DES C_ParaClinic (3) Prepared : CHILLY

A 34-year-old African American man presents with mild dyspnea on exertion and joint discomfort in his knees, wrists, and ankles. He also has a fever and red tender rash on his shins. Physical examination reveals hepatosplenomegaly, generalized lymphadenopathy, and tender erythematous nodules on his legs. CXR shows bilateral symmetric hilar adenopathy. Which of the following laboratory findings is not characteristic of this condition?

A 34-year-old Caucasian man presents to your office with a several day history of difficulty walking. He also describes some "funny" sensations in his feet. He denies any recent skin rash, diarrhea, or joint pain. His past medical history is significant only for a recent mild respiratory infection. He visited his friends in Connecticut one month ago. He smokes one pack of cigarettes a day and admits to occasional IV drug use. He is not sexually active. His temperature is 36°C (98°F), heart rate is 90/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg. Chest examination is unremarkable. Abdomen is soft and non-tender. The liver span is 8 cm and the spleen is not palpable. Cranial nerves II-XII are intact. Muscle strength is reduced in the lower extremities but well preserved in the upper extremities. Lower extremity sensation is decreased. Stroking the soles of the feet elicits extension of the great toe. Which of the following is most likely to diagnose this patient's condition?

A 34-year-old female comes to your office for an infertility evaluation. She has been having irregular menstrual cycles for the past five years, stating that her menstrual periods come on average once every two to three months. Her past medical history is not significant. She is not taking any medications currently. Her blood pressure is 145/96 mmHg and heart rate is 72/min. Her BMI is 33 kg/m2. Physical examination reveals facial acne and excessive hair growth over the upper lip and chin. Which of the following is the most likely pathologic finding in this patient?

A 34-year-old G2P1 at 31 weeks gestation presents to labor and delivery with complaints of vaginal bleeding earlier in the day that resolved on its own. She denies any leakage of fluid or uterine contractions. She reports good fetal movement. In her last pregnancy, she had a low transverse cesarean delivery for breech presentation at term. She denies any medical problems. Her vital signs are normal and electronic external monitoring reveals a reactive fetal heart rate tracing and no uterine contractions. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 34-year-old immigrant from Mexico presents following an episode of massive hemoptysis. He describes bringing up large amounts of bright red, foamy sputum. He denies any recent trauma. On physical examination, the patient is agitated and has difficulty speaking. His blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg and his heart rate is 110/min. On physical examination, breath sounds are audible bilaterally. You immediately initiate intravenous infusion of crystalloid. Portable chest x-ray shows opacity in the right upper lobe. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?

A 34-year-old male is recovering from head trauma sustained in a motor vehicle accident. He is currently in the intensive care unit on mechanical ventilation. His most recent arterial blood gas analysis shows: pH 7.54, PaO2 124 mmHg, PaCO2 20 mmHg, Bicarbonate 17 mEq/L. Which of the following additional findings do you most expect in this patient?

A 34-year-old man complains of severe abdominal pain. He describes the pain as "sharp" and "unbearable." It is located in the lower left abdomen and radiates to the perineum. He has vomited twice since the pain began. He denies dysuria. On exam, he is afebrile. He cannot lie still on the examination table due to his discomfort. Mucus membranes appear slightly dry. Lungs are clear to auscultation. Heart sounds are normal and there are no murmurs or gallops. His abdomen is soft and non-tender to palpation. Inspection and palpation of his genitalia is unrevealing. Extremities have no cyanosis, clubbing, or edema. Which of the following is the best test to diagnose this patient's condition?

A 34-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle collision. He was the restrained front passenger. He has had epigastric pain since the accident. He is hemodynamically stable and has no obvious injury or other complaints. An x-ray of the abdomen shows retroperitoneal air. Which of the following is the most appropriate test to confirm the diagnosis?

A 34-year-old man presents to your office for a routine check-up. He has no current complaints except for being "a little stressed out." He works as an executive officer and travels a lot within the country. He does not smoke and consumes alcohol occasionally. He currently takes no medications. His family history is insignificant. His blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg and heart rate is 80/min. Chest examination is unremarkable. The liver span is 8 cm and the spleen is not palpable. There is no cervical lymphadenopathy. Laboratory studies show: Erythrocyte count 5 million/mm3, Hemoglobin 14.0 g/dL, Leukocyte count 8,000/mm3, Platelet count 80,000/mm3. Which of the following is the best initial test for this patient?

A 34-year-old unrestrained male driver is brought to the ER after a motor vehicle accident. His cervical spine is immobilized. At the scene of the accident, his blood pressure is 80/40 mm Hg and heart rate is 130/min. He is able to communicate and follows simple commands. Lungs are clear to auscultation. Abdominal wall ecchymosis is present. Abdomen is mildly distended. Bowel sounds are decreased. Neck veins are collapsed. After two liters of intravenous fluids, his blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?

A 34-year-old white woman is treated for a UTI with amoxicillin. Initially she improves, but 5 days after beginning treatment, she develops recurrent fever, abdominal bloating, and diarrhea with six to eight loose stools per day. What is the best diagnostic test to confirm your diagnosis?

A 34-year-old woman complains of occasional diarrhea and crampy lower abdominal pain. She says that at times her symptoms hamper her performance in important business meetings. The pain sometimes occurs after meals but is not always preceded by eating. The pain is often accompanied by diarrhea with small amounts of stool and mucus. Her past medical history is significant for bleeding hemorrhoids. Her mother died of colon cancer. Which of the following findings is most likely in this patient?

A 34-year-old woman has recurrent fainting spells induced by fasting. She also reports palpitations, trembling, diaphoresis, and confusion prior to the syncopal episodes. She has relief of symptoms with the administration of glucose. Which of the following findings is most consistent with the diagnosis of an insulinoma?

A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital because of septic shock secondary to a urinary tract infection. In the intensive care unit, she receives intravenous fluids and antibiotics. Her initial ECG shows sinus tachycardia but is otherwise unremarkable. Chest x-ray shows no abnormalities. An internal jugular vein catheter is placed on the right side using ultrasound guidance to locate the vein. The patient is properly draped, and the skin is cleaned with chlorhexidine solution. Blood is freely aspirated from all ports after insertion. Vital signs are stable, and oxygenation is maintained. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

A 34-year-old woman presents with hypertension, generalized weakness, and polyuria. Her electrolyte panel is significant for hypokalemia. Which of the following is the best initial test given her presentation and laboratory findings?

A 34-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2 at term comes to the labor and delivery ward with a gush of blood, abdominal pain, and irregular, painful contractions. Her prenatal course was significant for her being Rh negative and antibody negative. Her temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), pulse is 110/minute, blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and respirations are 12/minute. Abdominal examination shows a tender abdomen and cervical examination shows the cervix to be closed and long with a significant amount of blood in the vagina. The fetal heart rate is in the 170s with moderate to severe variable decelerations with contractions. The diagnosis of placental abruption is made and an emergent cesarean delivery is performed. To determine the correct amount of RhoGAM (anti-D immune globulin) that should be given, which of the following is the most appropriate laboratory test to send?

A 35-year-old alcoholic man is admitted with nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain that radiates to the back. He has had several previous episodes of pancreatitis presenting with the same symptoms. Which of the following laboratory values suggests a poor prognosis in this patient?

A 35-year-old bank executive is brought to the emergency department after the sudden onset of a severe (10/10) headache, followed by a brief period of unconsciousness. His headache started while he was at a meeting and shortly thereafter, he vomited and lost consciousness. He regained consciousness soon afterwards, but was quite confused and irritable. His blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min, temperature is 37.2°C (99°F), and respirations are 16/min. The physical examination reveals a normal pupil size, no congestion or inflammation of the eye, and no focal neurological deficits. The ECG reveals nonspecific ST and T wave changes. The CT scan shows a subarachnoid hemorrhage. What is the most likely expected electrolyte abnormality with the patient's disease?

A 35-year-old Caucasian male is being evaluated for poor exercise tolerance and muscle weakness. He has no past medical history. His blood pressure ranges from 175-185 mmHg systolic and 105-115 mmHg diastolic on repeat measurement. His heat rate is 78-95/min His serum chemistry is significant for blood glucose of 95 mg/dL serum creatinine of 0.7mg/dL serum Na of 146 mEq/L and serum K of 2.4 mEq/L. CT scan of the abdomen reveals a 3 cm mass in the left adrenal gland. Which of the following additional findings would you expect in this patient? ( Plasma renin activity, Serum aldosterone, Serum bicarbonate )

A 35-year-old female complains of nipple discharge. The discharge is from both breasts, brown in color and occurs intermittently. She has two children who are 5 and 8 years old. She has not been recently pregnant. Her last menstrual period was one week ago. She describes no other symptoms. Examination shows normal breasts without palpable lumps or nipple abnormalities. Brownish discharge is expressed from the nipples, and it is guaiac negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 35-year-old male complains of substernal chest pain aggravated by inspiration and relieved by sitting up. Lung fields are clear to auscultation, and heart sounds are somewhat distant. Chest x-ray shows an enlarged cardiac silhouette. Which of the following is the best next step in evaluation?

A 35-year-old male is brought to the emergency room with headaches and confusion for the past 2 days. He denies any focal weakness or sensory symptoms. His past medical history is significant for HIV and hepatitis C infections for which he is not receiving therapy. The remainder of his medical history is unobtainable due to his mental status. On physical exam, he has a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), a blood pressure of 140/86 mm Hg, a pulse of 96/min, and respirations of 16/min. Mild icterus is present. The patient's oropharynx is clear and his neck is supple and without rigidity. Examination of his chest and abdomen are unremarkable. Neurologic examination reveals no focal deficits. Laboratory studies show: Complete blood count:Hemoglobin 7.6 g/L, MCV 85 fl, Reticulocytes 8.1%, Platelet count 80,000/mm3, Leukocyte count 3,500/mm3. Chemistry panel: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 30 mg/dL, Serum creatinine 2.2 mg/dL, Serum calcium 10.0 mg/dL, Blood glucose 98 mg/dL. Liver studies:Total bilirubin 3.6 mg/dL, Direct bilirubin 1.0 mg/dL, Alkaline phosphatase 120 U/L, Aspartate aminotransferase (SGOT) 178 U/L, Alanine aminotransferase (SGPT) 255 U/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 35-year-old male with severe persistent bronchial asthma requiring multiple medications presents complaining of weight gain over the past several months despite no changes in appetite, diet, or activity level. He denies alcohol, tobacco, and drug use and has no other significant past medical history. On physical examination, he has a blood pressure of 143/92 mm Hg, a heart rate of 65/min, a temperature of 98.7°F, and a respiratory rate of 16/min. There is moderate supraclavicular fullness, and his skin is thin with areas of bruising and acne. Neurologic exam reveals decreased proximal muscle strength. Which of the following findings is most likely to also be present in this patient?

A 35-year-old man presents with gastrointestinal complaints for the last 4 months. He currently has fever, bloody diarrhea, nausea, and severe abdominal cramps. He has lost 20 lb (9kg), and has also been feeling fatigued and anorexic. His temperature is 37.3°C (99.1° F), blood pressure is 110/74 mm Hg, pulse is 98/min, and respirations are 22/min. Physical examination reveals tenderness in the right lower quadrant. Digital rectal examination is positive for occult blood. His blood work shows: WBC 11,600 /mm3, Hemoglobin 9.6 g/dl, Hematocrit 30%, Platelets 214,000 /mm3. Flexible sigmoidoscopy reveals larger areas of ulceration within the colon. What is the best next step in the management of this patient?

A 35-year-old man who has had type 1 diabetes for many years undergoes a pancreas transplant with enteric drainage (connection of the donor duodenum to the recipient jejunum). Postoperatively, he has increased pain near his pancreas transplant. Which of the following should be performed to confirm a diagnosis of rejection?

A 35-year-old white female slipped and fell on her side 2 days ago while she was going down the stairs from her house. Since that time, she has been having pain in her right shoulder. She describes this as an ache, which has been about the same over the last couple of days. She has tried ibuprofen, with only slight relief. She denies smoking and alcohol use. Examination suggests a shoulder sprain. You order an x-ray and see a normal shoulder but incidentally a 1.5cm coin-shaped lesion, in the outer side of right lung with well-aerated surrounding lung. She denies any respiratory complaints. What is the next best step regarding her lung lesion?

A 35-year-old woman presents to the physician's office after she palpated a lump in her right breast. She has no other complaints. She has not seen a doctor for 10 years. She regularly performs breast self-exams after menses. She has no significant past medical history. Her mother died of breast cancer at the age of 40. Breast examination shows a 1 x 1 cm, rubbery, firm, freely mobile round mass in the upper, outer quadrant of the right breast; no axillary lymph nodes are palpable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 36-year-old female complains of inability to lose weight despite low-calorie diet and daily exercise. She has also noticed that she is cold intolerant. She is wearing a jacket even though it is summer. She also reports constipation and hair loss. These symptoms have been worsening over the past 2 to 3 months. An elevated TSH and low total and free T4 confirm your suspicion of hypothyroidism. You suspect the etiology of this patient’s hypothyroidism to be autoimmune thyroiditis. What is the best test to confirm the diagnosis of autoimmune thyroiditis?

A 36-year-old forest worker is brought to the emergency department after being hit by a falling tree, 3 hours ago. He has pain in the left subscapular region. His temperature is 36C (96.9F), blood pressure is 120/76 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination shows aggravation of the pain in the left subscapular region with taking a deep breath and with anteroposterior and lateral chest compression. He has ecchymoses on the anterior and posterior chest and on the upper abdominal wall. His abdomen is vaguely tender to palpation in the left upper quadrant (LUQ) and he has left costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness. Examination otherwise shows no abnormalities. An x-ray film of the chest shows posterior factures of the 8th, 9th and 1Oth ribs on the left. An x-ray film of the abdomen shows blunting of the left psoas shadow. Abdominal ultrasound shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show: Hb 15.3 g/dL, Hematocrit 43%, WBC 6,200/mm3, Urinary sediment Many erythrocytes; WBC 4-5/hpf; oxalate crystals. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 36-year-old G3P2002 with an IUP at 38 weeks presents for shortness of breath. Shortness of breath has been gradually getting worse for the past 2 weeks. The patient states that she now needs to sleep with three pillows to feel like she can breathe. Vital sign: BP, 135/80 mm Hg; P, 78 beats/min; R, 26 breaths/min; T, 98.6°F. She said: chest pain: Negative, cough: Negative, hemoptysis: Negative, fever: Negative, edema: Positive, fetal movement: Positive, contractions: Negative, vaginal bleeding: Negative, leakage of fluid: Negative. Physical Exam: cardiovascular system (CVS): S1S2 +Regular Rate and Rhythm (RRR) no murmurs, lungs: + Crackles bilaterally, Abdominal: gravid, Extremities: 2+ edema bilaterally. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?

A 36-year-old male comes to the emergency department because of worsening right lower quadrant (RLQ) abdominal pain. One week ago he was started on cephalexin for furunculosis. He has had type I diabetes mellitus for 1Oyears and is on insulin. His temperature is 38.83°C (101.9°F). Examination shows multiple furuncles on the inner side of both thighs; most of them are in regression. Abdominal examination shows tenderness on deep palpation in RLQ without rebound or guarding; no masses are palpated; psoas sign is positive; bowel sounds are present. Rectal examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 13.0 g/L, Leukocyte count 17,500/mm3. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 36-year-old male patient, who has a history of Marfan's syndrome, presents with sudden onset of severe central tearing chest pain radiating to his back. The pain is 9/10 in severity and is unrelated to exertion. He denies any history of alcohol or tobacco use. Measurement of his BP shows a difference of 35 mmHg between his two arms. Chest auscultation reveals clear lung sounds and a mid-systolic click. What is the most appropriate next diagnostic step in the management of this patient?

A 36-year-old man is in your intensive care unit on mechanical ventilation following thoracotomy for a 24-hour-old esophageal perforation. His WBC is markedly elevated, and he is febrile, hypotensive, and coagulopathic. His NG tube fills with blood and continues to bleed. Which of the following findings on upper endoscopy would be most suspicious for stress gastritis?

A 36-year-old man presents to your office for a routine pre-employment physical. He has no complaints except for occasional morning headaches. His father died suddenly at the age of 54. The patient's blood pressure is 175/103 mmHg in the right arm and 180/105 mmHg in the left arm. His heart rate is 82/min. His lungs are clear bilaterally and his heart sounds are normal. Bilateral, non-tender, upper abdominal masses are palpated on exam. His hemoglobin level is 15.2 g/dL and creatinine concentration is 0.8 mg/dL. Which of the following is most likely to diagnose this patient's condition?

A 36-year-old man sustains a gunshot wound to the left buttock. He is hemodynamically stable. There is no exit wound, and an x-ray of the abdomen shows the bullet to be located in the right lower quadrant. Which of the following is most appropriate in the management of his suspected rectal injury?

A 36-year-old woman comes to your office complaining of a 12-month history of inter-menstrual bleeding and heavy menses. She has had type-2 diabetes for the past 4-years, managed with glipizide and metformin. She has no family history of gynecological malignancies. She does not use tobacco or alcohol. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F), and blood pressure is 126/76 mm Hg. Her BMI is 30 Kg/m2. Physical examination shows pale mucus membranes. Pelvic examination is within normal limits; no vaginal lesions are noted. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Her hemoglobin is 10.8 g/dl and platelet count is 223,000/mm3. Coagulation studies are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 36-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after she jumped from the second floor of a burning building. On arrival examination shows an unconscious woman with blood coming from her nose and with an open tibial fracture of left leg. Her eyes are closed and her pupils are equal and responsive bilaterally. She makes muffled sounds and responds to pain by opening the eyes and moving all the limbs. After the initial resuscitation, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 36-year-old woman presents to the physician's office after she palpated a lump in her right breast. She has no other complaints. She has not seen a doctor for 10 years. She regularly performs breast self-exams after menses. She has no significant past medical history. Her mother died of breast cancer at the age of 40. Breast examination shows a 1 x 1 cm rubbery, firm, freely mobile, round mass in the upper, outer quadrant of the right breast. No axillary lymph nodes are palpable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 37-year-old male is being evaluated after a motor vehicle accident. He complains of right sided chest pain. Physical examination reveals mild bruising over the right chest wall, and is otherwise unremarkable. Chest x-ray shows no rib fractures but a solitary round lesion is seen in the right upper lobe of the lung. Upon further questioning the patient denies recent weight loss or appetite change. He has never smoked cigarettes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of his lung lesion?

A 37-year-old pregnant woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic hypertension is 35 weeks’ pregnant. Which of the following is the best test to screen for fetal well-being?

A 37-year-old woman presents for evaluation of abnormal liver chemistries. She has long-standing obesity (current BMI 38) and has previously taken anorectic medications but not for the past several years. She takes no other medications and has not used parenteral drugs or had high risk sexual exposure. On examination, her liver span is 13 cm; she has no spider angiomas or splenomegaly. Several sets of liver enzymes have shown transaminases two to three times normal. Bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase are normal. Hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis C antibody are normal, as are serum iron and total iron-binding capacity. Which of the following is the likely pathology on liver biopsy?

A 38-year-old immigrant from Latin America sustained a third-degree burn in the lateral aspect of her lower leg when she was 14. The burn was untreated. Ever since the incident, she has had shallow ulcerations at the scar site that heal and break down all the time. In the past few months she has developed an indolent, dirty-looking, deeper ulcer at the site, with "heaped up" tissue growth around the edges. The ulcer is steadily growing and showing no signs of healing. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?

A 38-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of the sudden onset of severe abdominal pain. The pain started one hour ago in the epigastrium but now it is mostly localized to the lower abdomen. She has some nausea but denies any vomiting. Her last menstrual period (LMP) was 25 days ago. Her temperature is 36.8C (98.1F), blood pressure is 160/90 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 25/min. The abdomen is tender on palpation with prominent guarding and positive rebound. There is no shifting dullness, and bowel sounds are absent. Laboratory studies show: Hb 13.1 g/dl, Hct 43%, WBC 10,900/mm3. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 39-year-old male with a prior history of myocardial infarction complains of yellow bumps on his elbows and buttocks. Yellow-colored cutaneous plaques are noted in those areas. The lesions occur in crops and have a surrounding reddish halo. Which of the following is the best next step in evaluation of this patient?

A 39-year-old woman comes to the office and complains of double vision. She feels "weak all over," especially at the end of the day. She had the same complaints 8 months ago that persisted for several weeks, but she didn't see a doctor because she had no insurance then. She has no past medical history. Her mother has rheumatoid arthritis, and her brother has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Her vital signs are normal. She has diplopia and mild ptosis. Her blood profile, CBC and thyroid tests are within normal limits. Electromyography and repetitive nerve stimulation reveals a decremental response in compound action potentials. Her acetylcholine receptor antibody test is positive. Which of the following tests should be ordered next?

A 4-week-old infant is brought to the office due to several episodes of vomiting over the past week. The episodes have progressively become more frequent and forceful, but the vomitus never contains any blood or bile. The infant has been breastfed since birth. His vital signs are stable, and he is afebrile. An olive-shaped mass is palpated just to the right of the umbilicus, and peristaltic waves are seen in the upper abdomen. Lab studies reveal a sodium level of 135 mEq/L, potassium level of 3.3 mEq/L, chloride level of 92 mEq/L and bicarbonate level of 30 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient?

A 4-week-old male infant is brought to the office due to several episodes of projectile vomiting for the last few days. The vomitus contains milk and doesn't contain bile or blood. The child's appetite has increased for the last few days. He has been fed with goat's milk since birth, but doesn't seem to tolerate it anymore for the last few days. He vomits a few minutes after feedings. He appears dehydrated, and abdominal examination reveals no mass. Blood tests reveal macrocytosis. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 4-year-old boy falls from the jungle gym at preschool. He sustains minor abrasions and contusions, and is taken care of by the school nurse. His parents take him that same afternoon to his regular pediatrician and demand "a thorough check-up" for possible internal injuries. The pediatrician complies, and a complete physical examination is normal. His hemoglobin is 14 g/dL, and a urinalysis shows the presence of microhematuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 4-year-old boy from India presents with weakness. His parents note that he has been looking increasingly pale. Hemoglobin electrophoresis demonstrates an abnormal hemoglobin species. Genetic analysis indicates that the patient has the substitution of a valine for a glutamine in the sixth position of the betahemoglobin chain. Which of the following will most likely be seen on his blood smear?

A 4-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his worried mother. She notes that he urinates 10 times a day and is always drinking water. She also reports that despite eating more than either of his brothers did at the same age, he is not gaining any weight. Which of the following human leukocyte antigen (HLA) types is associated with the most likely diagnosis for this child?

A 4-year-old boy is seen 1 hour after ingestion of a lye drain cleaner. No oropharyngeal burns are noted. The CXR is normal, but the patient continues to complain of significant chest pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his management?

A 4-year-old boy, recently adopted through an international adoption service, is noted to have intermittent watery diarrhea, nausea, belching, and abdominal pain. His weight is less than the fifth percentile for his age. Which of the following studies would be most helpful in making the diagnosis?

A 4-year-old child has mental retardation, shortness of stature, brachydactyly (especially of the fourth and fifth digits), and obesity with round facies and short neck. The child is followed by an ophthalmologist for subcapsular cataracts, and has previously been noted to have cutaneous and subcutaneous calcifications, as well as perivascular calcifications of the basal ganglia. This patient is most likely to have which of the following features?

A 4-year-old child is brought to the emergency department after he ingested liquid oven cleaner. His vital signs are stable. He is crying and drooling with blood-tinged secretions. His lips and chin are swollen and erythematous. His clothes are contaminated with the material. His breathing appears normal. His lungs are clear. Based on these findings, what is the best next step in the management of this patient?

A 4-year-old child is observed to hold his eyelids open with his fingers and to close one eye periodically, especially in the evening. He has some trouble swallowing his food. He usually appears sad, although he laughs often enough. He can throw a ball, and he runs well. Which of the following is most likely to aid in the diagnosis?

A 4-year-old child manifests symptoms of fever, sore throat, and swollen lymph nodes. The spleen tip is palpable. Throat culture and rapid slide (Monospot) test results are negative. The next logical diagnostic procedure would involve which of the following?

A 4-year-old girl was diagnosed of left-side otitis media about 10 days ago and was prescribed oral amoxicillin, 40 mg/kg/day for 7 days. She has since developed bloody diarrhea with mucus, crampy abdominal pain, and fever. On physical examination, her temperature is 39.4 C (102.9 F), pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 16/min. She has normal bowel sounds and is diffusely tender to palpation. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in diagnosis?

A 40-year-old alcoholic male is being treated for tuberculosis, but he has not been compliant with his medications. He complains of increasing weakness, fatigue, weight loss, and nausea over the preceding three weeks. He appears thin, and his blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg. There is increased pigmentation over the elbows and in the palmar creases. Cardiac examination is normal. Which of the following is the best next step in evaluation?

A 40-year-old black male presents with dyspnea and tachypnea of sudden onset. He says that he was diagnosed with deep venous thrombosis (DVT) of the lower extremities three times before. Ventilation/perfusion scan reveals mismatched perfusion defect. Venous ultrasonography is positive for DVT. You suspect that inherited predisposition to hypercoagulation may be present. Which of the following is the most common form of such a predisposition?

A 40-year-old female presents to your office complaining of the pain in her right hip. She denies trauma and says that the pain began two weeks ago and gradually increased. Her past medical history is significant for systemic lupus erythematosus diagnosed seven years ago. Her current medications include prednisone, hydroxychloroquine, and lansoprazole. There is no local tenderness on physical examination and the range of motion of the right hip is normal. Hip radiograph is normal. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?

A 40-year-old female presents with abdominal discomfort. The discomfort is localized to the center of the upper abdomen and is not related to meals or fatty food. She has a history of similar symptoms. She has not had gastrointestinal bleeding, fatigue, dysphagia, or weight loss. Her mother has a history of gastric ulcer. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Complete physical examination is unremarkable. Stool for heme occult is negative. Complete blood count and serum chemistries are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 40-year-old G3P2012 presents for her well-woman examination. She has had two vaginal deliveries and her largest baby weighed 4000 g. She had a postpartum bilateral tubal ligation. Her menstrual cycles are regular every 28 days and last 5 days. She states that with cough she may occasionally lose some urine; otherwise she has no complaints. She denies any medical problems. On examination she weighs 56 kg and her blood pressure is 132/81 mmHg. What type of speculum would be most appropriate to use when performing this patient’s Pap test?

A 40-year-old male comes to the office because of progressive knee and shoulder pain, which he describes as 5/10 in intensity and started 6 months ago. He has no other medical problems, except for newly diagnosed diabetes. He admits to "chain smoking" for "all his life" and drinks 1-2 bottles of beer a night. He is faithful to his wife. His mother died of "blood cancer" when he was 3-years-old. His father also has diabetes mellitus. His temperature is 37°C (98.6° F), pulse is 86/min, blood pressure is 134/86 mmHg, and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination reveals slightly swollen and tender knee joints. Mild hepatomegaly is present on abdominal examination. What is the best next step in the management of this patient?

A 40-year-old male comes to the physician complaining of diarrhea with pale, voluminous, foul-smelling stools that are difficult to flush. He has had this problem sporadically for years, but has neglected medical care. He also has severe, intermittent, epigastric pain lasting 15 to 30 minutes after eating. He admits to chronic alcohol consumption. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the best test to confirm fat malabsorption in this patient?

A 40-year-old man with long-standing alcohol abuse complains of abdominal swelling, which has been progressive over several months. He has a history of gastrointestinal bleeding. On physical examination, there are spider angiomas and palmar erythema. Abdominal collateral vessels are seen around the umbilicus. There is shifting dullness, and bulging flanks are noted. Which of the following is the most important first step in the patient’s evaluation?

A 40-year-old obese woman, mother of five children, presents with progressive jaundice that she first noticed 4 weeks ago. She has a total bilirubin of 22 mg/dL, with 16 mg/dL direct (conjugated) and 6 mg/dL indirect (unconjugated). Her transaminases (AST and ALT) are minimally elevated, but her alkaline phosphatase is about 6 times the upper limit of normal. She has no anemia or occult blood in the stools. She has a history of multiple episodes of colicky right upper quadrant abdominal pain, brought about by the ingestion of fatty food; the last episode occurred a few days before her jaundice was first noted. She currently has no pain and is afebrile. A sonogram of her upper abdomen shows a contracted gallbladder full of stones, as well as dilated intrahepatic and extrahepatic biliary ducts; however, no stone can be identified in die common duct. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?

A 40-year-old retired professional football player complains of the sudden onset of palpitations and shortness of breath 5 days after having knee replacement surgery. His pulse is 100/min and regular. Oxygen saturation is 90% room air. An ECG reveals sinus tachycardia. A chest x-ray film is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 40-year-old school teacher comes to the physician's office complaining of joint pain. Her symptoms began 10 days ago and consist of pain in the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints, proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints, wrists, knees and ankles, bilaterally. She describes joint stiffness lasting 10 to 15 minutes after a prolonged rest. She denies fever, malaise, weight loss and skin rash. Her past medical history is insignificant. She does not take any medications. On examination, there is no evidence of swelling, redness or tenderness of the involved joints. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is most likely elevated in this patient?

A 40-year-old school teacher develops nausea and vomiting at the beginning of the fall semester. Over the summer she had taught preschool children in a small town in Mexico. She is sexually active, but has not used intravenous drugs and has not received blood products. Physical examination reveals scleral icterus, right upper quadrant tenderness, and a palpable liver. Liver function tests show aspartate aminotransferase of 750 U/L (normal < 40) and alanine aminotransferase of 1020 U/L (normal < 45). The bilirubin is 13 mg/dL (normal < 1.4) and the alkaline phosphatase is normal. What further diagnostic test is most likely to be helpful?

A 40-year-old woman comes to the physician for an annual examination. She has no complaints. She has menses every 28-30 days that last for 3 days. She has no intermenstrual bleeding. She has asthma, for which she uses an occasional inhaler. She had a tubal ligation 10 years ago. She has no known drug allergies. Examination is unremarkable, including a normal pelvic examination. One of her friends was recently diagnosed with endometrial cancer, and the patient wants to know when and if she needs to be screened for this. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?

A 40-year-old woman complains of 7 weeks of pain and swelling in both wrists and knees. She has several months of fatigue. After a period of rest, resistance to movement is more striking. On examination, the metacarpophalangeal joints and wrists are warm and tender. There are no other joint abnormalities. There is no alopecia, photosensitivity, kidney disease, or rash. Which of the following is correct?

A 40-year-old woman has been complaining of a 3-year history of increasing dyspnea and fatigue. She has no other medical illness. Physical examination reveals increased jugular venous pressure (JVP) with prominent c-v wave, and a reduced carotid pulse. Precordial examination reveals a left parasternal lift, loud P2, and right- sided S3 and S4. There are no audible murmurs. CXR reveals clear lung fields and an ECG shows evidence of right ventricular hypertrophy. Pulmonary function tests show a slight restrictive pattern. Primary pulmonary hypertension is suspected. Which of the following is the most appropriate test to confirm the diagnosis?

A 41-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with palpitations. On questioning she notes heat intolerance, nervousness, and insomnia. On physical examination the physician notes a fine tremor, diffuse non-pitting edema of the anterior lower leg, and bulging of both of her eyes. What finding on blood test would confirm the diagnosis?

A 42-year-old male is found unconscious in a subway station. He is brought to the emergency department where cardio-pulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is done and IV glucose and thiamine are given. His lab profile shows: Blood pH 7.20, PaO2 90mmHg, PaCO2 30mmHg, HCO3 12 mEq/L. Which of the following is the best next step in the diagnosis of this patient's acid-base status?

A 42-year-old male presents to your office complaining of fatigue. His past medical history is insignificant. He does not smoke or consume alcohol. His blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg and heart rate is 85/min. Physical examination is insignificant. Laboratory values are: Hemoglobin 7.7 g/dL, MCV 72 fL, MCHC 28%, Leukocyte count 8,000/cmm, ESR 15 mm/hr. Serum iron and ferritin levels are decreased. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?

A 42-year-old male presents with a 2-year history of heartburn. The heartburn occurs after heavy meals and while supine. Over time, his symptoms have been increasing in severity and frequency. His symptoms used to be alleviated with the use of over-the-counter antacids, but these have become ineffective in the past two months. He also complains of epigastric pain and occasional vomiting, both of recent onset, especially in the morning. He denies dysphagia or odynophagia. He eats junk food and drinks two cups of coffee daily. He regularly drinks grape brandy and smokes 1 pack of cigarettes/day. Abdominal examination shows epigastric tenderness. Abdominal ultrasound is unremarkable. Test of the stool for occult blood is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 42-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of substernal chest pain after every meal. He has chronic alcoholism and a long history of heartburn. Upper endoscopy shows mucosal irregularity and ulceration of the squamocolumnar junction above the lower esophageal sphincter (LES). Multiple biopsies were taken. 4 hours later he is complaining of worsening substernal pain radiating to the back, left chest pain, and shortness of breath. His temperature is 37.10C (98.90F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 140/min, and respirations are 34/min. An x-ray film of the chest shows minimal left pleural effusion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 42-year-old man develops shortness of breath (SOB) and chest pain 7 days after an open cholecystectomy. His blood pressure is 145/86 mmHg, pulse is 120/min, respirations 24/min, and oxygen saturation of 97%. Pulmonary embolism is clinically suspected. Which of the following is the most common ECG finding of pulmonary embolism?

A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. He was a restrained driver and hit a car from behind on a highway. He drank one glass of wine before driving. He occasionally uses cocaine. His medical problems include mild intermittent asthma and peptic ulcer disease. On initial evaluation, his blood pressure is 112/92 mm Hg and pulse is 96/min. His pulse oximetry shows 95% on room air. Examination shows bruises on the anterior chest wall and abdominal wall. X-rays reveal a fracture of the eighth left rib but no pneumothorax or pleural effusion. Cervical C-spine series are negative. An ultrasound does not show free intraperitoneal fluid. An ECG shows normal sinus rhythm with no ST-segment or T-wave changes. He is treated with intravenous fluids and analgesics. Eight hours later, he complains of epigastric discomfort, left shoulder pain, and mild nausea. His blood pressure is 97/62 mm Hg and pulse is 112/min. His pulse oximetry shows 96% on room air. Which of the following is most likely to diagnose this patient's current condition?

A 42-year-old man is diagnosed with an osteosarcoma. His family history is significant for a 37-year-old sister with breast cancer and an uncle with adrenocortical carcinoma. His family physician suspects that he may have Li-Fraumeni syndrome and suggests genetic testing. Which of the following genes is most likely to be mutated if he has the syndrome?

A 42-year-old man with no history of use of NSAIDs presents with recurrent gastritis. The patient was diagnosed and treated for Helicobacter pylori 6 months ago. Which of the following tests provides the least invasive method to document eradication of the infection?

A 42-year-old previously well woman presents with pruritus. She is not taking any medications, and only drinks alcohol on a social basis. Her physical examination is entirely normal with no signs of chronic liver disease or jaundice. Laboratory evaluation reveals an alkaline phosphatase level of three times normal, and an ultrasound of the liver and gallbladder is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?

A 42-year-old woman hit her breast with a broom handle while doing housework. She noticed a lump in that area at the time, and 1 week later the lump was still present. She then sought medical advice. On physical examination, she has a 3-cm, hard mass deep inside the affected breast and some superficial ecchymosis over the area. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step, or steps, in management?

A 42-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with multiple complaints. She reports that she had been feeling well until approximately one month ago, when she began to feel increasingly fatigued and weak. For the past two weeks, she has had anorexia, nausea, and abdominal pain. In the past three days, she has had two syncopal episodes. Her medical history is unremarkable and she takes no medications. She denies tobacco and drug use and drinks wine only occasionally. Physical exam reveals a temperature of 36.7°C (98°F), blood pressure of 86/52 mmHg, heart rate of 90/min, and respiratory rate of 18/min. Her cardiac exam is normal and her lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. You note hyperpigmentation of the skin in the palmar creases. Which of the following additional findings is most likely to be present in this patient?

A 43-year-old African American woman comes to the physician because of her concern regarding breast cancer. She has no complaints at present. In past years, she had noted bilateral breast tenderness prior to her menses, but this has since abated. She has no medical problems. She had two cesarean deliveries, but no other surgeries. She takes a low-dose oral contraceptive pill and has no known drug allergies. She does not smoke, and her family history is negative. Physical examination is normal. All mammograms (yearly since age 40) have been negative to date. She wants to know whether BRCA1 and BRCA2 screening would be appropriate for her. Which of the following is the correct response?

A 43-year-old male complains of frequent epigastric burning not relieved by antacids. The sensation is typically brought on by heavy lifting at work and takes 10-15 minutes to go away. He denies having associated arm or neck pain, cough, shortness of breath or difficulty swallowing. His past medical history is significant for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) diagnosed five years ago, for which he takes low-dose prednisone daily. On physical examination, his blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg and pulse is 80/min and regular. Heart, lung, and abdomen exams are unremarkable. EKG is normal. Which of the following is the best next step in managing this patient?

A 43-year-old male presents to a physician with an ulcer on the shaft of his penis. The ulcer is non-tender, with a raised border and a smooth base. There is bilateral inguinal adenopathy. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. Dark field microscopy of a specimen from the ulcer base reveals spirochetes. Which of the following additional screening studies should be performed on this patient?

A 43-year-old man was brought to the ED after he was unable to get out of his bed today due to leg weakness. He has been having constant back pain over the past several days. His past medical history is significant for poorly controlled diabetes mellitus and hypertension. His temperature is 38.3°C (101°F), pulse is 100/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 150/100 mmHg. On examination, he smells of urine. His back is tender to palpation over L2-L5. Neurologic exam reveals 3/5 strength in the lower extremities with decreased sensation to temperature and light touch. He has an extensor plantar response bilaterally. Which of the following is the best next step in evaluating this patient?

A 43-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of confusion. Her other complaints include increased thirst and "using the bathroom more frequently." She denies any fever,file:///D:/DES_Entry_2016MCQs/3C_USMLE/C-3ParaClinic/questions... chills, headache, chest pain, shortness of breath, or cough. Her past medical history is significant for bipolar disorder that is well-controlled by medication. She does not drink alcohol, smoke cigarettes, or use illicit drugs. Her vital signs are stable, and physical exam is unremarkable. Laboratory studies reveal the following: Sodium 154 mEq/L, Potassium 4.1 mEq/L, Chloride 116 mEq/L, Bicarbonate 28 mEq/L, Glucose 95 mg/dl, Urine osmolality 250 mOsm/L, Plasma osmolality 326 mOsm/L. What is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms and laboratory findings?

A 44-year-old unrestrained male driver is brought to the ER after a motor vehicle accident. Cervical spine is immobilized. His breathing is normal. At the scene of the accident, his blood pressure is 70/30 mm Hg. After receiving two liters of intravenous fluid, his blood pressure is 80/40 mmHg. Neck veins are collapsed. Lungs are clear to auscultation. Abdomen is mildly distended. There is no obvious source of external bleeding. No intraperitoneal blood or solid organ damage is seen on ultrasonogram or diagnostic peritoneal lavage. Imaging studies reveal a pelvic fracture and fracture of the right fourth rib. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 44-year-old woman complains bitterly of severe headache that has been present for several weeks and has not responded to the usual over-the-counter headache remedies. She locates the headache to the center of her head. It is pretty much constant but is worse in the mornings. She has no other neurologic signs or symptoms. She has had "tension headaches" in the past, but she says that those were located in the back of her head and felt different from the present pain. She is currently under considerable stress because she has been unemployed since undergoing modified radical mastectomy for T3, N1, M0 breast cancer 2 years ago. She had several courses of post-operative chemotherapy, which she eventually discontinued because of the side effects. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?

A 44-year-old woman complains of urinary incontinence. She loses urine when she laughs, coughs, and plays tennis. Urodynamic studies are performed in the office with a multiple-channel machine. If this patient has genuine stress urinary incontinence, which of the following do you expect to see on the cystometric study?

A 44-year-old woman has a palpable nodule in the right lobe of her thyroid gland. The nodule measures 2 cm and is firm. The rest of the thyroid gland cannot be felt and is not tender. She also describes losing weight in spite of a ravenous appetite, palpitations, and heat intolerance. She is thin, fidgety, and constantly moving, with moist skin and a pulse of 105/min. She has no exophthalmos or pretibial edema. Her TSH is reported as much lower than normal, and she has elevated levels of free T4. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?

A 45-year-old Asian-American female comes to the physician due to bloating, flatulence, abdominal cramps and explosive watery diarrhea. These symptoms occur after ingesting dairy products. She has not had any weight loss. She has not had bone pain or easy bruising. Physical examination shows abdominal distention and borborygmi. You decide to investigate the patient further. Which of the following test results is most likely to be observed?

A 45-year-old Caucasian male presents in the office with a movement disorder and behavioral disturbance. For the past month, he has been having frequent, sudden, jerky and irregular movements of his upper extremities. He has become irritable, and does not visit his family or friends. He is a business executive, and co-workers have commented on the serious decline in his performance. His father had similar problems and died in a nursing home CT scan is ordered. Which of the following is a typical CT finding in such patients?

A 45-year-old executive experiences increasingly painful retrosternal heartburn, especially at night. He has been chewing antacid tablets. An esophagogram shows a hiatal hernia. In determining the proper treatment for a sliding hiatal hernia, which of the following is the most useful modality?

A 45-year-old female comes to the office for the evaluation of excessive hair growth over her face and body. Her hirsutism rapidly developed over a period of 3 months. She underwent bilateral tubal ligation 4 years ago. Her menstrual cycles were regular in the past, but for the last 3 months, she has not had a menstrual period. She denies any hot flashes or vaginal discomfort. On physical examination, her height is 5'2" (169 cm) and weight is 140 lbs (63.5kg). A large amount of coarse terminal hair is noted on her face, chest and lower abdomen. She appears masculine and has an enlarged clitoris. There is significant temporal balding. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old female with severe depression, migraine and rheumatoid arthritis is brought in after she was found to have nausea, fever and upper abdominal discomfort. The patient describes severe tinnitus and vertigo. She admits that she overdosed on one of her medications. Her temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), blood pressure is 120/76 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min and respirations are 24/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following acid-base statuses is most likely in this patient? pH, PaCO2 (mm Hg), HCO3- (mEq/L)

A 45-year-old G3P3 presents for her yearly examination. She last saw a doctor 7 years ago after she had her last child. She had three vaginal deliveries, the last of which was complicated by gestational diabetes and preeclampsia. She has not been sexually active in the past year. She once had an abnormal Pap smear for which she underwent cryotherapy. She denies any medical problems. Her family history is significant for coronary artery disease in her dad and a maternal aunt who developed ovarian cancer at the age of 67. Which of the following is best screening approach for this patient?

A 45-year-old male comes to the hospital because of severe retrosternal chest pain that started suddenly a few hours ago. He says that he has been having mild chest pain for the past few days, but that this pain is completely different. His past medical history is significant for nonischemic cardiomyopathy for which he takes furosemide, carvedilol, spironolactone, lisinopril and potassium chloride. He also has HIV infection but is not taking any edications related to this diagnosis by his own choice. On physical examination, his temperature is 38.9C (102F), blood pressure is 110/65 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 22/min. He is in obvious distress secondary to pain. His lungs are clearto auscultation and the remainder of his physical examination is unremarkable. His EKG is within normal limits. Chest X-ray shows a widened mediastinum and mediastinal air. W hich of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 45-year-old male comes to the physician for epigastric pain and diarrhea. His past medical history is significant for chronic duodenal ulcers. He has been smoking 2 packs of cigarettes daily for the past 10 years. He occasionally drinks alcohol. He denies illegal drug use or multiple sexual partners. Physical examination shows abdominal tenderness without rebound or rigidity. Endoscopy shows prominent gastric folds, chronic duodenal ulcer, and upper jejunal ulceration. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnosis of this patient?

A 45-year-old male presents to the office with complaints of progressive difficulty in swallowing both solids and liquids. His other complaints include occasional regurgitation of undigested food, and a nighttime cough which disturbs his sleep. The physical examination is unremarkable. Barium studies show a dilated esophagus, loss of esophageal peristalsis, and smooth tapering of the distal esophagus. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old male with Burkitt's lymphoma is being treated with combination chemotherapy and allopurinol. On the 3rd day of treatment, he is noted to have decreased urine output and increased levels of BUN and creatinine. The patient is started on vigorous hydration. EKG reveals prolonged QT intervals. The suspected diagnosis is tumor lysis syndrome. Complete metabolic profile is ordered. Which of the following sets of results are expected in this patient? (Calcium, Phosphate, Potassium, Uric Acid)

A 45-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of severe right flank pain that began abrupdy 3 hours ago. The pain comes in waves and radiates down to the ipsilateral testis. The patient is nauseated and extremely restless. His temperature is 37.0C (98.6F). Dipstick examination of urine is positive for hematuria. Urinary pH is 5.8. Which of die following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?

A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a two-day history of fever, chills and productive cough. He reports having had two episodes of pneumonia over the past six months, both of which resolved completely with levofloxacin therapy. He smoked cigarettes for twenty years, but quit recently with the second bout of pneumonia. Today, his temperature is 38.9°C (102°F), pulse is 98/minute, blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg, and respirations are 18/min. On physical examination, there are crackles and bronchial breath sounds over the right lower lobe of the lung. Chest x-ray shows right lower lobe consolidation; previous x-rays also show consolidation in this area. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 45-year-old man presents with two days of bilateral hand pain that is most severe in his wrists. Physical examination reveals bilateral wrist tenderness, thickening of the distal fingers, and convex nail beds. There is nicotine staining of the right index and middle fingers. He states that he has been smoking 2 packs of cigarettes a day for the past 25 years. Chest examination reveals decreased breath sounds and a prolonged expiratory phase. The patient relates the pain's onset to a data entry job he recently started. He notes that his boss believes he is fabricating his pain to get off work. His job records reveal numerous sick leaves. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?