Dental emergency midterm
Dental Emergency Midterm Quiz
Test your knowledge on dental emergency procedures with this comprehensive quiz designed for aspiring dental professionals and current practitioners alike.
Prepare yourself by covering key topics such as:
- Handling medical emergencies
- Understanding vital signs
- Managing patient care during crises
If a patient responds positively on his or her medical history to epilepsy, you will need to be on the lookout for:
Hypoglycemia.
Seizures
Dyspnea
None of the above
The next MOST available person to the operator whose patient is experiencing an emergency is responsible for:
Retreiving the emergency kit
Contacting EMS
Recording events of the emergency.
Preparing drugs from the kit for use.
Which of the following is a contributing factor in the increase in medical emergencies in the dental setting?
Decreasing age of the population
Advances in dentistry
Advances in healthcare
None of the above
Albuterol:
Has a quick onset.
The adult dose is one spray and should not be repeated.
Lasts about 30 minutes
Is administered intramuscularly.
An unconscious patient suffering from severe hypoglycemia should receive:
Nitroglycerine sublinguall
Glucagon IM.
SoluCortef IM.
Oral carbohydrate.
All of the following should be taken into account when developing an emergency kit EXCEPT:
Age of dental team members.
Proximity to emergency department.
Familiarity of dental team with kit contents.
Proximity to EMS.
A temperature of 99.8 degrees is considered:
Low grade
Normal
Pyrexia
Hyperthermia
Your patient has a blood pressure of 180/110. This would be considered:
Normal blood pressure.
Stage II hypertension.
Prehypertension.
Stage I hypertension.
The FIRST sound you hear when deflating the blood pressure cuff is the:
Systolic blood pressure
Radial pulse.
Pulse pressure
Diastolic blood pressure.
A size E oxygen cylinder will provide _____ minutes of oxygen.
15
45
30
60
The preferred type of oxygen delivery device used for patients in cardiac arrest is:
Non-rebreather bag.
Nasal cannula
Pocket mask.
Bag mask.
When applying the bag mask, the third, fourth, and fifth fingers should be placed on the bony portion of the mandible and the thumb and index finger placed on the mask to attain a tight seal.
True
False
The type of syncope that is often associated with some noxious stimuli is:
Cardiac
Noncardiac.
Neurocardiogenic.
All of the above.
In children syncope is often caused by:
Medications.
Lack of sleep.
Coughing
Dehydration.
Activation of the sympathetic nervous system during vasodepressor syncope with a lack of physical activity will lead to:
Cerebral ischemia.
Valsalva maneuver.
Hypertension.
Tachycardia.
All of the following are signs of septic shock EXCEPT:
Tissue edema
Increased cardiac output.
Pale, cool skin.
Fever
Which stage of shock is characterized by failure of the vital organs and is irreversible?
Refractory
Compensatory
Initial
Progressive
In hypovolemic shock, the blood loss causes the body to initially compensate by:
Decreasing heart rate.
Increasing heart rate.
Heart rate is unaffected.
None of the above
All of the following are manifestations of the hypocalcemia caused by progressive hyperventilation EXCEPT:
Tetany.
Chvostek's sign.
Carpopedal spasms
Impaired vision.
A significant method to differentiate hyperventilation from pulmonary embolism is:
Presence of dizziness.
Presence of diaphoresis.
Presence of circumoral parasthesia.
Increased rate of breathing.
All of the following are symptoms of improper cerebral oxygenation during hyperventilation EXCEPT
Chvostek's sign.
Impaired vision.
Dizziness.
Impaired problem-solving abilities.
All of the following times are optimal for providing dental treatment to the seizure patient EXCEPT:
Late afternoon appointments.
After the patient has eaten breakfast
Within a few hours of taking medication
The type of seizure caused by exposure to flickering lights is:
Hypoxic seizures.
Ischemic epilepsy.
Meningeal seizures.
Photosensitive epilepsy.
_____% of seizures are idiopathic.
20
30
50
40
Individuals suffering from atrial fibrillation are more prone to CVAs due to an increase in:
Thrombi.
Blood pressure
Aneurysms.
None of the above.
The MOST common type of CVA is
Embolic.
Intracerebral hemorrhage.
Thrombotic
Subarachnoid hemorrhage.
A specific sign of a subarachnoid CVA is:
Hypertension.
Neck pain.
Headache.
Papillary malalignment.
Your patient's blood pressure is 130/84. This is considered:
Normal.
Stage II hypertension.
Stage I hypertension
Prehypertension.
Dysrhythmia may present as:
Diastole.
Atrial tachycardia.
Bradycardia
None of the above
Which of the following are risk factors for CAD that cannot be changed?
Heredity
Increased age
Gender
All of the above
The backup of fluid into the lungs seen in left ventricular heart failure often leads to:
Cardiac arrhythmias
Pulmonary edema
Myocardial infarction.
None of the above.
All of the following statements describe a bloodless phlebotomy EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
The pressure applied to the cuff should be less than the systolic pressure and greater than the diastolic pressure.
The tourniquet or blood pressure cuff should be tight enough so that an arterial pulse can be felt distal to the tourniquet/cuff.
Tourniquets or blood pressure cuffs are applied to three extremities at a time.
The cuffs should be placed four inches below the shoulder and six inches above the groin.
Which is the MOST frequent cause of heart failure?
Degenerative heart conditions
Diabetes mellitus
Myocardial infarction
Valvular heart disease
All of the following are symptoms of heart failure EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
Grayish-blue mucous membranes
Prominent carotid artery when patient is sitting upright
Cyanosis of lips and nailbeds
Excessive unexplained weight gain
Tachyarrhythmias can cause all of the following symptoms EXCEPT:
Palpitations.
Syncope.
Dizziness.
Increased cardiac output.
The MOST important step in the management of pacemaker malfunction is to:
Monitor pulse rate.
Turn off possible interference source.
Administer 4â€"6 liters/minute of oxygen
Monitor blood pressure.
The number of cardiac pacemakers and ICD implants is on the decline.
True
False
Asthma is the result of an abnormal _____ response in the bronchial airways.
Nutritional
Biochemical
None of the above
Immune
The type of asthma attack where the patient has significant dyspnea and can only speak in phrases or partial sentences would be considered:
Moderate.
Inconsequentia
Mild
Severe
Asthma is characterized by all of the following symptoms EXCEPT
Pulmonary edema.
Coughing
Wheezing
Dyspnea
In addition to a constriction of the bronchioles the inflammatory response that occurs during an asthmatic attack results in:
Decreased arrhythmias.
Increased mucus production.
Increased blood pressure.
None of the above
The FIRST step in the treatment of a partially obstructed airway is to:
Position the patient upright.
Apply back blows.
Perform the Heimlich maneuver.
Perform the Heimlich maneuver.
Ingestion of a dental object could result in:
Collapsed lung.
Stupor.
Abscesses.
Diaphoresis.
Patients experiencing a partially obstructed airway with poor air exchange should be left untreated until they lose consciousness or the obstruction is removed.
True
False
One of the cardinal signs of an obstructed airway is the patient placing the hands in the area of the throat
True
False
One of the cardinal signs of an obstructed airway is the patient placing the hands in the area of the throat
True
False
A patient with systemic symptoms, but with normal blood pressure, pulse, and respirations, would be considered to be having which type of allergic reaction?
Mild
Moderate
Severe
None of the above
The drug of choice for a mild allergic response as it produces minimal drowsiness is:
Epinephrine 1,000 mg IM.
Chlorpheneramine 10 mg orally.
Hydrocortisone 25 mg orally.
Diphenhydramine 50 mg IM.
The release of histamine during an allergic reaction causes:
Reduced cardiovascular function.
Systemic vasodilation.
Smooth muscle relaxation.
Reduced vascular permeability.
All of the following are factors that affect the severity of an allergic reaction EXCEPT:
Amount of the allergen
Type of allergen.
Rate of exposure.
Route of exposure.
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