and infraorbital paresthesia

B- Bilateral epistaxis,often medial canthal deformity,often unequal pupil height,face lengthening: “caved-in” or “donkey face”

Malocclusion: “open bite”,lateral orbital rim defect and ecchymoses: periorbital, subconjunctival

D-All of the above

163- LeFort Fractures were described by :

A-Wilson

B- Rene LeFort,1991.

Knight and North

D-Williams

164- The coronal or bi-temporal approach is used to expose :

The anterior cranial vault

B-The forehead

The apper and middle regions of the facial skeleton.

D-All of the above

165- Clinical sign that is always positive in fracture is

A-Crepitus

B-Tenderness

C-Abnormal mobility

D-All of the above

166-The most (common ) sign mandibular fracture is :

Malocclusion

Trismus

C-Deviation of the jaw on opening

D-Paraesthesia of the mental nerve

167-Which of them is not rigid osteosynthetic fixation

Osteosynthesis

Microplating

Screw plating

Wiring

168-Treatment of choice of a linear non-displaced fracture of the body of the mandible, with full compliment of teeth is

Kirschner wire

Circumferential wiring

External pin fixation

Interdental fixation

169-Which of the following condition is associated with anterior open bite

Unilateral condylar #

Bilateral condylar #

Maxillary fractures

Coronoid fracture

170-Fracture of mandible not involving dental arch is treated by :

Open reduction

Closed reduction

No treatment required

None of the above

171- In case of sub condylar fracture, the condyle move in

Anterior - lateral direction

Posterior - medial direction

Posterior- lateral direction

Anterior-medial direction

172-A 7-year-old boy presented with fracture of left sub condylar region with occlusion undisturbed, the treatment would be

Immobilization for 7 days

Immobilization for 14 days with intermittent active opening

No immobilization with restricted mouth opening for 10 days

D-No immobilization and active treatment

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