Dental Emergency
1. When is cricothyrotomy necessary?
When there is injury to the throat
When airway obstruction is caused by a foreign body that cannot be dislodged
When there is a trauma to the neck region
When fracture of mandible
2. Surgical airway procedure should only be done on:
Kids
Adults
Aging people
Anybody
3. All of the following can have Life-threatening emergencies in the practice of dentistry, except…
A patient
Accompanying the patient
Doctor and Member of office stuff
A patient’s driver
4. The following are the Factor of Emergencies except…..
Increased number of older patients
Medical Advances
Increased drug use
Longer dental appointments
HIV infection
5. Factor of emergencies by increased number of age, which one is most common cause among the top five causes of death from 1 to 4 years?
Accidents and adverse effects
Congenital anomalies
Malignant neoplasms
Homicide and legal intervention
Diseases of the heart
6. Factor of emergencies by increased number of age, which one is most common cause among the top five causes of death from 5 to 14 years?
Accidents and adverse effects
Malignant neoplasms
Homicide and legal intervention
Congenital anomalies
Suicide
7. The following are diagnosis of emergencies in dental office, which one occurs the most in emergency situation?
Syncope
Mild allergic reaction
Angina pectoris
Postural hypotension
A Syncope and Angina pectoris
8. The following are diagnosis of emergencies in dental office, which one occurs the most in emergency situation?
Postural hypotension
Hyperventilation
Cardiac arrest
Anaphylactic reaction
Postural hypotension and Anaphylactic reaction
9. Among the following which is the rescue breathing in adult?
6 times/min
18 times/min
12 times/min
24 times/min
10. In patient on artificial ventilation the cycle of exhale air ventilation should be repeated of every:
20 secs
10 secs
5 secs
1 sec
11. The primary hazard for unconscious patient in supine position is:
Tongue obstruction
Bronchospasm
Lanyngospasm
Aspiration
12. The best blood product administered preoperatively to patients with haemophilia A is:
Fresh frozen plasma
Factor IX concentrate
Whole blood
Factor VIII concentrate
13. A cardinal symptom of dehydration due to disturbance of fluid and electrolyte balance is:
Hyperthermia
Nausea
Polydipsia
None
14. In medical emergency easiest technique for opening airway is to:
Turn his head back
Turn head to one side
Clear mouth, throat
Strike his back
15. Instead of responding to treatment for syncope, patients pulse and respiration become weak and irregular with attendant cyanosis. The first resuscitative measure should be to:
Support circulation by injecting 1:1000 adrenaline
Begin closed chest cardiac message
Begin CPR
Place paper bag over patient’s face and risk blood CO2
16. If efforts in CPR are effective there will be:
Constriction of pupils
Dilatation of pupils
Hypertension immediate
None of all
17. Patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is most likely to have which of following postoperative complication:
Infection
Haemorrhage
Oedema
Alveolar osteitis
18. All of the following are various methods to control intra operative haemorrhage except:
Gauge sponge pressure
Artery application to open vessels
Infiltration with lidocaine
Bone compression for surface bleeding
19. Which of the following factor does not play role in haemostasis is:
Prothrombin
Vessel wall calcium
Vit K
Vit B
20. Which is the earliest sign of haemorrhagic shock?
Hypotension
Vasoconstriction
Tachycardia
Dyspnoea
21. Preoperative vit K is indicated in patients with:
Diabetes mellitus
Chronic pneumonitis
Liver disease
Accuracy
22. The main cause of bleeding in patients is thrombocytopenic purpura is deficiency of:
Vit B
Prothrombin
Vit K
Platelets
23. During shock vasopressor drugs are preferably given:
Sublingually
Intracardially
Intramuscularly
Intravenously
24. Treatment of syncope is most effectively accomplished by which of the following
Administer 100 percent O2 for 5 min
Lowering chair to phase patient’s head lower than his feet
Bending patient’s head forward between his knees and asking patient to raise his head against hand pressure
It requires treatment by physician
25. Among the following which is best haemostatic agent for control of local haemorrhage?
Gel foam
Surgical
Bone
Vit K
26. During CPR sternum should the depressed:
2 inches every 5 seconds
2 inches every second
1 inch every 10 seconds
3 inches every 5 seconds
27. Among the following which always indicate obstruction to airway?
Increase respiratory rate
Increase pulse rate
Snoring breathing
Decreased blood pressure
28. Is common to all forms of shock:
Hypovolemia
Hypertension
Impaired tissue perfusion
Vasoconstriction
29. Diazepam is contraindicated for use in patient with history of:
Narrow angle glaucoma
Psychic depression
Severe hypertension
Coronary artery disease
30. Which cardiac conditions require antibiotic prophylaxis before surgery?
Recovery insufficiency
Angina pectoris
Rheumatic Heart Disease
Congestive heart disease
31. Among the following with drug is contraindicated in hyperthyroid patients because the subjects are extraordinarily sensitive to drug:
Salicylate
Barbiturates
Adrenaline
Digitalis
32. Among the following which frequently causes infective endocarditis?
Staph. aureus
Strep. Viridans
Staph. pyogens
Parasite
33. The emergency, most frequently encountered during outpatient general anaesthesia is:
Anaphylaxis
Bradycardia
Respiratory obstruction
Hypotension
34. Among the following which drug is drug of choice in management of acute allergic reaction involving bronchospasm and hypotension?
Aminophylline
Dexamethasone
Diphenhydramine
Adrenaline
35. The following are true of CPR, compression, except…
Ventilation ratio in 2 persons CPR is 5:1
Ventilation ratio in single person CPR is 15:2
Should be 60-80/min in adults
Should be 100/min in children
Should be 120/min in children
36. Of the following which is the first step when initiating CPR?
Establish responsiveness
To establish airway
Precardial thumbs
None of All
37. In external cardiac compressions, compression relation cycle should be repeated:
100 times/min
Twice/min
60 times/min
80 times/min
38. Haemorrhagic shocks are the following characterizes, except…
Hypotension
Low blood volume
Increased pulse rate
Decrease pulse rate
39. Of the following which is earliest sign of haemorrhagic shock?
Vasoconstriction
Hypotension
Tachycardia
Dyspnoea
40. In elective tracheostomy the entry should be made:
Above cricoid
Below cricoid
Through cricothyroid membrane
Laterally below thyroid cartilage
41. Antibiotics with a low allergic potential is:
Penicillin
Erythromycin
Cephalosporins
Sulphonamide
42. The drug Clindamycin is known for its side effect of :
Ototoxicity
Nephrotoxicity
Ulcerative colitis
Liver necrosis
43. The current recommendation for antibiotic prophylaxis for prevention of bacterial endocarditis is:
2gm of Amoxicillin orally, 1 hr before surgery / 2gm of Amoxicillin, intravenous 30mn before surgery
1gm of Amoxicillin orally, 1 hr before surgery / 1gm of Amoxicillin, intravenous 30mn before surgery
3gm of Amoxicillin orally, 1 hr before surgery / 3m of Amoxicillin, intravenous 30mn before surgery
4gm of Amoxicillin orally, 1 hr before surgery / 4gm of Amoxicillin, intravenous 30mn before surgery
44. A patient, who is allergic to penicillin, should be given:
Metronidazole
Amoxicillin
Cephalosporin
Gentamycin
45. A patient, who is allergic to penicillin, should be given:
Ampicillin
Erythromycin
Cephalosporin
Gentamycin
46. Reye’s syndrome is caused by the long-term usage of:
Paracetamol
Aspirin
Ibuprofen
Nimesulide
47. If a patient develops anaphylactic shock, the 1st drug of choice is:
Dexamethasone
Anti-histamine
Adrenaline
Deriphylline
48. An elder patient, with myocardial infarction 5 months back, needs extraction of decayed maxillary 3rd molar. Your line of treatment would be:
Administer oral antibiotics for three days and do the extraction
Hospitalize the patient, administer IV antibiotics and do the extraction
Do the extraction and later, prescribe oral antibiotics
Put on antibiotics, refer the patient to the cardiologist and do the extraction at a later date
49. For a patient suffering from cirrhosis of liver, the safest group of LA, is:
General anesthesia
Conscious sedation
Ester group
Amide group
50. The following are a core list of drugs and equipment for use in MEs, except….
Adrenaline, 1ml/A of 1:1000 solution for IM
Aspirin, 300 mg dispersible tablets
Glucagon, for IM of 1 mg
Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray, 400 μg per metered dose
Antibiotics
51. The following are a core list of drugs and equipment for use in MEs, except….
Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray, 400μg per metered dose
Midazolam buccal liquid, 10 mg/ml, or midazolam injection
Oxygen cylinder (10 litres/minute)
Salbutamol inhaler, 100 μg per actuation
Steroids
52. In addition, dental practices might wish to stock the following drugs to aid the management of patients with mild allergic reactions, except…
Cetirizine 10mg tablets or oral solution (5 mg/5 ml)
Chlorphenamine, 4mg tablets or oral solution (2 mg/5 ml)
Loratadine, 10 mg /tablets
Midazolam buccal liquid, 10 mg/ml, or midazolam injection
53. The following are key signs of anaphylaxis, except…
Upper airway oedema and bronchospasm
Stridor and wheezing
Tachycardia (heart rate > 110 per minute)
HTA
54. The following are the priority the managements of anaphylaxis, except…
Assess the patient
Call for an ambulance
Secure the patient’s airway
Check BP
Administer IV fluid
55. The following are signs and symptoms of mild allergy reaction, except….
Urticaria and rash, particularly of chest, hands and feet
Rhinitis
Conjunctivitis
Mild bronchospasm without evidence of severe shortness of breath
Abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhea
56. The following are treatment of milder forms of allergy reaction, except…
Administer 1 Cetirizine Tablet, 10 mg for children
Or Administer 1 Chlorphenamine Tablet, 4mg
Or Administer a salbutamol inhaler, 4 puffs (100 μg per actuation)
Or Administer Midazolam buccal liquid, 10 mg/ml, or midazolam injection
57. The following are signs and symptoms of acute severe asthmatic, except….
Inability to complete sentences in one breath
Respiratory rate >25 per minute
Tachycardia (heart rate >110 per minute)
Convulsion and diarrhea
58. The following are managements of asthmatic, except….
Assess the patient and sit patient upright
Administer 100% oxygen - flow rate: 10L/mn
Administer a salbutamol inhaler, 4 puffs (100 μg per actuation), repeat as needed
Administer Adrenaline, 1ml/A of 1:1000 solution for IM
59. The following are signs and symptoms of acute Angina and MI, except….
Shortness of breath and increased respiratory rate
Skin becomes pale and clammy
Nausea and vomiting are common
Pulse might be weak and blood pressure might fall
Crushing pain in the right and across the front of chest
60. The following are signs and symptoms of Epilepsy, except….
Sudden loss of consciousness
Patient may become rigid, fall, might give a cry and becomes cyanosed
Jerking movements of the limbs; the tongue might be bitten
Brief warning or ‘aura’ and frothing from the mouth and urinary incontinence
Abdominal pain and vomiting
61. Which of the following is not true the management of epilepsy?
Assess the patient
Do not try to restrain convulsive movements
Ensure the patient is not at risk from injury
Secure the patient’s circulation
Administer 100% oxygen-flow rate: 10L/mn
62. The following are signs and symptoms of faint, except….
Dizzy, light-headed
Slow pulse rate
Loss of consciousness
Pallor and sweating
Abdominal pain and diarrhea
63. The following are key signs of Hypoglycaemia, except…
Aggression and confusion
Sweating
Tachycardia (heart rate >110 per min
Cyanosis
64. The following are the symptoms of Hypoglycaemia, except…
Shaking and trembling
Difficulty in concentration
Slurring of speech and Headache
Fitting and Unconsciousness
Hypertension arterial
65. The following are the managements of Hypoglycaemia, except…
Assess the patient
Administer 100% oxygen-flow rate: 10L/mn
Administer oral glucose (10–20 g), repeated, after10–15 minutes
Administer adrenaline, 0.5 ml (1:1000), IM. Injection
66. Which of the following is wrong of the management of Hypoglycaemia with the unconscious patient?
Assess the patient
Administer 100% oxygen-flow rate: 10L/mn
Administer oral glucose (10–20 g), repeated, after10–15 minutes
Or Administer glucagon, 1 mg, IM
67. Which of the drug is not true for the management of Anxiety patient?
Midazolam
Diazepam
Lorazepam
Ketamine
68. The patients with congestive heart failure may have all of these conditions, except:
Extreme dyspnea
Hyperventilation
Extreme headache
Cyanosis
69. The patients with congestive heart failure may have all of these conditions, except:
Cough
Hemoptysis
Difficulty in breathing
Teary eyes
70. The incorrect preventive measure before the surgical procedure for a patient with congestive heart failure is
Written consent from the patient’s cardiologist
Oral premedication
Long painless appointments
Small amounts of vasoconstrictors in local anesthesia
71. The preferred position for the patients with congestive heart failure is
Standing position
Sitting position.
Sleeping position
Sleeping position with legs raised a bit upward
72. The incorrect preventive measure before the surgical procedure for a patient with angina pectoris is
Oral premedication, usually 20-50mg diazepam
Written consent from the patient’s cardiologist
Small amounts of vasoconstrictors in local anesthesia
Dental surgery in hospital
73. What is the most common emergency in dental office?
Asthma
Angina pectoris
Postural hypotension
Syncope
74. Which age group and gender is most commonly prone to syncope or faint?
Between the ages of 45 to 65 years and more women than men
Between the ages of 16 to 35 years and more men than women
Between the ages of 65 to 85 years and equal genders
It happens in all age groups
75. Why pediatric patients rarely develop syncope?
Because they are very healthy
Because they are not nervous
Because they do not hide their fears and readily react emotionally and physically during a stressful situation
Because they usually go the dental clinic with their parents
76. What happens to us when vasovagal reaction starts?
Bradycardia
Hypotension
Hypoxia of the brain
All of the above
77. Which one of the following is NOT the causes of syncope?
Pollen
Cardiac
Peripheral vascular
Cerebrovascular
78. Which one of the following is NOT the symptoms of syncope?
Breathing – irregular, jerky & gasping
Weak thready pulse
Convulsive movements
Bronchospasm
79. Which one of the following is NOT the non-psychogenic factors predispose to syncope?
Sitting in upright position or standing
Emotional stress
Hunger (from dieting & missed meals)
Exhaustion or fatigue
80. What are the late symptoms of presyncope stage?
Cold hands and feet
Visual disturbances
Dizziness
All of the above
81. Which one of the following is not the sign and symptoms of postsyncoppe stage?
Sweating
Urticaria
Pallor
Nausea
82. For the management of patients with syncope, why do we need to place head lower than heart with legs slightly raised?
To restore normal heart rate
To normalize pulse rate
To allow blood flow into the brain
To raise blood sugar level
83. When do you need to place the patients in Recovery Position?
When they loose consciousness but are still breathing
When they are still fully conscious
When they are in seizure
When they have got hyperventilation
84. Which of the following is NOT the vital signs?
Pulse
Blood pressure
Enlarged lymph nodes
Respirations and temperature
85. When do you have to reassure the patients?
Before starting the dental treatment
During dental procedures
After the procedures
All of the above
86. Which one of the following statement is NOT the symptoms and signs of hypoglycaemia?
Hunger
Itching
Sweating
Pins and needles in lips and tongue
87. In which case Glucagon is injected subcutaneously?
Conscious hypoglycaemia
Unconscious hypoglycaemia
Syncope
Angina pectoris
88. Why glucose or dextrose is not allowed to give IM and subcutaneous?
Because it can cause drug reaction
Because if can cause tissue abscess
Because this will cause tissue necrosis
Because this will cause severe pain
89. What happens if you give insulin to a hypoglycemic patient?
The patient will feel better
The patient will feel dizzy
The patient will be relaxed
The patient would die
90. How do you put a semiconscious or unconscious patient in a recovery position?
The patient lay upside down
The patient is placed to the right side
The patient placed to the left side with the arms and legs crossed over
The patient is seated in a semi-supine position
91. Why do we place a semiconscious or unconscious patient in a recovery position?
To permits fluids to drain from the nose and throat so they are not breathed in
To allow the patient sleep better
To avoid injury to the neck
To avoid head injury
92. Which one of the following statements is NOT the symptoms of allergy?
Red, itchy, watery eyes
Sneezing, congestion, runny nose
Cold hands and feet
Itchy or sore throat, postnasal drip, and cough
93. For management of allergy, which oral antihistamine is best?
Promethazine (Phenegan*)
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl*)
Dramamin
Cetirizziine
94. Which one of the following statement is NOT the symptoms of overdose reactions of local anesthetic
Confusion, talkativeness
Muscular twitching, facial tremor
Blurred vision
Headache, tinnitus, drowsiness, disorientation
95. How do you manage the overdose reaction of LA?
Administer 100%
Inject hydrocortisone
Inject anticonvulsant such as Diazepam
Administer 100% and Inject anticonvulsant such as Diazepam
96. Why anaphylaxis is the severe life threatening condition?
Because it can cause laryngeal oedema
Because it can cause bronchospasm
Because it can cause airway obstruction and cardiac arrest
All of the above
97. What are the typical symptoms and signs of anaphylazis?
Urticaria
Rapid swelling of the lips, tongue and the top of the feet and hands
Stridor and wheezing
All of the above
98. Which one of the following statement is NOT the treatment of anaphylxis?
Inject Glucagon
Give high flow Oxygen (10 Litres /minute) by face mask.
Monitor vital signs
Inject adrenalin 1:1000 IM
99. For the treatment of anaphylaxis over the age of 12 years old, how much adrenalin 1:1000 do you have to inject intramuscularly?
0.15ml
0.3ml
0.5ml
5ml
100. In the treatment of anaphylaxis between the age of 6 to 12 years old, how much adrenalin 1:1000 do you have to inject intramuscularly?
0.3ml
0.15ml
0.5ml
0.25ml
101. For the treatment of anaphylaxis under the age of 6 years old, how much adrenalin 1:1000 do you have to inject intramuscularly?
1.5ml
0.15ml
0.25ml
0.50ml
102. How much oxygen do you use for the management of anaphylaxis?
Low flow of 4L per minute
Medium flow of 6L/minute
Pretty high flow of 7L/minute
High flow of 10 Litres /minute by face mask
103. How much normal saline (0.9% w/v sodium chloride) IV do you use for the management of anaphylaxis?
1000 ml
2000 ml
1 - 3 litres
1000 ml and 1 - 3 litres
104. When the second dose of adrenalin is necessary to use for the management of anaphylaxis?
After 5 minutes of no clinical improvement
After 7 minutes of no clinical improvement
After 10 minutes of no clinical improvement
After 15 minutes of no clinical improvement
105. In postural hypotension, the systolic blood pressure can drop to:?
50 mm Hg in one minute
60 mm Hg in one minute
70 mm Hg in one minute
80 mm Hg in one minute
106. Which one of the following statement is NOT the predisposing factor to postural hypotension?
Prolonged period of leaning or recovery from prolonged sickness
Late stage pregnancy and advanced age
Taking steroid over 6 months
Taking drugs such as sodium depleting diuretics, calcium channel blockers & ganglion blocking agents, sedatives and narcotics, histamine blockers
107. What does postural hypotension differ from vasodepressor syncope?
The heart rate during postural hypotension remain at the baseline level or somewhat higher
The heart rate during postural hypotension is lower than syncope
The pulse rate in postural hypotension is faster
The blood pressure in hypotension is higher than in syncope
108. What is the first step for the management of postural hypotension?
Give oxygen
Start ABC
Sit the patient upright
Lay the down with the feet slightly elevated
109. Which one of the following statement is NOT the prevention of postural hypotension?
Patient should be slowly returned to erect position at end of the treatment
Patient should quickly sit up and walk away immediately
Two or three positional changes over a period of minute or two to reach the upright position.
Patients should be cautioned against rising too rapidly from supine or semi-supine position.
110. What is the characteristic pain of angina pectoris?
Acute severe pain under the sternum
Chronic moderate pain in the chest
Intermitten pain in the head
Tender in the TMJ
111. What are the precipitating factors of angina?
Exercise
Emotion
Heavy meal
All of the above
112. Which one of the following statement is NOT the management of angina?
Discontinue dental treatment
Position the patient supine with feet elevated
Administer oxygen
Apply nitroglycerin sublingually
113. Which conditions Glyceryl Trinitrate is prescribed?
For the treatment of allergy
For the relief of severe chest pain caused by angina and myocardial infarction
For the treatment of asthma
For the treatment of epilepsy
114. What is the difference between angina pectoris and acute myocardial infarction?
Angina is more intense and longer pain than acute myocardial infarction
Angina can cause sudden death
Acute myocardial infarction is a severe and prolonged substernal pain, but more intense and of longer duration than the angina pectoris.
Acute myocardial infarction is less severe than angina and doesn't cause sudden death
115. Which one of the following statement is NOT the management of myocardial infarction?
Administer oxygen
Infuse normal saline
Administer aspirin sublingually
Manage pain with parenteral opioids
116. Which medicines that can be used for the treatment of angina and myocardial infarction?
Glyceryl Trinitrate spray or tablet
Midazolam
Aspirin tablet dissolve under the tongue
Glyceryl Trinitrate spray and Aspirin tablet dissolve under the tongue
117. What is the dosage of chewable Aspirin for the treatment of acute coronary syndrome?
150mg
200mg
300mg
500mg
118. Which one of the following statement is NOT the management acute coronary syndrome?
Breath in clap hands
Give 300mg Aspirin: chewed or dissolved before swallowing
Monitor patient's vital signs: respiration, pulse, BP, oxygen saturation. If patient loses consciousness do Basic Life Support
Start CPR if they stop breathing
119. Which one of the following statement is NOT the trigger of seizure?
Stress/anxiety
Missed medication
Lack of sleep/extreme fatigue
Anticonvulsant medication
120. Which one of the following statement is NOT the management of siezure?
Position supine with patient placed on flat surfaces
Remove dangerous objects from the mouth and around the patient eg. sharp instruments
Loosen any tight clothing
Restrain the patient
121. What is the definitive treatment of seizure?
Administer oxygen
Start CPR
Inject Diazepam 10mg IV
Inject adrenalin 1:1000 IM
122. Which one of the following statement is NOT the management of epilepsy?
Make the chair supine or lay the patient on the floor
Give antihistamine orally
Assess consciousness by talking to the patient
D. Maintain the airway
123. How to prevent status epilepticus?
Tell the patient to take regular dose of anticonvulsant on the day of treatment
Instruct him/her to alert you as the aura of the impending seizure manifests itself.
Keep life support equipment ready in case of an emergent status epilepticus
All of the above
124. Which one of the following statement is NOT the symptoms and signs of asthma?
Rapid respiration
Chest pain
Expiratory wheezing
Breathlessness
125. Which medication is used for the treatment of asthma?
Anticonvulsant
Glucagon
Salbutamol Aerosol Inhaler (Ventolin*)
Nitrous oxide
126. Hyperventilation is caused by:?
Loss of oxygen in the brain
Loss of carbine dioxide from the blood
Excess of adrenaline
Excess of uric acid
127. Which one of the following statement is NOT the symptoms of hyperventilation?
Slow, heavily long breaths
Rapid short strained breaths
Cold sweats
Palpitation and dizziness
128. Which one of the following statement is NOT the management of hyperventilation?
Position the patient supine
Reassure the patient and stabilize vital signs
Encourage patient to rebreath into a paper bag or clap hands
Inject Diazepam 10mg IV or 3 – 5mg Midazolam IV or IM in severe cases
129. What happens when hyperventilation is not treated?
Patient develops into unconscious
Patient may become convulsion
Patient may develop a typical sign of Carpopedal Tetany
Patient may die
130. Which one of the following statement is NOT the causes of airway obstruction?
Tongue of unconscious patient
Flumazenil (Benzodiazepine antagonist)
Foreign body
Overdose sedative drug
131. Which one of the following statement is NOT the presentation of airway obstruction?
Sridor
Choking
No sound or voice
Skin rash
132. How to prevent airway obstruction?
Use rubber dam to prevent falling of endo files
Use high power suction
Place a gauze pack at the back of the mouth (laryngeal screen)
All of the above
133. Which one of the following statement is NOT the management of airway obstruction?
Clear the airway
Elevate the patient's feet
Perform head tilt and chin lift and a jaw thrust
Perform the Heimlich maneuver
134. Which one of the following statement is NOT the management of acute adrenal insufficiency or collapse?
Lay the patient flat with feet elevated
Administer oxygen
Inject hydrocortisone 200mg IV
Inject thyroid hormone T3 & T4
135. What is the treatment of alcoholic?
Administration of 100 mg thiamine IV
Treat hypoglycaemia with 50 ml of 50% dextrose solution
Provide oxygen therapy as needed
All of the above
136. What are the steps of medical emergencies?
Primary survey, basic life support, and advanced life support (CPR)
Position, emergency drugs, call ambulance
Use oxygen, put in recovery position
All of the above
137. In CPR, how many chest compressions per minute and how many breaths?
15 compressions per minute, one breath
20 compressions per minute, 3 breaths
30 compressions, 2 breaths
40 compressions, 4 breaths
138. How much oxygen do the breathing victims need per minute?
1 - 4 LPM
4 - 6LPM
10 - 15LPM
15 - 20LPM
139. How much oxygen do the victims with difficulty in breathing need per minute?
1 - 4 LPM
4 - 6 LPM
10 - 15 LPM
15 LPM or higher
140. What type of oxygen mask is used for breathing victims?
Nasal cannula
Non-rebreather mask
Bag-valve mask
Manual Resuscitation mask
141. What are oropharyngeal airways used for?
For retracting the tongue from blocking the airway
For intubating the larynx
For opening the pharynx
For mouth-to-mouth breathing
142. Which emergency cases oxygen are NOT needed?
Hyperventilation
Angina pectoris
Syncope and seizure
Hyperventilation and Syncope and seizure
143. In CPR, how many cycles of chest compressions and breaths before the pulse of the victims are needed to be re-assessed?
2 cycles of 15 compressions/1 breath
3 cycles of 20 compressions / 2 breaths
4 cycles of 30 compressions / 2 breaths
6 cycles of 40 compressions / 3 breaths
144. In CPR of a small child, how many chest compressions per minute and how many breaths?
10 compressions per minute, one breath
15 compressions per minute, 2 breaths
30 compressions, 2 breaths
40 compressions, 4 breaths
145. In CPR of an infant, how many chest compressions per minute and how many breaths?
5 compressions per minute, one breath
15 compressions per minute, 2 breaths
30 compressions, 2 breaths
50 compressions, 5 breaths
146. What do Magill forceps used for?
For picking sterilized instruments
For retrieving foreign objects from the hypopharynx
For retrieving fractured endo file in the root canal
For picking up dropped instruments from the floor
147. What is a pulse oximeter used for?
For measuring the pulse
For measuring temperature
For measuring oxygen saturation in the arterial blood
For measuring the pulse and For measuring oxygen saturation in the arterial blood
148. Which one of the following is NOT the emergency drugs?
Oxygen
Adrenalin, glucagon, diazepam, hydrocortisone Adrenalin, glucagon, diazepam, hydrocortisone
Antihypertensive drug
Glyceryl trinitrate
149. What is the emergency drug for severe bleeding control?
Vitamin K
Adrenoxyl
Dicinone
Tranexamic acid
150. What are the preventive measures for medical emergency?
Complete past medical history & medications
Vigilant observation & prompt recognition of symptoms of an emergency
Anxiety, stress reduction, and monitor patients during treatment
All of the above
151. Which one of the following is NOT the general anxiety-reduction protocol during appointment?
Frequent verbal reassurances
Distracting conversation
Warning the patient before doing the procedures
Keeping surgical instruments out of patient’s sight
152. Which one of the following is NOT the haemorrhage control of maxillofacial trauma?
Pressure dressings
Blindly clamp into a wound
Elevate head in the hemodynamically stable patient
Wire the fracture jaws
153. Which one of the following statement is NOT the common signs and symptoms of maxillofacial trauma?
Bruising / swelling
Step deformity
Presence of pus
Bleeding / CSF
154. How to stabilize cervical spine fracture?
By using cervical collar or sandbags
By using special metal neck supports
By using any device to immobilize the neck, including newspapers
By using cervical collar or sandbags and By using any device to immobilize the neck, including newspapers
155. Among the following statement, which one always indicate airway obstruction?
Increase respiratory rate
Increase pulse rate
Snoring breathing
Decreased blood pressure
156. The following are the time of systemic complications occurrence, which one occurs the most?
Immediate before treatment
During or after local anesthesia
During treatment
After treatment
157. The following are data of occurrence of systemic complications during treatment, which one is the most common complication?
Tooth extraction
Pulp extirpation
Preparation
Filling
158. Which one is the major cause of the airway obstructions?
Pharynx
Lung
Tongue
Nose
159. The following are the airway equipment for medical emergencies except ?
Oxygen tank
Cotton role and gauze
Oropharyngeal airways and face masks
Suction unit and suction tubes
160. The right position is the one that is most comfortable for the patient of emergencies, which is correct for asthmatic patient?
The patient needs to be flat on his or her back
Patients probably will want to sit up, which helps their ability to breathe.
Place the patient horizontally with the feet slightly elevated
With the feet elevated slightly, the patient can receive a larger flow of blood to the head and thus stimulate the brain
161. The following are the signs and symptoms of the angina pectoris except:?
Pain posterior to the sternum, may be precipitated by fatigue, extreme stress, or a rich meal, and subsides within 2–5 min after rest and the use of vasodilators
Painful discomfort in the chest, with a burning sensation, pressure, or tightness
Pain may be present in the cardiac area, radiating to the left shoulder, neck, left arm, sometimes down the chin and teeth of the mandible
Pain may be present in the cardiac area, radiating to the right shoulder, neck, left arm, sometimes down the chin and teeth of the mandible.
162. For patients with hypothyroidism, on medications, extraction of decayed teeth is:?
A relative contraindication
Treated as normal extraction
Indicated, with maximum precautions
An absolute contraindication
163. Which of the following is wrong about Blood Pressure (BP):?
BP is recorded as two numbers: systolic and diastolic pressure
The systolic pressure (as the heart relaxes between beats) and the diastolic pressure (as the heart beats).
The measurement is written the systolic number on top and the diastolic number on the bottom ( Eg: 120/80 mmHg)
None of all
164. Which of the following is the management of patient with asthma?
Administration of sedative medication for stress management
Control of pain (to avoid stress), with sufficient duration and depth of local anesthesia
Short appointments with gentle manipulations during surgical procedure
All are correct
165. The following are the mild allergy symptoms, except:?
Skin rash
Itchy
Dyspnea
Watery eyes
166. The following are a list of emergency drugs and equipment , except:?
Adrenaline, 1ml/A of 1:1000 solution for IM
Aspirin, 300 mg dispersible tablets
Glucagon, for IM of 1 mg
Antibiotics
167. To perform tracheoctomy entry should be made at the: ?
Cricothyroid ligament
Thyroid membrane
Thyroid notch
Cricoid cartilage
168. The following are key signs of anaphylaxis, except:?
Upper airway oedema and bronchospasm
Stridor and wheezing
Tachycardia (heart rate > 110 per minute)
Circumoral paresthesia
169. In CPR, if one incorrectly apply pressure over xiphoid process the following may be injured:?
Heart
Liver
Spleen
Lungs
170. If cardiac arrest follows an anaphylactic reaction, which the priority of management is?
Start BLS immediately
Administer 100% oxygen, flow rate: 10 litres/minute
Administer adrenaline, 0.5 ml (1:1000), IM. injection
Call for an ambulance
171. Which of the following is best treatment for hypoglycaemia in an unconscious diabetic patient?
IV administration of 50 percent dextrose in water
Administration of oral carbohydrates
Sublingual injection of 50 percent dextrose
None of All
172. The following are signs and symptoms of life-threatening asthma, except:?
Cyanosis or respiratory rate <8 per minute
Bradycardia (heart rate <50 per minute)
Exhaustion, confusion, decreased conscious level
Abdominal pain and vomiting.
173. The following are signs and symptoms of acute severe asthmatic attack, except:?
Inability to complete sentences in one breath
Convulsion and diarrhea
Respiratory rate >25 per minute
Tachycardia (heart rate >110 per minute)
174. The following are managements of asthmatic, except:?
Assess the patient and sit patient upright
Administer 100% oxygen - flow rate: 10L/mn
Administer a salbutamol inhaler, 4 puffs (100 μg per actuation), repeat as needed
Administer Adrenaline, 1ml/A of 1:1000 solution for IM
175. The following are signs and symptoms of acute Angina and MI, except:?
Shortness of breath and increased respiratory rate
Skin becomes pale and clammy
Crushing pain in the right and across the front of chest
Nausea and vomiting are common
176. Which of the following is wrong about the management of angina and MI?
Assess the patient
Administer100% oxygen - flow rate: 10L/mn
Administer glyceryl trinitrate spray, 2 puffs sublingually or administer aspirin,300mg dispersible tablet, orally
Administer antibiotics.
177. Which of the following is not true of key signs of cardiac arrest?
Loss of consciousness
Tachycardia
Absence of breathing
Loss of pulse
178. Which of the following is wrong the management of cardiac arrest?
Call for an ambulance
Initiate BLS, using 100% oxygen or ventilation - flow rate: 10 litres/ minute
If a defibrillator is available, carry out early defibrillation
Administer IV blood fluid.
179. The following are signs and symptoms of Epilepsy, except:?
Sudden loss of consciousness
Patient may become rigid, fall, might give a cry and becomes cyanosed
Abdominal pain and vomiting
Jerking movements of the limbs; the tongue might be bitten
180. Which of the following is not true the management of epilepsy?
Assess the patient
To restrain convulsive movements
Ensure the patient is not at risk from injury
Secure the patient’s airway and administer 100% oxygen-flow rate: 10L/mn
181. What is the first step to check before starting CPR?
Responsiveness and pulse
To establish airway
Blood pressure
All of the above
182. Which of the following is wrong to the management of faint?
Assess the patient
Lay the patient flat and, if the patient is not breathless, raise the patient’s feet
Administer Midazolam buccal liquid, 10 mg/ml, or midazolam injection.
Administer 100% oxygen-flow rate: 10L/mn
183. The following are key signs of Hypoglycaemia, except:?
Aggression and confusion
Sweating
Tachycardia (heart rate >110 per min
Cyanosis
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