Oral Path Final Chapter 1-10

Which condition is NOT diagnosed through clinical appearance?
Compound odontoma
Black hairy tongue
Fordyce granules
Mandibular tori
Which condition is diagnosed through clinical appearance?
Traumatic bone cyst
Periapical cemento-osseous
Dysplasia
Unerupted mesiodens
Fordyce granules
Retrocuspid papillae are located on the
Palate
Floor of the mouth
Canine eminence
Gingival margin of the lingual aspect of mandibular cuspids
A lesion with a stemlike base is described as
Lobulated
Pedunculated
Macular
Sessile
Which papillae are elongated in the condition black hairy tongue?
Fungiform
Filiform
Foliate
Circumvallate
When formation of exudate is excessive, a drainage tract may develop through the injured tissue. This channel is termed
Emigration
Erythema
Leukocytosis
A fistula
Neutrophils constitute what percentage of the entire white blood cell population?
90%
65%
20%
5%
Excessive scarring in skin is termed
Healing by tertiary intention
A hematoma
Healing by primary intention
A keloid
Aspirin burn on the oral mucosa
requires a biopsy for diagnosis
Is painless
Caused by placing aspirin on the tooth with pain, causing necrotic tissue
Caused by ingestion of too many aspirin tablets
In the acute inflam. process, 2nd type of white blood cell to emigrate from the blood vessel into the injured tissue is
Lymphocyte
Plasma cell
Neutrophil
Macrophage
The breakdown of cellular adhesion between epithelial cells is termed
Anaphylaxis
Nikolsky sign
Acantholysis
Cell-mediated immunity
In which type of immune response do B-lymphocytes and antibodies play the predominant role?
Passive immunity
Humoral immunity
Immune complex
Cell-mediated immunity
Which is an example of type 1 hypersensitivity?
Serum sickness
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Asthma
Immune complexes between microorganisms and blood
A prodomal period begins
The day the ulcers erupt
1 to 2 days before the onset of ulcers
1 week before the onset of ulcers
7 to 10 days before ulcers erupt
Wickham striae is a term used to describe the oral mucosal lesions of
Erythema multiforme
Lichen planus
Frictional keratosis
Linea alba
Sjogren syndrome is a(n)
Type of langerhans cell disease
Form of apthous ulcers
Allergic reaction
Autoimmune disease that affects the salivary and lacrimal glands
Treatment for Pemphigus Vulgaris includes
Antiviral drugs
Antibiotics
Antihistimines
High doses of systemic corticosteroids
The diagnosis of Behcet syndrome requires which considerations?
A history of pemphigus vulgaris
A biopsy
The presence of all three manifestations
Two of the three principal manifestations
This explosively onset condition features target, iris, or bullseye lesions.
SLE
Contact dermatitis
Erythema Multiforme
Lichen Planus
The diagnosis of type of apthous ulcers is made on the basis of their clinical appearance, location, and a
Laboratory test
Radiographic examination
Therapeutic result
Patient history
Which of these conditions are related to heart valve damage?
Geographic tongue
Scarlet fever
Strawberry tongue
Rheumatic fever
Which condition is associated with scarlet fever?
Strawberry tongue
Scrofula
Median rhomboid glossitis
Black hairy tongue
The most common site(s) for oral lesions in tuberculosis is(are) the
Uvula & fauces
Floor of the mouth & mucobuccal folds
Gingiva
Tongue & palate
Which statement is NOT true about syphilis?
The antibody titer increases if treatment has been successful
The VDRL & FTA-ABS tests are commonly used to confirm the diagnosis
It is generally treated with penicillin
Dark-field examination may be used to diagnose syphilitic lesions on skin
Which condition does NOT contribute to the overgrowth of Candida Albicans?
Angioedema
Cancer chemotherapy
Dentures
Antibiotic therapy
The varicella-zoster virus causes a highly contagious disease in children termed
Measles
Mumps
Chickenpox
Shingles
Herpangina is caused by which virus
Coxsackievirus
Varicella-zoster virus
Epstein-Barr virus
Herpes simplex virus
In HIV infection, which test identifies the viral titer rather than circulating antibody?
PCR
Western blot
ELISA
VDRL
In herpes labialis, the amount of virus present is highest in the ______ stage.
Healing
Vesicle
Prodromal
Crusted
The unilateral eruption of vesicles along the distribution of a sensory nerve seen in this adult patient is a feature of
Herpes zoster or shingles
Varicella-zoster or chickenpox
Minor apthous ulcers
Recurrent intraoral herpes simplex
The lesions seen in this illustration most commonly appear in patients with HIV. What is the clinical diagnosis?
Apthous ulcer
Kaposi sarcoma
Lymphoma
Candidiasis
Which form of candidiasis is most asymptomatic?
Angular cheilitis
Chronic atrophic candidiasis
Erythematous
Pseudomembranous
An erythematous, often rhombus-shaped, flat-to-raised area on the midline of the posterior dorsal tongue describes
Hairy leukoplakia
Recurrent herpes simplex infection
Geographic tongue
Median rhomboid glossitis
Why is hairy leukoplakia a significant clinical finding in persons with HIV disease?
It may represent a malignancy of the tongue
Hairy leukoplakia may affect the function of the taste buds
Its presence suggests poor oral hygiene
It is considered a predictor of the developement of AIDS
Intraoral lesions of Kaposi sarcoma are often found in which two sites?
Uvula & posterior 1/3 of the tongue
Palate & gingiva
Gingiva & floor of the mouth
Labial mucosa & interdental papilla
Which epithelium-lined tract is a developmental anomaly located in the corners of the mouth?
Congenital lip pit
Fistula
Angular cheilitis
Commissural lip pit
The most common cyst observed in the oral cavity is caused by pulpal inflammation and is called a(n) ________ cyst.
Primordial
Radicular
Eruption
Dentigerous
On xrays, this radiolucent cyst is often heart shaped, caused by the anatomic Y shape of the area. Whats it called?
Globulomaxillary
Nasolabial
Median palatine
Nasopalatine canal
What pseudocyst filled with salivary gland tissue may be an extension of the sublingual gland?
Traumatic bone cyst
Lymphoepithelial cyst
Static bone cyst
Ranula
What is the most common supernumerary tooth?
Turner tooth
Mulberry molar
Mesiodens
Distomolar
Dens in dente is often seen in conjuction with
Supernumerary roots
Tuberculated premolars
A periapical lesion
Extra cusps
Which term defines a disturbance of the maturation of the enamel matrix?
Enamel hypocalcification
Premature birth
Mulberry molar
Turner tooth
Regional odontodysplasia is also referred to as
Supernumerary teeth
Taurodontism
Ghost teeth
Hypodontia
Which term describes a disorder caused by abnormalities in the genetic makeup transmitted from patent to offspring?
Developemental
Congenital
Inherited
Anomaly
Odontogenic keratocysts are a clinical component of
Gardner syndrome
Cherubism
Neurofibromatosis
Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome
Primitive germ cells have ____ chromosomes and are termed _________.
46; haploid
23; haploid
23;diploid
46; diploid
Most cases of down syndrome are associated with
Overproduction of progesterone
Smoking during pregnancy
Alcohol consumption during pregnancy
Late maternal age at the time of conception
The majority of patients with Turner Syndrome have a _______ phenotype and _________ chromosomes.
Female;45
Male;44
Female;46
Male;36
Cyclic neutropenia is characterized by
Severe ulcerative gingivitis or gingivostomatitis
Deletion on the long arm of chromosome 11 regions 14-21
Inherited as an autosomal recessive condition
Episodes that generally persist for 21 to 27 days
How will radiographs of a patient with Cherubism appear?
Many unerupted supernumerary teeth throughout
Reveals a typical soap-bubble or multilocular appearance
Calcified structures in maxilla
Shorted roots and taurodontism
A patient with Ellis-van Creveld syndrome will
Show polydactyly on the radial side of the forearm
Lack an anterior maxillary vestibular sulcus
Be a little person
Lack a posterior mandibular sulcus
Telangiectasias of the oral mucosa for a pt with hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia will be prominent in which area
Tip and anterior dorsum of the tongue
Palate
Gingiva
Buccal mucosa
Includes multiple melanotic macular pigmentations of the skin and mucosa, associated with gastrointestinal polyposis
Olser-Rendu-Parkes Weber syndrome
Gorlin syndrome
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
Van der Woude syndrome
Snow-capped amelogenesis imperfecta is a variation of type _____ amelogenesis imperfecta.
1; hypoplastic
2;hypocalcified
3;hypomaturation
4;hypoplastic-hypomaturation
Frontal bossing, depressed nasal bridge, protuberant lips, and almost complete lack of scalp hair are characteristics of
Dentin dysplasia
Hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia
Hypophosphatasia
Hypophosphatemic vitamin D-resistant rickets
A benign tumor of bone is called
Osteogenic sarcoma
Osteoma
Chondroma
Carcinoma
A papilloma is a _____ tumor derived from ________ epithelium.
Malignant, odontogenic
Malignant, squamous
Benign; squamous
Benign; salivary gland
Squamous cell carcinoma of the oral epithelium usually metastasizes first to which site?
Spleen
Liver
Lymph Nodes
Lungs
"Keratin pearls" are a characteristic feature of
Basal cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Monomorphic adenoma
Pleomorphic adenoma
Basal cell carcinoma is a ______ tumor that ______ in the oral cavity.
Benign; does not occur
Benign; occurs
Malignant; does not occur
Malignant; occurs
Which is the most common salivary gland neoplasm?
Monomorphic adenoma
Pleomorphic adenoma
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
Adenoid cystic carcinoma
Which is the most common malignant salivary gland tumor found in children?
Pleomorphic adenoma
Monomorphic adenoma
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
Adenoid cystic carcinoma
An ameloblastoma
May cause expansion of bone
Is commonly known as Pindborg tumor
Is a benign, encapsulated tumor
Occurs exclusively in the mandible
Ghost cells are a characteristic of which lesion?
Ameloblastoma
Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
Calcifying odontogenic cyst
A compound odontoma
Appears as a radiolucent mass surrounded by a thin radiopaque halo
Appears as a cluster of miniature teeth surrounded by a radiolucent halo
Usually occurs in the posterior mandible
A mass of enamel, dentin, and pulp that does not resemble a normal tooth
The central cemento ossifying fibroma is most likely derived from which cells?
Cells of the periodontal ligament
Osteoblasts
Odontoblasts
Ameloblasts
A lipoma
Occurs most often in men over 60
Is found most commonly intraorally on the tongue
A yellowish mass surfaced by a thin layer of epithelium
Is a tumor of the peripheral nerve tissue
Which statement about hemangiomas is true?
Response to trauma & abnormal proliferation of blood vessels during healing
Variably sized, deep red or blue lesions that do not blanch with pressure
More common in boys than girls
The gingiva is the most common location
Kaposi sarcoma is
Eca malignant striated muscle tumor
Most commonly seen intraorally on the tongue
Seen only in association with HIV infection
Caused by a human herpesvirus
Which statement about melanoma is true?
Primary malignant melanoma of the oral cavity is rare
Most malignant melanomas arise on the skin as a result of chemical exposure
The most common intraoral location is the tongue
It has a benign counterpart known as benign melanoma
Which statement is true of periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia?
Older lesions are primarily radiopaque
Teeth in the area are usually not vital
The lesion is painful and occurs most often in the posterior maxilla
It is a neoplasm
Surgical treatment would most likely be recommended for a patient with _______ dysplasia.
Periapical cemento-osseous
Florid cemento-osseous
Focal cemento-osseous
Fibrous
Characteristics of monostotic fribrous dysplasia include that
It is commonly diagnosed in middle-aged women
It involves multiple bones
It involves a painful swelling or bulging of the buccal plate
The expansion may lead to malocclusion, tipping, or displacement of teeth
Paget disease of bone
Results in shrinkage of affected bone
May reveal a cotton-wool appearance on radiographs
Is painless
Typically occurs in childrem under the age of 18
Numerous gritty pieces of soft & hard tissue containing firbous connectice tissue is a feature of what condition?
Ossifying fibroma
Florid cemento-osseous dysplasia
Central cementifying fibroma
Focal cemento-osseous dysplasia
Giant cell granulomas located in the gingiva & alveolar mucosa are termed ____; in the maxilla or mandible they are ____
Central; peripheral
Peripheral; peripheral
Peripheral;central
Central;central
Osteomalacia is a disease of the bone that develops over a long period as a result of iron deficiency.
True
False
Osteomalacia may cause delayed tooth eruption & periodontal disease
True
False
"Ground glass" is the classic radiographic description of
Florid cemento-osseous
Dysplasia
Fibrous dysplasia
Paget disease of bone
What is the difference between diagnosis of periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia & florid cemento-osseous dysplasia?
Symptoms may vary from asypmtomatic to extremely painful
The two conditions have various radiographic appearance
Periapical COD affects only black females; florid affects all ethnicities
Florid COD affects more than 1 quad of the max. & mand. Including posterior
Characteristics of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia include the following EXCEPT one. Which is the exception?
Seen in association with skin lesions
Occurs in children under 10 years of age
Male predilection
Most cases are asymptomatic
What is the most common cause of hyperpituitarism?
Hyperglycemia
Pituitary adenoma
Hypercalcemia
Hepatomegaly
What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?
An autoimmune disorder
Pituitary gland disease
Benign & malignant tumors
Hyperplasia of the gland
Which of these statements about Diabetes 1 is true?
It can be complicated by polydipsia, polyuria, & polyphagia
The onset is gradual & usually diagnosed between ages 45 and 50
About 30% of patient with diabetes have type 1
It is also called non-insulin-dependent
Pernicious anemia is caused by a deficiency of instrinsic factor, which is secreted by
The adrenal glands
The gallbladder
Parietal cells of the stomach
Beta cells of the pancreas
A megaloblastic anemia is characterized by red blood cells that are
Macrocytic and have nuclei
Microcytic and have nuclei
Hyperchromic and macrocytic
Hypochromis and macrocytic
What is thalassemia?
Caused by an increase in the number of circulating red blood cells
Caused by a severe depression of bone marrow activity
A disorder of hemoglobin synthesis
Caused by abnormal hemoglobin in red blood cells
Leukopenia most commonly involves
Basophils
Eosinophils
Monocytes
Neutrophils
This is a malignant neoplasm of the hematopoietic stem cells characterized by abnormal amount of white blood cells
DiGeorge syndrome
Thrombocytopenic purpura
Hemophilia
Leukemia
Plummer-Vinson syndrome can develop as a result of long-standing _____ anemia.
Aplastic
Thalassemia
Iron-deficiency
Pernicious
The temporomandibular joint (TMJ) is the articulation between the condyle of the mandible and the
Spine of the sphenoid bone
External acoustic meatus
Glenoid fossa of the temporal bone
Zygomatic process of the temporal bone
Clicking and popping most commonly reflect
Trismus
Malocclusion
Disc displacement with reduction
Parafunctional habits such as bruxism and clenching
The purpose of the synovial fluid is to
Seperate forces resulting from movement
Govern mandibular movement
Divide the space in the upper and lower compartments
Provide nourishment & lubrication
The most common systemic conditions that affect the TMJ are
Ankylosing spondylitis
Gout & Reiter syndrome
Rheumatoid arthritis & juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
Sjogren syndrome & scleroderma
The TMJ exhibits ginglymoarthrodial, or _________, movement.
Maximal interdigitation
Closing
Opening
Rotational and translational
__________ ankylosis is the most common type seen in the TMJ.
Bony extraarticular
Fibrotic extraarticular
Bony intraarticular
Fibrotic intraarticular
Children are __ prone to TMJ ankylosis because of greater osteogenic potential and __ developement of the joint meniscus
Less; less
Less; more
More; less
More; more
The three elevator muscles of mastication that close the mandible are the masseter, medial pterygoid, and the _______.
Mylohyoid
Anterior digastric
Temporalis
Lateral pterygoid
Which term describes the inability to fully open the mouth?
Crepitus
Fusion
Articulation
Trismus
What is the most likely cause of TMD?
Third molar extractions
Malocclusion
Trauma
Stress
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