Physiology
Physiology Quiz Challenge
Test your knowledge of physiology with our comprehensive quiz featuring a wide range of questions covering crucial concepts in blood coagulation, digestion, and more. With 191 questions to challenge you, this quiz is perfect for students, educators, and anyone interested in the fascinating field of physiology.
Key Features:
- Over 190 carefully curated questions
- Multiple choice format to enhance learning
- Instant feedback on your answers
10. Which of the following statements is true:
A. Thrombocyte time is the set of phenomena by which the lumen of the injured vessel shrinks.
B. Plasma time represents the formation of the white thrombus that closes the already contracted vascular lumen.
C. Definitive haemostasis occurs after 7 days when vascular reendothelialisation has occurred and the fibrin thrombus is destroyed by fibrinolysis to ensure vascular recanalisation.
D. Fibrin thrombus occurs as a result of the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin under the influence of thrombin.
11. Stage III of the blood clotting process, according to the enzyme cascade theory, consists of:
A. Transformation of prothrombin to thrombin under the influence of activated factor X
B. Transformation of fibrinogen into fibrin monomers under the influence of thrombin
C. Spontaneous polymerisation of fibrin monomers, forming soluble fibrin
D. Conversion of soluble fibrin to insoluble fibrin under the influence of activated factor XIII
12. The first stage of the blood clotting process:
A. Is carried out in two ways: intrinsic and extrinsic.
B. Is the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin under the influence of factor X.
C. Is the spontaneous polymerisation of fibrin monomers to form soluble fibrin, which then stabilises to insoluble fibrin
D. Is the formation of prothrombin activators
13. The main antihaemophilic factor, acting as a cofactor and accelerator of factor X activation in the intrinsic blood coagulability pathway, is represented by:
A. F.VIII
B. F. IX
C. F. XI.
D. F. XII
14. In the process of physiological haemostasis, almost all steps of the enzymatic cascade of coagulation are involved:
A. Sodium ions
B. Calcium ions
C. Phospholipids of tissue origin
D. Coagulation accelerating cofactors
15. Identify the false statement:
A. Monocytes and macrophages phagocytose bulky particles
B. Lymphocytes carry out specific cell-mediated immunity (cytotoxic effects) and humoral-mediated immunity (synthesis of antigen-specific antibodies)
C. Plasma cells are derived from T lymphocytes by blastic transformation and play a role in the synthesis of immunoglobulins
D. Neutrophils perform the function of focal accumulation and phagocytosis through chemotaxis, diapedesis and release of enzymes and antibacterial factors
1. The interdigestive contractile complexes are:
A. Rhythmic strangulation contractions involved in homogenization of gastric contents
B. Peristaltic contractions that ensure the evacuation of well-digested contents as required by the duodenum
C. Rhythmically repeated "hunger" peristaltic contractions when the stomach is empty or with a small amount of undigested food
D. Contractions of the rectum for defecation
2. The digestive sphincters are relaxed by:
A. Orthosympathetic ANS
B. Parasympathetic ANS
C. Cortical nerve centres
D. Somatic NS motor neurons
3. Emesis represents:
A. A reflex act of elimination of incompletely digested gastric contents, a process triggered mainly by the absorption of endotoxins and stimulation of the chemosensitive zone in the medulla oblongata
B. A reflex act of vomiting involving only the distending receptors in the stomach
C. A voluntary act triggered by controlling the opening of the cardiac orifice and regurgitation of gastric contents
D. A reflex act in which the respiratory phenomenon plays the main role in the aspiration of gastric contents into the oesophagus, then its progression outwards
4. Which of the following statements is false:
A. The vomiting centre does not receive stimuli from the inner ear
B. The vomiting centre receives stimuli from the peritoneum and genital tract
C. The vomiting centre receives stimuli from the duodenal mucosa
D. The vomiting centre receives stimuli from the pharynx
6. Bile pigments are produced by the degradation of:
A. platelets
B. leukocytes
C. haemoglobin
D. Bile salts
7. Which of the vitamins listed are not synthesised by symbiotic bacteria in the large intestine/rumen:
A. vitamin K
B. vitamin B12
C. vitamin C
D. riboflavin
8. Pancreatic juice secretion is not stimulated by:
A. acetylcholine
B. epinephrine;
C. pancreosimin-cholecystokinin
D. secretary
9. Which of the functions listed do not correspond to hydrochloric acid in gastric juice:
A. Creates the optimal acidic environment for the activity of gastric juice enzymes
B. Form easily soluble acid metaproteins
C. Converts pepsinogen into pepsin
D. Cleaves lipids
10. Castle intrinsic anti-anemia factor:
A. Promotes the absorption of vitamin B12
B. Inhibits mucus secretion
C. Stimulates gastric juice secretion
D. Stimulates iron absorption in the ileum;
11. What are the similarities of the swallowing and defecation reflexes?
A. Involves smooth and striated muscles
B. Only involves involuntary nervous mechanisms
C. Are coordinated by nerve centres in the medulla oblongata
D. Are fully voluntary controlled processes
12. Closure of the oesophageal trough is a reflex which in the ruminant infant is not triggered under the influence:
A. Cold milk
B. The smell of milk
C. suptului
D. Milk protein and minerals
13. Rumination means:
A. A process of intermittent elimination of ruminal gases by the oral route.
B. A thorough chewing process of the cellulosic feed ingested by ruminants.
C. A process of regurgitation of the reticulo-ruminal contents for remastication.
D. Strong shrinkage of the leaflet and shredding of the contents between its blades.
14. Rumination consists of the following functional sequences:
A.mastication, insalivation, swallowing, gastric chemical rejection.
B. Rejection of the mereric bolus, remastication, reinsalivation, redeglutition
C.opening the hinge and removing the rumen gases outside
D. Shrinkage of the net in two stages followed by passing part of the contents into the sheet for shredding.
15. Rejection does not contribute:
A.contraction of the foveal muscles
B.diaphragm contraction
C. Performing a forced inspiration with closed glottis
D. Esophageal antiperistaltic contraction
16. Eructation means:
A. A process of intermittent elimination of ruminal gases by the oral route.
B. A process of intermittent elimination of gas from the large intestine by the anal route.
C. A process of regurgitation of the reticulo-ruminal contents for thorough remastication.
D. A process of elimination of gastric contents to the outside via the mouth
17. Eructation is produced by the following motor activities:
A.triggering of the secondary ruminal contraction wave and relaxation of the grid body.
B.triggering of the primary ruminal contraction wave, including net contraction.
C.triggering of the contraction of the net followed by relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter.=0
D. Primary and secondary ruminal shrinkage
18. Degradation of cellulose in the rumen is carried out by:
A.cellulases from ruminal fluid
B.cellulolytic bacteria containing cellulase and cellobiase
C.maltase and isomaltase of bacterial origin
D. Amylase of bacterial origin
19. Peristaltic movements are achieved:
A. Only by contraction of the circular muscles of the wall of the digestive tract
B. Only by contraction of the longitudinal muscles of the wall of the digestive tract
C. By contraction of muscle fibres arranged longitudinally and circularly
D. Only in the small intestine
20. Proteolytic digestive enzymes are not present in:
A. Gastric juice
B. Intestinal juice
C. Pancreatic juice
D. Bile secretion
1. Inhibition of stomach emptying can be achieved by:
A. Enterogastric reflex
B. motilin
C. enterogastron
D. cholecystokinin
2. The volatile fatty acids resulting from glucose fermentation are a source of energy for the host ruminant:
A. An unusable and harmful metabolic waste.
B.an important energy source, covering 40% of energy needs
C. Precursors in the synthesis of milk fatty acids.
D. Precursors in amino acid neosynthesis
3. Dizaharidases in the striatal plate of enterocytes are:
A. lactose
B. amylase
C.saccharose
D. maltose
4. Trypsinogen is produced by ___/activated by___/and plays a ___/role.
A. Main cells of the fundic glands of the stomach/hydrochloric acid/proteolytic acid
B. Pancreatic acin/enterokinase/proteolytic
C. Parietal cells of the gastric fundic/gastrin/glycolytic glands
D. Enterocyte striatal plate/enterokinase/proteolytic
5. Intraruminal cellulose digestion results in:
A. Amino acids
B.glucose and VFA
C.fermentation gases
D. Free fatty acids and cholesterol
6. Synthesis processes in prestomachs are:
A.synthesis of B-complex vitamins
B. vitamin K synthesis
C. gluconeogenesis
D. Amino acid neosynthesis
7. Digestive absorption of nutrients by co-transport mechanism is possible for:
A. Amino acids
B. glucose
C. galactose
D. Fatty acids
8. Digestive absorption of lipids is achieved:
A. By means of bile salts
B. By co-transport
C. By the formation of micellar aggregates
D. In the form of chilomicrons
10. In birds, gastric juice is secreted by:
A. proventricul
B. Glottis epithelium
C. Muscular stomach
D. Anterior portion of the small intestine
1. It is considered vegetative brain:
A. The cerebellum
B. Limbic system
C. hypothalamus
D. Cerebral cortex
2. Specify which of the following brainstem centres have a parasympathetic function:
A. Cardioaccelerator centre
B. Cardiomoderator centre
C. Pupillary dilator centre
D. Vasomotor centre
4. Specify which of the following brainstem centres have orthosympathetic function:
A. Salivary centre
B. Vasomotor centre
C. Centre of sexual reflexes
D. Cardiomoderator centre
4. One of the following nerves has no vegetative function:
A. Vagus nerve (X),
B. Accessory of the vagus nerve (XI)
C. Common oculomotor nerve (III)
D. Facial nerve (VII)
5. Myosis and mydriasis are vegetative activities in the category:
A. antagonistic
B. Apparently antagonistic
C. synergistic
D. Voluntary motor activities
6. Nicotinic Receptor Stimulator/Inhibitor is:
A. Nicotine/Muscarine
B. Nicotine/Atropine
C. Acetylcholine/Nicotine
D. Acetylcholine/Atropine
7. Muscarinic Receptor Stimulator/Inhibitor is:
A. Acetylcholine/Atropine
B. Muscarine/Nicotine
C. Adrenaline/Noradrenaline
D. Noradrenaline/Muscarine
8. Alpha1 receptors have predominant localization in ___/and effect of___.
A. Cardiac musculature/cardioacceleration
B. Smooth muscle of blood vessels/vasoconstriction
C. Skeletal musculature/increased postural tone
D. Digestive sphincter muscles/relaxation
9. Beta1 adrenergic receptors have localization in ___/and effect of___.
A. Cardiac musculature/cardioacceleration
B. Smooth muscle of blood vessels/vasoconstriction
C. Smooth muscle of blood vessels/vasodilation
D. Bronchial muscles/bronchoconstriction
10. Beta2 adrenergic receptors have localization in ___/and effect of___.
A. Smooth muscle of cutaneous blood vessels/vasoconstriction
B. Coronary vessel smooth muscle/vasoodilation
C. Cardiac muscle/cardioinhibition
D. Digestive wall musculature/contraction
1. Specify which of the following centres have parasympathetic function:
A. The cardioaccelerator centre and the pupilodilator centre
B. Cardiomoderator centre and pupilloconstrictor centre
C. Micturition centre and defecation centre
D. Medullary vasoconstrictor centres
2. The second neuron in the orthosympathetic efferent pathway could be located in:
A. Walls of the organs served
B. Paravertebral ganglionic chain
C. sphenopalatine, otic or lingual ganglion
D. Celiac and mesenteric ganglion
3. The second neuron in the parasympathetic efferent pathway could be located in:
A. Walls of the organs served
B. Paravertebral ganglionic chain
C. celiac, cranial mesenteric or caudal mesenteric ganglion
D. ciliary, otic, sphenopalatine ganglion
4. Cranial nerves with vegetative function are:
A. Common oculomotor nerve (III)
B. Facial nerve (VII)
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
D. Vagus nerve (X)
5. The explanation of the referred pain is:
A. Summation of nociceptive stimuli from a visceral area and the adjacent cutaneous area.
B. Convergence of visceral and somatic afferent fibers to the same dorsal horn neuron in the spinal cord.
C. Projecting the source of skin pain to an internal organ.
D. Incorrect projection of the pain source to a specific cutaneous region, due to the common conduction pathway of visceral and cutaneous pain.
6. The general effects produced by stimulation of parasympathetic vegetative centres are:
A. Stimulation of anabolic processes
B. Growth promotion
C. Decrease in all functions except digestion which is accelerated
D. Acceleration of all functions except digestion which is slowed down
7. The general effects produced by stimulation of the orthosympathetic vegetative centres are:
A. Stimulation of catabolic processes and promotion of energy consumption
B. Stimulating anabolic processes and promoting growth
C. Acceleration of all functions except digestion which is slowed down
D. Decrease in all functions except digestion which is accelerated
8. The differences between somatic and vegetative efferent pathways are: (___in the somatic pathway /____in the vegetative pathway)
A. Single neuron/2 neurons
B. Myelinated nerve fibres/myelinated and myelinated nerve fibres
C. Chemical mediator: adrenaline/noradrenaline
D. effector: skeletal muscle/cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, glands
9. Beta2 adrenergic receptors are predominantly localized in ____/ and have a ___ effect:
A. Heart muscle/reduced heart contraction force
B. Smooth muscle of some blood vessels /vasodilation
C. Bronchial smooth muscle/bronchodilatation
D. Digestive sphincter muscles/relaxation
10. alpha2 adrenergic receptors are:
A. Presynaptic receptors of vascular neuroeffective synapses
B. Postsynaptic receptors of vascular and cardiac neuroeffective synapses
C. Norepinephrine release inhibitors
D. Autoregulators of the vasoconstriction phenomenon
1. Vestibular sensitivity, according to the receptors involved, is a type of sensitivity:
A. interoceptive
B. exteroceptive
C. proprioceptive
D. Exteroceptive and proprioceptive
2. What is the bidirectional response of the vestibular receptors?
A. The two cerebral hemispheres receive binaural information.
B. Depolarization or hyperpolarization as the stereocilium tilts towards the kinetocil or vice versa.
C. Excitation in the case of otolith action on sensory cell cilia and inhibition in the case of tilting of sensory cell cilia.
D. Different response to antero-posterior and lateral head tilts respectively.
3. The vestibular pathway protonator is located in:
A. Scarpa's ganglion on the path of nerve VIII
B. Spinal ganglion on the dorsal root of the spinal nerve
C. Spiral ganglion of Corti on the path of nerve VIII
D. Vestibular nuclei in the medulla oblongata
4. The acoustic pathway protonator is located in:
A. Scarpa's ganglion on the path of nerve VIII
B. Spinal ganglion on the dorsal root of the spinal nerve
C. Spiral ganglion of Corti on the path of nerve VIII
D. Cochlear nuclei in the medulla oblongata
5. Deuteroneuron of the vestibular canal is located in:
A. Dorsal horn of the spinal cord
B. Medulla oblongata
C. thalamus
D. Caudal quadrigeminal tubercle
6. Deuteroneuron of the auditory canal is located in:
A. Dorsal horn of the spinal cord
B. Medulla oblongata
C. thalamus
D. Caudal quadrigeminal tubercle
7. The tritoneuron of the vestibular pathway is located in:
A. Anterior quadrigeminal tubercle
B. Posterior quadrigeminal tubercle
C. thalamus
D. Temporal lobe of the cerebral cortex
8. The auditory pathway tritoneuron is located in:
A. Anterior quadrigeminal tubercle
B. Posterior quadrigeminal tubercle
C. Medial geniculate body of the thalamus
D. Temporal lobe of the cerebral cortex
9. To achieve nystagmus, the vestibular nuclei make connections with the following nerve formations:
A. Motor neurons in the spinal cord
B. Vestibulocerebellar and paleocerebellar
C. Oculomotor nerve nuclei in the brainstem
D. Upper olive in medulla oblongata
10. The frequency limits of sound waves perceived by humans and most animal species are:
A. 20 Hz-20 KHz
B. 1000-4000 Hz
C. 20-40 kHz
D. 40-100 kHz
11. The sound wave receiving apparatus is represented by:
A. External ear pavilion
B. Organ of Corti in the cochlear duct
C. eardrum
D. Middle ear ossicles
12. The middle ear is represented by___/has the role of___:
A. semi-circular channels/balance
B. malleus, incus, and stapes/attenuation or amplification of sounds
C. Cochlear membrane/sound wave reception
D. Vestibul membrane/balance
13. Corti's organ is housed in?
A. Vestibular ramp of the cochlea
B. Tympanic ramps of the cochlea
C. Median cochlea ramp
D. Semicircular canals of the inner ear
14. High frequency sounds cause vibration:
A. Base of cochlea
B. End of cochlea
C. Otoliths in the utricle and saccule
D. Endolymph of lateral semicircular canals
15. Low frequency sounds cause vibration:
A. Base of cochlea
B. End of cochlea
C. Otoliths in the utricle and saccule
D. Endolymph of lateral semicircular canals
16. The auditory ascending pathway is included in:
A. Medial lemniscus, homolateral and heterolateral to the ear of origin
B. Lateral lemniscus, homolateral and heterolateral to the ear of origin
D. Gowers fascicle, heterolateral to the ear of origin
E. Flechsig fascicl+e. Homolateral to the ear of origin
17. The central segment of the hearing analyser is located in:
A. Superior temporal gyrus
B. Ascending parietal circumvolution
C. Occipital lobe, posterior to the vestibular area.
D. Frontal lobe
18. To correctly locate the sound source, auditory signals from the right ear are transmitted to the cerebral cortex:
A. homolateral, in the right auditory area
B. heterolateral, in the left auditory area
C. bilaterally, in the auditory areas of the two cerebral hemispheres
D. In the occipital and temporal lobe of the right cerebral hemisphere
19. In order to correctly judge the distance of sound, auditory signals from the left ear are transmitted to the cerebral cortex:
A. homolateral, in the left auditory area
B. heterolateral, in the right auditory area
C. bilaterally, in the auditory areas of both cerebral hemispheres
D. In the occipital and temporal lobe of the left cerebral hemisphere
20. Choose the false statement about macular receptors in the utricle and sacculus:
A. Macular receptors are mechanically stimulated by otoliths
B. Macular receptors detect angular acceleration and deceleration
D. Macular receptors discharge impulses through head tilts
E. Macular receptors are stimulated by linear acceleration motion
21. The following statements are true with one exception:
A. The membranous vestibule consists of 2 membranous cavities: the utricle and the saccule
B. In the utricle and saccule there are macules formed by sensory cells responsible for static balance
C. The cilia of the vestibular sensory cells are embedded in a gelatinous structure (otolith membrane) containing calcium carbonate granules called otoliths;
D. Vestibular receptors are found in the macula lutea and in the ampullary ridges of the membranous labyrinth.
22. The middle tunic of the eyeball does not include:
A. coroida
B. Ciliary muscles and ciliary processes
C. iris
D. cornea
23. The optical apparatus of the eye consists of the following components, with one exception:
A. cornea
B. sclerotica
C. Aquos humour
D. crystalline
E. Vitreous body
24. The ocular dioptric apparatus consists of:
A. Cornea and aqueous humour
B. Lens and vitreous body
C. cornea (with a refractive power of about 43 dioptres) and crystalline lens (with a refractive power of 13- 26 dioptres)
D. Sclera and cornea
25. Identify the false statement:
A. When the eye looks into the distance, the ciliary muscle is relaxed and the Zinn zonule is tense, compressing the lens
B. Sympathetic efference originates in the pupillary centers of the first two segments of the thoracic cord;
C. The retina is sensitive to electromagnetic radiation of wavelengths between 390 and 760 nm
D. At the level of the primary visual area, the most extensive representation is given by the fovea centralis, which occupies the posterior region of the parietal lobe
26. Glaucoma is:
A. Corneal opacification
B. Lens opacification
C. Increased intraocular pressure
D. Insufficient secretion of aqueous humor inside the eyeball
27. Which of the following cranial nerves does not innervate the eyeball muscles?
A. Pathetic nerve
B. Optic nerve
C. Common oculomotor nerve
D. Abducens nerve
28. The part of the eye that shows maximum visual acuity is:
A. Optic disc of the retina
B. The nodal point in the centre of the lens where the light rays cross
C. Macula lutea of the retina containing the fovea centralis
D. The place in the retina where ganglion cell axons associate to form the optic nerve
29. Identify the correct statement:
A. All animal species, like man, have dioptric accommodation for near and far vision
B. In the horse, the ramped retina allows the view of close objects at a point on the retina above the blind spot, by simply changing the position of the head, without bulging the lens
C. In cats, pupillary constriction during the day prevents vision due to the positioning of the blind spot in the centre of the retina
D. The cat has few cone photoreceptor cells, has a bichromatic visual system and perceives colours poorly
30. The visual system of diurnal birds is adapted to:
A. Twilight vision, as they have sufficient rod photoreceptor cells
B. Tetrachromatic vision, because they have numerous photoreceptor cells with cones
C. Monochromatic vision because they have no cone photoreceptor cells and perceive only shades of grey
D. Binocular vision, due to partial decussation of optic nerve fibres
1. Vestibular receptors are named__/ are located in___/respond to the following stimuli:
A. kinesthetic/muscle/closing the joint angle and lengthening the extensor muscles
B. otoliths/ utricula and sacula/ anterior, posterior and lateral tilt of the head
C. maculae/macula lutea/linear acceleration and deceleration
D. ampullae/ semicircular canals in the inner ear/acceleration and deceleration of angular motion
1. Vestibular receptors are named__/ are located in___/respond to the following stimuli:
A. otoliths/ utricula and sacula/ anterior, posterior and lateral head tilt, linear acceleration and deceleration
B. maculae/macula lutea/linear acceleration and deceleration
C. ampullae/ semicircular canals in the inner ear/acceleration and deceleration of angular motion
D. proprioceptors/internal joint/ changes in head position and linear and rotational movement.
2. To adjust muscle tone, the vestibular nuclei make connections with the following nerve formations:
A. vestibulocerebellum
B. Reticulated brainstem formation
C. Nuclei of origin of the oculomotor nerves
D. Motor neurons in the spinal cord
3. A dog with rightward head deviation and rightward circling movements shows an asymmetric discharge of impulses, the predominant discharge being in:
A. Vestibular nerve of the left ear
B. Vestibular nerve of the right ear
C. Motor nerves of the right half of the body
D. Motor nerves of the left half of the body
4. The sound wave conducting apparatus is represented by:
A. Middle ear ossicles
B. Oval window membrane and inner ear fluids
C. 8th pair of cranial nerves, acoustic branch
D. External auditory canal and eardrum
5. The ear cavities filled with perilymph are:
A. Tympanic ramp of the cochlea
B. Vestibular ramp of the cochlea
C. Semicircular channels
D. Cochlear duct
6. The ear cavities filled with endolymph are:
A. Tympanic ramps of the cochlea
B. Cochlear duct
C. Vestibular ramp of the cochlea
D. Semicircular channels
7. The explanation of basilar membrane tonotopy is:
A. Travelling wave theory
B. low-frequency waves travel the furthest, reaching maximum amplitude in the broadest area of the basilar membrane
C. Waves with a frequency above 8000 cycles/second travel to the tip of the cochlea
D. high-frequency waves travel least, in the narrowest area of the basilar membrane
8. The auditory ascending pathway makes connections with:
A. Anterior quadrigeminal tubercle
B. Caudal quadrigeminal tubercle
C. Oculomotor nerve nuclei
D. Trapezoid body nuclei
9. In deafness associated with skin depigmentation in Dalmatian dogs:
A. Only bone propagated sounds are perceived
B. Neither airborne nor bone-borne sounds are heard
C. Auditory evoked potentials transmitted through the brainstem are absent
D. The auditory cortical area receives only auditory potentials evoked as a result of applying sounds directly to the cochlea
10. Aqueous moisture is found in:
A. Anterior chamber of the eye
B. Posterior chamber of the eye
C. In the space between the cornea and the lens
D. Behind the lens
11. Which of the following statements about the cornea is false?
A. The surface of the cornea in the cat occupies a greater proportion of the surface of the eyeball than in the dog
B. The transparency of the cornea is directly proportional to its degree of hydration
C. The cornea has a rich sensory innervation, being an extremely sensitive tissue
D. The cornea is highly vascularised, requiring a constant supply of nutrients
12. The constriction of the pupil in the vertical plane in cats provides:
A. Night vision
B. Daytime vision
C. Image formation above and below the blind spot
D. Imaging exactly on the optical disc
13. Diopter accommodation involves:
A. Variation of dioptres in the cornea
B. Variation of dioptres in the lens
C. Clear view of both near and far objects
D. Clear vision in both dim and bright light
14. The stock of cis-retinal (retinal) that ensures rhodopsin resynthesis is replenished:
A. In the dark
B. Under the influence of light rays
C. In the presence of vitamin A
15. Regarding the consensual pupillary reflex, the following statements are false:
A. When light acts on the right eye, the pupilloconstrictor reflex is produced in both eyes
B. Bilateral pupillary constriction is due to total crossing of the optic nerve fibres at the level of the optic chiasm.
C. The consensual reflex does not occur if the eye is blind
D. The reflex closes in the Edinger-Westphal parasympathetic nucleus in the midbrain and does not engage the cerebral cortex
16. In the dog, nictitating membrane may become evident in the following circumstances:
A. Strychnine poisoning
B. Hyperplasia of the lymphatic tissue associated with this membrane
C. Action of orthosympathetic ganglioplegic substances
D. tetanus
17. Pupil dilator reflex:
A. Has its reflex centre in the Edinger-Westphal parasympathetic nucleus in the midbrain
B. Has the cilio-spinal reflex centre in the orthosympathetic neurons of the intermediatelateral horns of the thoracic cord T1-T2
C. Has the efferent pathway represented by the common oculomotor nerve and the superior cervical ganglion
D. Has a common afferent pathway with the pupilloconstrictor reflex, represented by the optic nerve
18. In dogs and cats, the adaptation of the eye to darkness is provided by:
A. Myosis reflex
B. Mydriasis reflex
C. The inner layer of the choroid - tapetum lucidum, which allows light rays to pass back and forth through the photoreceptor cell layer
D. Reduction of photopigment concentration in rod cellsâ
19. The disruption of optic nerve fibres occurs in different proportions in different animal species. Thus:
A. There are no species with total decussation, only partial decussation
B. The proportion of crossed fibres is higher in species with laterally placed eyes
C. The proportion of direct (uncrossed) fibers is higher in primates and other animals with frontally placed eyes
D. The area of binocular vision, overlapping the two visual fields, is greater in pigeons than in owls
20. Deuteroneuron of the visual pathway:
A. Is the ganglion cell in the retina
B. Is the bipolar cell in the retina
C. Connects with the third neuron in the optic colliculi of the midbrain
D. Connects with the third neuron in the lateral geniculate nucleus in the thalamus
1. Paracrine transmission of hormone secretion involves:
A. The action of a hormone released into the interstitial space directly on secretory cells to regulate their own secretion
B. The action of a hormone released into the interstitial space on target cells in the same tissue
C. Release into the bloodstream and remote action of a hormone synthesised by endocrine neurons
D. Release into the bloodstream and remote action on peripheral target cells of hormones synthesized by specialized endocrine cells.
2. Autocrine transmission of hormone secretion involves:
A. The action of a hormone released into the interstitial space directly on secretory cells to regulate their own secretion
B. The action of a hormone released into the interstitial space on target cells in the same tissue
C. Release into the bloodstream and remote action of a hormone synthesised by endocrine neurons
D. Release into the bloodstream and remote action on peripheral target cells of hormones synthesized by specialized endocrine cells.
3. Endocrine transmission of hormone secretion involves:
A. The action of a hormone released into the interstitial space directly on secretory cells to regulate their own secretion
B. The action of a hormone released into the interstitial space on target cells in the same tissue
C. Release into the bloodstream and remote action of a hormone synthesised by endocrine neurons
D. Release into the bloodstream and remote action on peripheral target cells of hormones synthesized by specialized endocrine cells.
4. One of the following molecules is not considered a secondary messenger in hormone transmission:
A. Cyclic AMP
B. Calcium-calmodulin
C. Diacylglycerol
D. Albumin
5. In the hypothalamus-hypophysis-peripheral gland axis, long feed-back involves:
A. The action of the hormone produced by the peripheral gland on the hypothalamus or pituitary gland
B. Action of the hormone synthesized by the pituitary on the hypothalamus
C. Action of the hormone synthesized by the pituitary and hypothalamus on target cells in the peripheral gland
D. Autocrine action of the hormone produced by the hypothalamus
6. In the hypothalamus-hypophysis-peripheral gland axis, short feed-back involves:
A. The action of the hormone produced by the peripheral gland on the hypothalamus or pituitary gland
B. Action of the hormone synthesized by the pituitary on the hypothalamus
C. Action of the hormone synthesized by the hypothalamus on the pituitary gland
D. Autocrine action of the hormone produced by the hypothalamus
7. Antidiuretic hormone is produced by ____/ and has as its target organ___:
A. Adrenal gland/kidneys
B. hypothalamus/rhini
C. neurohypophysis/adrenal gland
D. adenohypophysis/adrenal gland
8. The following statement is true:
A. ADH and oxytocin are synthesised by the hypothalamus and stored in the adenohypophysis
B. ADH is released by the neurohypophysis in dehydration
C. Oxytocin released by the adenohypophysis during the last period of gestation determines mammary gland development and milk secretion
D. Oxytocin causes relaxation of the myometrium
9. Increased synthesis of STH is triggered by:
A. somatostatin
B. sleep
C. Carbohydrate intake
D. hypocalcaemia
10. ACTH is produced by___/and has as its target organ___:
A. Adrenal gland/kidneys
B. adenohypophysis/adrenal gland
C. neurohypophysis/uterus and mammary gland
D. adenohypophysis/phosphate
11. Interstitial cell-stimulating hormone (ICSH) is produced by ___/ has as target cells__ and activates__:
A. adenohypophysis/Sertoli cells/spermatogenesis
B. adenohypophysis/Leydig cells/testosterone synthesis
C. testis/Leydig cells/testosterone synthesis
D. testis/Sertoli cells/spermatogenesis
12. Identify the false statement:
A. Melatonin is synthesised by the pineal gland during the night
B. The pineal gland receives orthosympathetic input from the intermediate-lateral neurons of the spinal cord via the superior cervical gnaglion
C. Melatonin inhibits reproductive function by direct antiandrogenic effect
D. Melatonin induces the concentration of melanin in pigment cells and causes skin colour to open up in lower vertebrates
13. Melatonin is an indole-amine hormone synthesized from:
A. tryptophan
B. tyrosine
C. cysteine
D. Arachidonic acid
14. Thyroid hormones act intracellularly by:
A. Formation of the T4-membrane receptor coupling, then generation of the intracytoplasmic Ca-calmodulin secondary messenger
B. Formation of T3-nuclear receptor coupling, then mRNA generation and transcription of genes involved in protein synthesis
C. T3 action and cAMP generation
D. Production of somatomedin, intermediates of protein synthases
15. Thyroid hormones are synthesized in higher concentration in the:
A. winter
B. summer
C. night
D. day
17. Identify the false statement:
A. Insulin is produced by the beta cells of the Langerhans islets in the pancreas
B. Insulin stimulates hepatic gluconeogenesis
C. Insulin ensures the uptake of glucose, fatty acids and amino acids from the blood to stimulate anabolic processes and the storage of energy reserves
D. The release of insulin is caused by an increase in blood glucose concentration immediately after food consumption
19. Increased potassium concentration in the blood stimulates the synthesis of:
A. aldosterone
B. cortisol
C. insulin
D. thyroxine
20. Androgenic hormones and estrogen hormones are synthesized from:
A. Amino acids
B. Arachidonic acid
C. cholesterol
D. globulin
1. The fun
A. hypothalamic-adenohypophyseal portal-venous system
B. hypothalamic-adenohypophyseal nervous tract
C. hypothalamo-neurohypophysis portal-venous system
D. hypothalamo-neurohypophysis nervous tract
2. The stimulatory factors of ADH secretion are:
A. hypovolaemia
B. hypervolemia
C. Increased blood osmolarity
D. Increased blood pressure
3. Stimulatory factors of oxytocin secretion are:
A. hyperglycemia
B. Stimulation of the nipple's tactile receptors
C. Mechanical stimulation of the genital tract
D. cold
4. Somatostatin represents:
A. an STH-releasing hormone
B. an STH-inhibiting hormone
C. a TSH-inhibiting hormone
D. A cell growth intermediate released by the liver
5. Identify false statements:
A. Hypothalamic gonadoliberin acts directly on the gonads to trigger ovogenesis and spermatogenesis respectively
B. Hypothalamic gonadoliberin acts on the adenohypophysis to release gonadotropic hormones
C. TRH acts on the thyroid to produce thyroxine synthesis
D. Thyraoliberin causes the release of TSH by the anterior pituitary
6. Growth hormone (STH):
A. Has a general anabolic effect
B. Acts through cyclic AMP
C. Acting through somatomedin
D. Promotes the uptake of glucose into cells and its use as an energy resource
7. The release of the hormone triad CRH-ACTH-cortisol is necessary for:
A. Adaptation of the body to stress
B. Production of physiological analgesia
C. Regulating the body's water balance
D. Control of protidic, lipid and gluicidic metabolism
8. Identify the correct statements:
A. After taking synthetic corticosteroids, complete recovery of the hypothalamushypophysis-adrenal axis takes about a year
B. The highest blood level of ACTH is found during the night
C. Circadian rhythm does not influence the concentration of corticoid hormones in the blood
D. ACTH originates from the proopiomelanocortin molecule synthesised by the adenohypophysis
9. The effects of FSH are:
A. Development of ovarian follicles and secretion of estrogen hormones
B. Formation of the corpus luteum on the ovary and synthesis of progesterone
C. Development of seminiferous tubules and promotion of spermatogenesis
D. ovulation
10. Melanostimulatory hormone has the following roles:
A. Chromatic adaptation to the environment of lower vertebrates
B. Dissipation of melanin in the pigment cells and darkening of the skin
C. Concentration of melanin in pigment cells and the opening of the skin to colour
D. Rhodopsin resynthesis in photoreceptor cells
11. Prolactin has the following effects:
A. Mammary gland development and milk formation
B. Milk ejection
C. Secretion of a nutrient by the pigeon's gill epithelium
D. Development of the nesting instinct
12. The pineal gland synthesizes the hormone ___/effect___:
A. androhalone/antiandrogen
B. Melanostimulating hormone/chromatic adaptation to the environment
C. arginine-vasotocin/GN-RH inhibitor
D. melatonin/GN-RH inhibitor
13. Identify the true statements:
A. Seasonal breeding activity in some animals depends on the change in photoperiod (daylight in 24 hours)
B. Serotonin is synthesized in pinealocytes during the night and melatonin during the day
C. Melatonin stimulates hormone synthesis in the hypothalamus-pituitary-gonadal axis.
D. The biological clock that controls the rhythm of epiphyseal hormone secretion is the suprachiasmatic nucleus
14. The hormones synthesized by the thyroid gland are:
A. Thyroxine and triiodthyronine
B. TSH
C. calcitonin
D. STH
15. The thyroid hormones T3 and T4 are involved in:
A. Postnatal growth
B. Intrauterine fetal growth
C. Brain development and axon myelination
D. Calcium regulation
16. Which of the following statements is false?
A. Cold has a stimulatory effect on thyroid hormone synthesis
B. The iodine required for thyroid hormone synthesis comes from the diet and is actively taken up by the thyroid gland
C. less STH is synthesised in the absence of iodine
D. Excess thyroid hormones cause weight gain
17. Parathormone has the following effects:
A. Stimulation of osteolysis processes
B. Stimulation of osteogenesis processes
C. hypocalcaemia
D. hypercalcaemia
18. Calcitonin has the following effects:
A. Stimulation of osteolysis processes
B. Stimulation of osteogenesis processes
C. hypocalcaemia
D. hypercalcaemia
19. Parathormone acts on the kidney, where it has the following effects:
A. Calcium reabsorption
B. Phosphate reabsorption
C. vitamin D activation
D.excretion of excess calcium
20. Identify the correct statements:
A. Androgenic hormones have a stimulatory effect on protein anabolism
B. Progesterone favours the development of proliferative endometrium and sensitises the uterus to the action of oxytocin
C. Estrogen hormones promote calcium deposition in bones
D. Relaxin is the hormone of tranquillity, which prevents heat in the pregnant female
1. The erythrocyte membrane is adapted for:
A. Transmembrane transport of substances; external electropositive charging; maintenance of characteristic biconcave disc shape.
B. Erythrocyte antigen exposure; external electronegative charge; deformability.
C. Resistance to osmotic variations; electrical neutrality; maintenance of characteristic spherical shape.
D. Exposure of membrane antibodies; resistance to thermal variations; roll formation
2. Fetal haemoglobin is characterised by:
A. 2 alpha polypeptide chains, 2 gamma polypeptide chains; maximum affinity for oxygen.
B. 2 alpha polypeptide chains, 2 beta polypeptide chains; low affinity for oxygen.
C. 2 beta polypeptide chains, 2 gamma polypeptide chains; minimal affinity for oxygen.
D. 2 polypeptide chains (one alpha and one gamma) with maximum affinity for oxygen.
3. Erythrocyte anisocytosis is:
A. Reduction in the number of red blood cells
B. Variation in haematite sizes
C. Variation in the shape of red blood cells
D. Reduction of osmotic resistance of red blood cells
4. MCV stands for:
A. A derived erythrocyte constant that provides relationships for the average volume of an erythrocyte, calculated from the hematocrit value and the number of erythrocytes per mmc of blood.
B. The average sedimentation rate of erythrocytes, providing relationships about the quality of erythrocytes to form rolls and to sediment under the action of gravitational force.
C. A derived erythrocyte constant that provides relationships about the mean value of the haemoglobin content of erythrocytes, calculated on the basis of total blood haemoglobin (g/dl) and the number of erythrocytes (million/mmc of blood).
D. A derived erythrocyte constant that provides relationships about the mean value of the haemoglobin concentration of the blood, calculated from total blood haemoglobin (g/dl) and haematocrit (%).
5. MCH stands for:
A. A derived erythrocyte constant that provides relationships for the average volume of an erythrocyte, calculated from the hematocrit value and the number of erythrocytes per mmc of blood.
B. The average sedimentation rate of erythrocytes, providing relationships about the quality of erythrocytes to form rolls and to sediment under the action of gravitational force.
C. A derived erythrocyte constant that provides relationships about the mean value of the haemoglobin content of erythrocytes, calculated on the basis of total blood haemoglobin (g/dl) and the number of erythrocytes (million/mmc of blood).
D. A derived erythrocyte constant that provides relationships about the mean value of the haemoglobin concentration of the blood, calculated from total blood haemoglobin (g/dl) and haematocrit (%).
6. MCHC represents:
A. A derived erythrocyte constant that provides relationships for the average volume of an erythrocyte, calculated from the hematocrit value and the number of erythrocytes per mmc of blood.
B. The average sedimentation rate of erythrocytes, providing relationships about the quality of erythrocytes to form rolls and to sediment under the action of gravitational force.
C. A derived erythrocyte constant which gives relationships about the mean value of the haemoglobin concentration of the blood, calculated from total blood haemoglobin (g/dl) and haematocrit (%).
D. A derived erythrocyte constant that provides relationships about the mean value of the haemoglobin concentration of the blood, calculated from total blood haemoglobin (g/dl) and haematocrit (%).
7. Erythrocyte deformability is important for:
A. Maintaining constant blood pH and osmolarity
B.Erythrocyte antigen exposure and roll formation
C. Erythrocyte circulation in the territory of the microcirculation and respiratory gas exchange
D. Blood circulation in the veins and Cl-bicarbonate exchange at the erythrocyte membrane, with water attraction and increased erythrocyte volume
8. Erythrocyte aggregability or the arrangement of erythrocytes in coils influences:
A. Derived erythrocyte constants
B. Sedimentation rate of red blood cells
C. Osmotic resistance of red blood cells
D. Hydrostatic blood pressure
9. The minimum osmotic resistance threshold of red blood cells is:
A. Weak hypotonic environment in which only aged and worn red blood cells is destroyed.
B. Weak hypotonic environment in which only young haematites are destroyed.
C. Hypertonic medium in which few red blood cells are destroyed.
D. The isotonic medium to which all red blood cells resists.
10. The threshold of the maximum osmotic resistance of red blood cells is:
A. Weak hypotonic environment in which only aged and worn red blood cells is destroyed.
B. The hypotonic environment in which all red blood cells is destroyed
C. Isotonic medium in which red blood cells is not destroyed.
D. Weak hypotonic environment in which only young haematids are destroyed.
11. In humans, the following preformed (genetically determined) antibodies against blood group antigens exist in blood plasma:
A. alpha (anti-A) isoagglutinin in group B individuals, beta (anti-B) isoagglutinin in group A individuals and both alpha and beta isoagglutinins in group 0 individuals.
B. Alpha isoagglutinin in group B individuals, beta isoagglutinin in group A individuals and both alpha and beta isoagglutinins in group AB individuals.
C. alpha-isoglutinin (anti-A) and beta-isoglutinin (anti-B) in group AB individuals.
D. anti-Rh antibodies in Rh-negative individuals.
12. Blood group 0 (zero) is characterized by:
A. Presence of agglutinogens A and B and agglutinins alpha and beta (anti A and anti B)
B. Presence of agglutinins A and B and absence of alpha and beta agglutinins (anti-A and anti-B)
C. Absence of agglutinogens A and B and presence of alpha and beta agglutinins (anti A and anti B).
D. Absence of Rh antigens and presence of anti-Rh antibodies.
13. The Rh system in humans, the Su system in pigs and the Do system in dogs are blood group systems characterised by:
A. The presence of a heme antigen (Rh+, respectively, Su+, respectively, Do+) in some individuals and the absence of this antigen (Rh-, Su-, Do-), but the presence of preformed anti-Rh, anti-Su, anti-Do antibodies in other individuals in the population.
B. The presence of a heme antigen (Rh+, respectively, Su+, respectively, Do+) in some individuals and the absence of this antigen (Rh-, Su-, Do-), as well as the absence of preformed anti-Rh, anti-Su, anti-Do antibodies in other individuals in the population.
C. The presence of preformed anti-Rh, anti-Su, anti-Do antibodies in all individuals in the human, porcine and canine populations respectively.
D. The presence of Rh, Su, Do antigens in all individuals in the human, swine and canine populations respectively.
14. Physiological erythrolysis is predominantly produced by:
A. SRE macrophages in spleen, liver, bone marrow.
B. Peripheral blood phagocytes.
C. The direct action of metabolites, hemoglobin is then captured by haptoglobin and transported to the macrophage system.
D. The lymphocyte-plasmacyte system in lymph nodes.
15. The total blood volume (volemia) of body weight is approximately:
A. 5 - 10 %
B. 1 - 5 %
C. 10 - 15 %
D. 15 - 20 %
16. Hematocrit ( Ht ) decreases in :
A. Chronic respiratory diseases
B. anaemia
C. polyglobules
D. dehydration
17. The following statements are true, with one exception. Identify the false statement:
A. The physiological haemostasis function is achieved by means of specialised figurative elements (blood platelets) and plasma coagulation factors
B. Thermoregulatory function is a basic element of general homeostasis, conditioning the rate and efficiency of metabolic reactions.
C. Through its nutritive function, the blood is the main transporter of catabolites from the tissue to the excretory organs.
D. The defence function is carried out by means of specific proteins (antibodies) as well as by means of specialised figure elements (leukocytes).
18. The value of colloidosmotic (oncotic) pressure is:
A. 5300 mmHg
B. 300 osm/litre
C. 280 osm/litre
D. 25 mmHg
20. The haemoglobin cluster consists of:
A. lipid (0.7%), protein (10%), carbohydrate (0.5%)
B. Two alpha chains of 141 amino acids each
C. Two beta chains, each containing 164 amino acids
D. An iron atom (Fe2+) fixed in the centre of a tetrapyrrolic nucleus
21. An Hb molecule can carry when saturated:
A. 2 molecule of O2
B. 6 molecule O2
C. 4 molecule O2
D. 8 molecule of O2
22. The following statements are true, except for one:
A. The site of erythropoiesis is in the haematogenous bone marrow.
B. The site of haem destruction (physiological haemolysis) is in the monocytophagic system in the spleen and general circulation.
C. 85% of the human population carries the Rh antigen on their blood.
D. group 0 can donate to all groups (universal donor), but can only receive from group 0.
23. The following statements are true, except for one:
A. Cats have only 3 blood types (A, B and AB).
B. The dog can receive blood from any blood group and at the first and second transfusion as it has no foreign group antibodies.
C. post-transfusion injury can occur in cats as early as the first blood transfusion if they receive blood from another group.
D. Cattle lack agglutinogens on the surface of haematids.
24. Morphologically, leukocytes are classified into:
A. Lymphocytes and monocytes
B. Neutrophils and eosinophils
C. Monocytes and mononuclears
D. Polymorphonuclear and mononuclear
25. Mononuclear leukocytes are also called ___/and are represented by ___:
A. granulocytes/lymphocytes, neutrophils and basophils
B. agranulocytes/lymphocytes and monocytes
C.agranulocytes/ monocytes, eosinophilic and basophilic
D. neutrophilic, eosinophilic and basophilic granulocytes
26. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes are also called ___/ and are represented by ___:t:
A. granulocytes/lymphocytes, neutrophils and basophils
B. agranulocytes/lymphocytes and monocytes
C.agranulocytes/ monocytes, eosinophilic and basophilic
D. neutrophilic, eosinophilic and basophilic granulocytes
27. The monocytomacrophagic complex consists of:
A. Lymphocytes and fixed macrophage group
B. Monocytes and fixed and mobile macrophage group
C. Neutrophils and monocytes
D. Neutrophils and fixed and mobile macrophage group
28. Which of the following statements is not true about eosinophils:
A. Eosinophils perform phagocytosis of immune complexes and denatured immunoglobulins
B. Eosinophils are plasminogen deposits
C. Eosinophils contain 1/3 of the total amount of histamine in normal blood
D. Glucocorticoids increase the number of circulating eosinophils
29. Platelets (blood platelets) are not involved in:
A. Spontaneous haemostasis
B. Capture and removal of endotoxins from circulation
C. Production of inflammation
D. Tissue oxygenation
30. The parietal haemostasis time is :
A. White thrombus formation.
B. All phenomena whereby the lumen of the injured vessel shrinks (vasoconstriction).
C. The set of coagulation phenomena consisting of the formation of fibrin thrombus, which by retraction ensures the definitive closure of the vessel.
D. The process that occurs after 7 days when the fibrin thrombus is destroyed by the process of fibrinolysis.
31. The plasma haemostasis time is :
A. White thrombus formation.
B. All phenomena whereby the lumen of the injured vessel shrinks (vasoconstriction).
C. The set of coagulation phenomena consisting of the formation of fibrin thrombus, which by retraction ensures the definitive closure of the vessel.
D. The process that occurs after 7 days when the fibrin thrombus is destroyed by the process of fibrinolysis.
32. The thrombocyte time of haemostasis is :
A. White thrombus formation.
B. All phenomena whereby the lumen of the injured vessel shrinks (vasoconstriction).
C. The set of coagulation phenomena consisting of the formation of fibrin thrombus, which by retraction ensures the definitive closure of the vessel.
D. The process that occurs after 7 days when the fibrin thrombus is destroyed by the process of fibrinolysis.
33. The fibrinolytic system includes:
A. plasminogen-plasmin coupling
B. prothrombin-thrombin coupling
C. Thrombostenin and actin-myosin couple
D. Platelet factor 3 and heparin
34. Stage II of the blood clotting process, according to the enzyme cascade theory, consists of:
A. Transformation of prothrombin to thrombin under the influence of activated factor X
B. Transformation of fibrinogen into fibrin, under the influence of thrombin
C. Formation of prothrombin activators intrinsically
D. Formation of prothrombin activators extrinsically
35. The final stage of the blood clotting process consists of:
A. Activation of the fibrinolytic system by plasmin
B. Clot retraction using a thrombocyte factor - thrombostenin.
C. Clot retraction using a platelet phospholipid - FP3.
D. The action of heparin and antithrombin to limit the clotting process at the site of vascular injury
1. The physiological combinations of haemoglobin to perform the fun
A. oxyhaemoglobin.
B. methaemoglobin
B. Haemoglobin carbamate.
C. carboxyhemoglobin.
2. The non-physiological combinations of haemoglobin are:
A. carboxyhemoglobin,
B. Haemoglobin carbamate.
C. methemoglobin.
D. sulfhemoglobin
3. The stability of the erythrocyte suspension in plasma depends on:
A. The electrical charge of red blood cells.
B. NaCl concentration of blood plasma.
C. Plasma globulin concentration.
D. Plasma albumin concentration
4. In humans, the following preformed (genetically determined) antibodies against blood group antigens may exist in blood plasma:
A. anti A antibodies
B. anti-B antibodies
C. anti Rh antibodies
D. anti-thrombocyte antibodies
5. The physiological stimulus that causes erythropoietin synthesis could be:
A. Renal tissue hypoxia
B. Renal arterial hypotension
D. Reduction of oxyhemoglobin concentration in blood
D. Increased blood oxyhemoglobin concentration
6. The globular volume can physiologically represent:
A. 10 % of the blood volume
B. 40 % of the blood volume
C. 50 % of the blood volume
D. 60 % of the blood pressure
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