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Aviation Meteorology Quiz

Welcome to the Aviation Meteorology Quiz! Test your knowledge on crucial weather phenomena, atmospheric conditions, and their implications for aviation. Whether you're a pilot, student, or aviation enthusiast, this quiz is designed to challenge your understanding of key concepts.

Key Features:

  • 84 multiple-choice questions
  • Questions sorted by difficulty and topic
  • Instant feedback on your answers
84 Questions21 MinutesCreated by FlyingCloud921
Indications about the height of the tropopause are usually required in pre-flight preparation as it aids the flight crew with selecting appropriate cruising levels. However, for flights in the tropics, this information is considered non-essential in flight documentation. What is the reason for this exception (050 01)?
The temperature of the tropical tropopause is usually low and therefore irrelevant
The tropopause is always at the same height (11 km)
The meteorological services cannot provide such documentation
The tropical tropopause is generally higher than the flight levels actually flown
The pressure datum used in producing surface pressure charts is...
QFE
QNH
QFF
IA
Which of the following scenarios is most likely to cause significant changes in surface temperature due to radiation? (050 01)
Cooling of the surface during a cloudless night
Southern winds bringing Mediterranean air will lead to a raise in surface temperature as they blow over the Alps
Warming of the surface due to the effects of a depression
Cooling of the surface due to a long lasting anticyclone
Prior to commencing the approach the pilot sets the subscale of the pressure altimeter to the local QNH. On landing, the altimeter will indicate …..(050 01)
The Airfield Elevation
Zero
The airfield elevation only if the atmospheric conditions correspond to those of the Standard Atmosphere
Zero only if the atmospheric conditions correspond to those of the Standard Atmosphere
According to the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA), the vertical temperature lapse rate is (050 01)?
2 C per 1000 ft up to the 36,090 ft after which it remains constant to 65,617 ft
0.65 C per 1000 ft up to 65,617 ft after which it will remain constant to 105,988 ft
2 C per 1000 ft up to 36,090 ft after which it will rise at 0.3 C per 1000 ft up to 65,617 ft and then it will remain constant
0 C per 1000 ft up to the tropopause after which it remains constant to 65,617 ft
An aircraft flying in a mountainous area is required to clear terrain by a minimum of 2000 ft. The tallest peak in the area has a recorded height of 4490 ft. The pilot is instructed that an airport located at an elevation of 2480 ft has recorded a QNH of 997 hPa and a temperature of -01 C. Which is the lowest useable flight level the pilot should choose to fly at in order to clear terrain by the specified clearance (050 01):
FL 70
FL 80
FL 65
FL 75
The destination airport has an elevation of 540 ft and the local QNH is 995 hPa. The pilot was too distracted and forgot to change the altimeter subscale to the QNH. It was left on 1013 hPa. Upon landing, the altimeter will indicate (050 01)?
1200 ft
1080 ft
1500 ft
2500 ft
Isobars on a surface pressure chart extending away from an anti-cyclone depict which synoptic feature? (050 01)?
A Ridge of Low Pressure
A Ridge of High Pressure
Trough
Ridge Trough
The QNH at an airfield located 1500 ft above sea level is 1023 hPa. The air temperature is not available. What is the QFF (050 01)?
It is not possible to give a definitive answer
More than 1023 hPa
Less than 1023 hPa
1002 hPa
How can air temperature affect the true vertical distance between flight levels (050 01)?
A cold air advection reduces the distance between flight levels
A cold air advection means rising of less dense air and thus the distance between flight levels will be reduce
The advection of warm air will lead to a reduction in the distance between flight levels
As cold and dense air rises, the airflow is accelerated and due to the Bernoulli effect the distance between the flight levels is increased
Which of the following statements is/are correct about the geostrophic wind (Select the 2 that apply) (050 02)?
It is perpendicular to the pressure gradient force
Veers with height if there is a cold air advection in the Northern Hemisphere
It is found where the isobars are straight lines and no surface friction is involved
It is directly proportional to the density of the air
It follows the curvature of the isobars
An aircraft is making an approach into Paris at midday. As the aircraft descents from 2000 ft, the wind is expected to…. (050 02):
Remain the same as when the final descent was commenced
Back and decrease in speed
Back and increase in speed
Veer and decrease in speed
It is a sunny afternoon and you are making a visual approach into an airfield located on the coast in the Northern Hemisphere. The runway is parallel to the coast and you are currently on downwind over the sea, having the runway to your right. What wind effect are you expecting on final (050 02)?
Tailwind
Crosswind from the right
Headwind
Crosswind from the Left
With all other conditions being the same, the wind speed in a system with curved isobars compared to a system with straight isobars is (050 02)?
Higher if curvature is cyclonic
Lower if curvature is anticyclonic
Always lower
Higher if curvature is anticyclonic
Which of the following winds mostly blows down the slope during the night (050 02)?
Land breeze
Anabatic wind
Harmattan
Katabatic wind
The approximate ratio between height and width of the average jet stream cross section is…(050 02)
1/10
1/100
1/1
1/1000
Where are the strongest Clear Air Turbulence associated with the northern hemisphere polar front jet stream most likely to be encountered (050 02)?
If looking downstream, in the area to the left of the core
Inside the core
If looking downstream, in the area to the right of the core
Above the core in the boundary area between the warm and cold air
(Refer to Appendix A) Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic wind circulation, the zone marked ‘W’ is an area of (050 02)…
Subtropical high pressure belt
Doldrums
Travelling low pressure systems
SE trade winds
What set of conditions are likely to lead to the formation of mountain waves (050 02)?
Instability at the top of the mountain range and wind of at least 20 kts blowing across the mountain ridge
Wind of no more than 10 kts blowing perpendicular to the mountain ridge and moist unstable air at the mountain top
Wind of at least 20 kts blowing across the mountain ridge and stable air at the mountain top
Stability at the mountain top and wind of minimum 20 kts blowing parallel to the mountain ridge
Mountain waves can be very dangerous because they create rotors which could exceed the structural capability of the aircraft. When compared to the top of the mountain range, the height of the first rotor is likely to be… (050 02)?
Below the top, on the windward side of the mountain
Much higher than the top of the mountain ridge on the leeward side
On the leeward side, up to 1000 ft above the mountain top
On the leeward side and at the same height or just below the top of the mountain
For both saturated and unsaturated air, the atmosphere will be unstable when ….(050 03)?
The ELR is greater than SALR but less than DALR
The ELR is greater than both DALR and SALR
The DALR is greater than both SALR and ELR
The DALR is less than SALR but greater than ELR
The process of evaporation involves… (050 03)
Latent heat is absorbed
Latent heat is released
Relative humidity remains unchanged
Relative humidity decreases
Which of the following statements is correct about the dew point (050 03)?
It is the temperature at which the water vapour in the air will condense and turn into a layer of frost on any exposed surface
It is the ratio of water vapour present in the air at a certain temperature compared to what it would be present at saturation
It is the temperature at which the pressure exerted by the water vapour present in a sample of air is equal to zero
It is the temperature at which the water vapour present in a sample of air will reach saturation
€Dark, grey, featureless layers of cloud, thick enough to block out the Sun and produce persistent rain.“ Which cloud type is described by the above statement? (050 04)
Cumulonimbus
Stratocumulus
Nimbostratus
Stratus
Steam fog, also known as arctic smoke, forms due to….(050 04)
Warm air moving over cold water
Cold air moving over warmer water
Cooling of the seas at night
Cooling of the surface in coastal regions at night
The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates (050 04)?
Subsidence in a large part of the troposphere
Instability in the middle troposphere
Stability in the higher troposphere
Strong convection at low height
At a coastal airport in Spain, the reported temperature/dew point values are 10/5. As a maritime air mass moves over the area, advection fog is most likely to form if the temperature/dew point values of this air mass has are…(050 04)
20/05
25/10
20/15
10/05
Altostratus clouds are mainly formed of (050 04)?
Snow grains and water droplets
Water droplets and water vapour
Ice crystals and ice pellets
Ice crystals and water droplets
Which cloud type can cause an optical phenomenon around the sun known as the “halo phenomenon” (050 04):
Nimbostratus
Cirrostratus
Cirrus
Altostratus
An aircraft is in a holding pattern at 3000 ft above the destination aerodrome, awaiting their clearance for the approach. The pilots have the landing runways clearly visible and are able to maintain it in sight. A second aircraft is on short final and as it approaches the threshold, the pilots initiate a missed approach due to loss of visual references with the runway. The most likely cause of loss of visual contact is… (050 04)
Advection fog
Frontal fog
Mist and fog
Shallow fog
Altocumulus clouds are classified as (050 04)…
High level clouds
Medium level clouds
Low level clouds
A-level clouds
According to the coalescence theory, precipitation will most likely (050 05)?
Only occur in the Tropics
Be light rain or drizzle in the mid-latitudes
Only occur in the mid-latitudes
Form at the expense of supercooled water droplets
Which type of clouds is most likely to produce steady precipitation…. (050 05)?
Convective clouds with moderate turbulence
Stratiform clouds with severe turbulence
Convective clouds with little or no turbulence
Stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence
(Refer to Appendix B) The advection of a maritime polar air mass is indicated by arrow….(050 06):
6
4
5
1
In Europe during summer time, the continental tropical air is most likely coming from….
Southern France
The Azores
The southern Balkan region and the Near East
Southern Italy
Following the passage of an active cold front, an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground will show (050 06):
A small increase or decrease in altitude
A decrease in altitude
The elevation of the aerodrome
An increase in altitude
(Refer to Appendix C) Assuming the usual direction of movement, to which of the following positions will this polar frontal wave move (050 06):
1
2
3
4
The passage of a warm front affecting the south of England is usually indicated by which of the following combinations (050 06):
Rise in temperature and rapid rise in pressure, the wind becomes gusty and backs
The temperature and the dew point temperature both rise, the wind veers and increases
A rapid fall in pressure, good visibility and the wind veers and increases
The temperature decreases, the dew point temperature rises, the wind backs and decreases
Which option correctly places, in a chronological order, the four stages of a mid-attitude depression life cycle? The stages are named and described as follows: • Occlusion: the cold front has caught up with the warm front, the warm air has been partially lifted up. • Developed: fronts are well defined, there is a pronounced warm sector. • Cyclogenesis: a disturbance and fall in pressure causes cyclonic circulation. • Frontolysis: all the warm air has been lifted up (050 06):
Clogenesis, Developed, Occlusion, Frontolysis
Cyclogenesis, Developed, Occlusion, Frontolysis
Clogenesis, Frontolysis, Developed, Occlusion
Frontolysis, Cyclogenesis, Developed, Occlusion
How are the air masses distributed in a cold occlusion? (050 06)
The coldest air behind and the warm air in front of the occlusion; the less cold air mass is above ground level
The coldest air in front of and the warm air behind the occlusion; the less cold air is above ground level
The coldest air in front of and the less cold air is behind the occlusion; the warm air mass is above ground level
The coldest air mass behind and the less cold air in front of the occlusion; the warm air mass is above ground level
The pressure system indicated in a vertical cross section by pressure surfaces at lower heights bulging upward and pressure surfaces at greater heights bulging upward, is a: (050 07)?
Cold high
Warm low
Warm high
Cold low
What is the average diameter of a Tropical revolving Storm in the mature stage? (050 07):
1000 m
500 m
500 km
50 km
What is the maximum sustained wind speed that can be encountered in a tropical storm (050 07)?
60 knots
33 knots
64 knots
63 knots
Considering a primary depression, a secondary depression will most likely appear:
Ahead of a warm front.
On a cold front.
On a warm front.
Ahead of an occluded front
The mean height of the tropical zero degree isotherm is:
16,000ft.
12,000ft.
14,000ft
19,000ft.
A typical thermal depression usually forms (050 07)….:
Over land in winter
Over land in summer
Over ocean in winter
In an anticyclone
What are the characteristics of a cold air pool/drop aloft? (050 08):
These events seldom occur and last a few hours
Conditions become unstable, can generate thunderstorms and showers
The conditions are generally fine at the surface but cold at mid levels
Conditions are colder than usual with surface frost and threat of icing
On the 30th of July you are scheduled for a flight into Mumbai (19oN 73oE), on the west coast of India. You are estimating to commence your approach at 08:15 LT. The weather you are expecting for your arrival is most likely…. (050 08)
05013KT 2500 MIFG SCT003 BKN010 20/14 Q1012 BECMG 8000 =
25014KT 4500 SHRA SCT010 BKN025CB 25/24 Q1007 NOSIG =
20005KT CAVOK 24/09 Q1030 NOSIG =
31012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT100 20/16 Q1022 BECMG 4000 BR =
A snow (tundra) climate is usually characterised by… (050 08):
Travelling depressions affect the area during winter
High pressure dominating in summer with temperatures below freezing all year round
High pressure dominating in winter with the sub-soil being frozen
Temperatures throughout the year are between +5 and +17
Which of the following statements is/are correct: (050 08) 1. In summer, India is affected by the NE monsoon 2. Australia is predominantly located within the dry climatic zone
Both statements are incorrect
Both 1 and 2 are correct
1 is incorrect, 2 is correct
1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the flow of the Trade Winds (050 08):
They are found between the polar high and the travelling depressions
They blow from the subtropical High into the ITCZ
They blow from the ITCZ into the subtropical high
They blow from the subtropical high into the travelling lows
(Refer to appendix H) What figure best indicates the position of the Intertropical Convergence Zone on the first of January? (050 08)
A
B
C
D
The dry, sand and dust laden north easterly wind that blows in winter over large parts of northwest Africa is known as the: (050 08)
Foehn
Bora
Harmattan
Ghibli
You are making an approach into Dakar, West coast of Africa, on 25th of July. The weather you are expecting is most likely…. (050 08)
Dry and clear due to the influence of the Azores High
Wet and thundery due to the proximity of the intertropical convergence zone
Generally clear skies and fine conditions due to the NW trade winds
Poor visibility due to the rising sand caused by the SE trade winds
It is winter and an aircraft is making an approach to land at an airfield where the conditions have led to the formation of a low level inversion. After breaking through the inversion on descent, if the pilot does not intervene, which of the following scenarios are most likely to happen (050 09)?
Thrust will decrease and visibility will improve
Thrust will increase and visibility will deteriorate
Lift will decrease and visibility will improve
Lift will increase and visibility will improve
Which of the following will lead to the formation of rime ice (050 09)?
Water vapour freezing onto the aircraft surface
Snow coming into contact with cold airframe
Large supercooled water droplets freezing in contact with the aircraft surfaces
Small supercooled water droplets freezing in contact with the aircraft surfaces
Windshear areas are often hard to detect. However, sometimes the presence of a particular weather phenomenon can be a visual clue which may help to locate windshear. This phenomenon is…. (050 09):
An extensive layer of altostratus
Fog patches
Virga
Ragged stratus clouds
You are flying at FL180 in a layer of altostratus. The outside air temperature is -19 C. What intensity and type of airframe icing is most likely to occur (050 09)?
Light, rime ice
Moderate, clear ice
Moderate, hoar frost
Light, clear ice
What is the approximate maximum diameter of a microburst? (050 09):
10 km
4 km
2 km
100 km
What hazard is generally associated with a high concentration of ice crystals? (050 09)
Rime Ice
Windshield shattering
Lightning strikes
Ice crystal icing
How, if at all, are the conditions associated with a cold front affected when it crosses a mountain range (050 09):
The mountain range will block the cold front and its activity (weather conditions) will cease immediately
The conditions will intensify “upwind” of the mountains
The mountain range does not have any effect on the weather conditions associated with the passage of a front
The front will weaken as it reaches the mountains
In which of the following situations is an aircraft most susceptible to icing? (050 09):
Flying in heavy drizzle
Level flight below a rain producing cloud when the OAT is below 0 C.
Flying in dense cirrus clouds
Level flight in snowfall beneath a nimbostratus layer
You are flying at FL310 when you experience turbulence which causes you to feel a strain against your seat belts and even though the aircraft is in positive control, you notice some changes in altitude. The cabin crew have informed you that walking is difficult, they had to stop the food service because some unsecured objects were dislodged and the passengers are feeling a definite strain against their seat belt. This turbulence should be reported as: (050 09)
Strong
Extreme
Severe
Moderate
What minimum level of visibility could you encounter in blowing surface snow? (050 09):
1000m
100m
1m
100ft
Which of the following statements best describe St. Elmo’s fire (050 09)?
It is an electric discharge from the aircraft caused by static build-up on the airframe
It is an electric charge of the aircraft due to friction of air molecules over the windscreen and can lead to some damage
It is an electrical discharge from the top of a mature cumulonimbus cloud hitting the windscreen
It is an electrical discharge in the horizontal plane within a thunderstorm
You are flying in a warm air mass at FL270 and you are approaching a cold front when you encounter moderate turbulence. A jet stream is forecast at FL300. What is the fastest way get out of this turbulence (050 09)?
Climbing above the jet stream
Descending
Turning right
Continute at FL270
Which of the following will be a reasonably good indication to a pilot in flight that they are likely to experience significant ice accretion (050 09)?
Ice crystals suspended in the atmosphere
Rain with a negative outside air temperature
A negative outside air temperature and the appearance of cirrus clouds
The onset of Clear Air Turbulence
During flight at FL290 using the airborne weather radar, what is the minimum distance from the strongest echoes at which you should fly to avoid the hazards associated with a severe thunderstorm (050 09)?
10 nm
50 nm
5 nm
20 nm
A gust factor is recorded in a METAR when… (050 10):
The gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed
It exceeds 25 knots
It exceeds 35 knots
The gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speed
Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET: SIGMET 02 VALID 121420/121820 EMBD TS OBS AND FCST IN W PART OF ATHINAI FIR MOV S INTST WKN= (050 10):
Athens airport closed due to thunderstorms The thunderstorm zone should be east of Athens by 1820Z
Thunderstorms should be expected in the western part of the Athens FIR. The thunderstorm zone is moving south. Intensity is weakening.
Thunderstorms have formed in the eastern part of the Athens FIR and are slowly moving west
The thunderstorms in the Athens FIR are increasing in intensity, but are stationary above the western part of the Athens FIR
On a flight from London Gatwick to Palma de Mallorca, as the aircraft is approaching the west of Paris, the cabin crew informs the pilots that there is a passenger with suspected heart attack. The pilots make the decision to divert. What single source of meteorological information can the pilots use to check the latest weather at the aerodromes in the vicinity (050 10)?
AIREP
VOLMET
ATIS
VORTAC
A TREND in a METAR is valid for ________ from the time of observation (050 10):
1 hour
2 hours
4 hours
6 hours
The Meteorological Watch Office (MWO) is responsible for (050 10)…..
Issuing METARS
Issuing aerodrome forecasts
SIGMETs and other information relating to a specific Flight Information Region (FIR)
Standardising weather data collection and dissemination throughout member states
The airborne weather radar receives echoes from…. (050 10):
Fog
Hail
Water Vapour
Any Cloud
Which of the METARs below indicate the highest probability of fog formation in the coming night (050 10)?
201930Z 23010KT 4000 RA BKN010 OVC020 12/10 Q1007 TEMPO 1500 =
201930Z 18003KT 6000 SCT100 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 BR
201930Z 21003KT 7000 NSC 12/M02 Q1028 NOSIG =
201930Z 08015G30KT 3000 -RA OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG =
Which of the following conditions are expected when the term CAVOK is used (050 10)?
9999, NSC, NOSIG
9999, NSC, NSW
9000, NSC, NSW, NOSIG
9000, no clouds, NOSIG
(Refer to Appendix D) In the Significant Weather Chart, at what altitude above Moscow (56°N, 38°E) would you expect the lowest level of the tropopause to be located?
FL210
FL300
FL400
FL350
(Refer to Appendix E ) For a flight planned at FL240 from Madrid to Rome, what weather hazards should be considered? (050 10)
Thunderstorms, hail and moderate or severe turbulence and icing
Frequent CBs
Moderate clear air turbulence
A South-Easterly jet stream
When comparing two satellite images of the same location, taken at the same time, it is noted that the visible image shows a translucent whitish layer while the infrared image shows a large bright-white area. Considering that the above mention features shown on the two images is in the exact same location, this is most likely an indication of…. (050 10)?
Shallow fog
Cumuliform cloud formation
A thin layer of cirrostratus
A thin layer of stratus
(Refer to Appendix F) What is the expected temperature over Geneva at FL320? (050 10):
- 43°C
- 47°C
- 42°C
- 39°C
You are on route on a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (LFPG) to London Heathrow (EGLL) with an estimated time of arrival of 1400 UTC. Considering the forecast information below, what visibility are you most likely to experience on landing? EGLL 272200Z 2806/2824 VRB10KT 5000 BR SCT005 OVC015 BECMG 2813/2814 9000 SHRA OVC020 PROB40 TEMPO 2814/2816 VRB15G30KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 2816/2818 23015KT BECMG 2821/2822 CAVOK =
1000 meters
9000 meters
1600 metres
4000 meters
A pilot preparing for a flight can determine whether there have been any recent reported in-flight severe icing conditions on intended route by checking …. (050 10)
The AIPROX
The SIGMETs
The SNOWTAM
The SIGWX
(Refer to Appendix G) Which of the following ICAO chart symbols indicates widespread haze ? (050 10)
5
2
9
12
An aircraft is compelled to land at the nearest suitable airport due to a passenger with suspected heart attack. The weather is deteriorating and the required minimum RVR for landing cannot be less than 550 meters. Considering the following meteorological reports from the nearby airports, where should the crew diver to (050 10)? EGKK 191050Z 09002KT 0200 FZFG R08R/0350 R08L/0500 VV001 M03/M02 Q1008 WS RWY08R EGLF 191050Z 07002KT 0200 FZFG R06/0300U VVoo1 M02/M02 Q1008 EGGW 191050Z 08003KT 0200 FZFG R08/0700D VV001 M03/M03 Q1007 EGLL 191050Z 09002KT 0100 FZFG R09L/0400U R09R/0500U VV001 M02/M02 Q1007
EGFL
EGGW
EGKK
EGLL
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