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Dental Emergency

Dental Emergency Response Quiz

Test your knowledge on dental emergencies and improve your preparedness in critical situations. This quiz covers various emergency scenarios you may encounter in dental practice, helping you understand the appropriate responses and treatments.

183 Thought-provoking questions
Multiple choice format for easy answering
Designed for dental professionals and students

183 Questions46 MinutesCreated by AssistingTooth204

1. When is cricothyrotomy necessary?

σ� When there is injury to the throat

σ� When airway obstruction is caused by a foreign body that cannot be dislodged

σ� When there is a trauma to the neck region

σ� When fracture of mandible

2. Surgical airway procedure should only be done on:

σ� Kids

σ� Adults

σ� Aging people

σ� Anybody

3. All of the following can have Life-threatening emergencies in the practice of dentistry, except…

σ� A patient

σ� Accompanying the patient

σ� Doctor and Member of office stuff

σ� A patient’s driver

4. The following are the Factor of Emergencies except…..

σ� Increased number of older patients

σ� Medical Advances

σ� Increased drug use

σ� Longer dental appointments

σ� HIV infection

5. Factor of emergencies by increased number of age, which one is most common cause among the top five causes of death from 1 to 4 years?

σ� Accidents and adverse effects

σ� Congenital anomalies

σ� Malignant neoplasms

σ� Homicide and legal intervention

σ� Diseases of the heart

6. Factor of emergencies by increased number of age, which one is most common cause among the top five causes of death from 5 to 14 years?

σ� Accidents and adverse effects

σ� Malignant neoplasms

σ� Homicide and legal intervention

σ� Congenital anomalies

σ� Suicide

7. The following are diagnosis of emergencies in dental office, which one occurs the most in emergency situation?

σ� Syncope

σ� Mild allergic reaction

σ� Angina pectoris

σ� Postural hypotension

σ� A Syncope and Angina pectoris

8. The following are diagnosis of emergencies in dental office, which one occurs the most in emergency situation?

σ� Postural hypotension

σ� Hyperventilation

σ� Cardiac arrest

σ� Anaphylactic reaction

σ� Postural hypotension and Anaphylactic reaction

9. Among the following which is the rescue breathing in adult?

σ� 6 times/min

σ� 18 times/min

σ� 12 times/min

σ� 24 times/min

10. In patient on artificial ventilation the cycle of exhale air ventilation should be repeated of every:

σ� 20 secs

σ� 10 secs

σ� 5 secs

σ� 1 sec

11. The primary hazard for unconscious patient in supine position is:

σ� Tongue obstruction

σ� Bronchospasm

σ� Lanyngospasm

σ� Aspiration

12. The best blood product administered preoperatively to patients with haemophilia A is:

σ� Fresh frozen plasma

σ� Factor IX concentrate

σ� Whole blood

σ� Factor VIII concentrate

13. A cardinal symptom of dehydration due to disturbance of fluid and electrolyte balance is:

σ� Hyperthermia

σ� Nausea

σ� Polydipsia

σ� None

14. In medical emergency easiest technique for opening airway is to:

σ� Turn his head back

σ� Turn head to one side

σ� Clear mouth, throat

σ� Strike his back

15. Instead of responding to treatment for syncope, patients pulse and respiration become weak and irregular with attendant cyanosis. The first resuscitative measure should be to:

σ� Support circulation by injecting 1:1000 adrenaline

σ� Begin closed chest cardiac message

σ� Begin CPR

σ� Place paper bag over patient’s face and risk blood CO2

16. If efforts in CPR are effective there will be:

σ� Constriction of pupils

σ� Dilatation of pupils

σ� Hypertension immediate

σ� None of all

17. Patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is most likely to have which of following postoperative complication:

σ� Infection

σ� Haemorrhage

σ� Oedema

σ� Alveolar osteitis

18. All of the following are various methods to control intra operative haemorrhage except:

σ� Gauge sponge pressure

σ� Artery application to open vessels

σ� Infiltration with lidocaine

σ� Bone compression for surface bleeding

19. Which of the following factor does not play role in haemostasis is:

σ� Prothrombin

σ� Vessel wall calcium

σ� Vit K

σ� Vit B

20. Which is the earliest sign of haemorrhagic shock?

σ� Hypotension

σ� Vasoconstriction

σ� Tachycardia

σ� Dyspnoea

21. Preoperative vit K is indicated in patients with:

σ� Diabetes mellitus

σ� Chronic pneumonitis

σ� Liver disease

σ� Accuracy

22. The main cause of bleeding in patients is thrombocytopenic purpura is deficiency of:

σ� Vit B

σ� Prothrombin

σ� Vit K

σ� Platelets

23. During shock vasopressor drugs are preferably given:

σ� Sublingually

σ� Intracardially

σ� Intramuscularly

σ� Intravenously

24. Treatment of syncope is most effectively accomplished by which of the following

σ� Administer 100 percent O2 for 5 min

σ� Lowering chair to phase patient’s head lower than his feet

σ� Bending patient’s head forward between his knees and asking patient to raise his head against hand pressure

σ� It requires treatment by physician

25. Among the following which is best haemostatic agent for control of local haemorrhage?

σ� Gel foam

σ� Surgical

σ� Bone

σ� Vit K

26. During CPR sternum should the depressed:

σ� 2 inches every 5 seconds

σ� 2 inches every second

σ� 1 inch every 10 seconds

σ� 3 inches every 5 seconds

27. Among the following which always indicate obstruction to airway?

σ� Increase respiratory rate

σ� Increase pulse rate

σ� Snoring breathing

σ� Decreased blood pressure

28. Is common to all forms of shock:

σ� Hypovolemia

σ� Hypertension

σ� Impaired tissue perfusion

σ� Vasoconstriction

29. Diazepam is contraindicated for use in patient with history of:

σ� Narrow angle glaucoma

σ� Psychic depression

σ� Severe hypertension

σ� Coronary artery disease

30. Which cardiac conditions require antibiotic prophylaxis before surgery?

σ� Recovery insufficiency

σ� Angina pectoris

σ� Rheumatic Heart Disease

σ� Congestive heart disease

31. Among the following with drug is contraindicated in hyperthyroid patients because the subjects are extraordinarily sensitive to drug:

σ� Salicylate

σ� Barbiturates

σ� Adrenaline

σ� Digitalis

32. Among the following which frequently causes infective endocarditis?

σ� Staph. aureus

σ� Strep. Viridans

σ� Staph. pyogens

σ� Parasite

33. The emergency, most frequently encountered during outpatient general anaesthesia is:

σ� Anaphylaxis

σ� Bradycardia

σ� Respiratory obstruction

σ� Hypotension

34. Among the following which drug is drug of choice in management of acute allergic reaction involving bronchospasm and hypotension?

σ� Aminophylline

σ� Dexamethasone

σ� Diphenhydramine

σ� Adrenaline

35. The following are true of CPR, compression, except…

σ� Ventilation ratio in 2 persons CPR is 5:1

σ� Ventilation ratio in single person CPR is 15:2

σ� Should be 60-80/min in adults

σ� Should be 100/min in children

σ� Should be 120/min in children

36. Of the following which is the first step when initiating CPR?

σ� Establish responsiveness

σ� To establish airway

σ� Precardial thumbs

σ� None of All

37. In external cardiac compressions, compression relation cycle should be repeated:

σ� 100 times/min

σ� Twice/min

σ� 60 times/min

σ� 80 times/min

38. Haemorrhagic shocks are the following characterizes, except…

σ� Hypotension

σ� Low blood volume

σ� Increased pulse rate

σ� Decrease pulse rate

39. Of the following which is earliest sign of haemorrhagic shock?

σ� Vasoconstriction

σ� Hypotension

σ� Tachycardia

σ� Dyspnoea

40. In elective tracheostomy the entry should be made:

σ� Above cricoid

σ� Below cricoid

σ� Through cricothyroid membrane

σ� Laterally below thyroid cartilage

41. Antibiotics with a low allergic potential is:

σ� Penicillin

σ� Erythromycin

σ� Cephalosporins

σ� Sulphonamide

42. The drug Clindamycin is known for its side effect of :

σ� Ototoxicity

σ� Nephrotoxicity

σ� Ulcerative colitis

σ� Liver necrosis

43. The current recommendation for antibiotic prophylaxis for prevention of bacterial endocarditis is:

σ� 2gm of Amoxicillin orally, 1 hr before surgery / 2gm of Amoxicillin, intravenous 30mn before surgery

σ� 1gm of Amoxicillin orally, 1 hr before surgery / 1gm of Amoxicillin, intravenous 30mn before surgery

σ� 3gm of Amoxicillin orally, 1 hr before surgery / 3m of Amoxicillin, intravenous 30mn before surgery

σ� 4gm of Amoxicillin orally, 1 hr before surgery / 4gm of Amoxicillin, intravenous 30mn before surgery

44. A patient, who is allergic to penicillin, should be given:

σ� Metronidazole

σ� Amoxicillin

σ� Cephalosporin

σ� Gentamycin

45. A patient, who is allergic to penicillin, should be given:

σ� Ampicillin

σ� Erythromycin

σ� Cephalosporin

σ� Gentamycin

46. Reye’s syndrome is caused by the long-term usage of:

σ� Paracetamol

σ� Aspirin

σ� Ibuprofen

σ� Nimesulide

47. If a patient develops anaphylactic shock, the 1st drug of choice is:

σ� Dexamethasone

σ� Anti-histamine

σ� Adrenaline

σ� Deriphylline

σ� 48. An elder patient, with myocardial infarction 5 months back, needs extraction of decayed maxillary 3rd molar. Your line of treatment would be:

σ� Administer oral antibiotics for three days and do the extraction

σ� Hospitalize the patient, administer IV antibiotics and do the extraction

σ� Do the extraction and later, prescribe oral antibiotics

σ� Put on antibiotics, refer the patient to the cardiologist and do the extraction at a later date

49. For a patient suffering from cirrhosis of liver, the safest group of LA, is:

σ� General anesthesia

σ� Conscious sedation

σ� Ester group

σ� Amide group

50. The following are a core list of drugs and equipment for use in MEs, except….

σ� Adrenaline, 1ml/A of 1:1000 solution for IM

σ� Aspirin, 300 mg dispersible tablets

σ� Glucagon, for IM of 1 mg

σ� Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray, 400 μg per metered dose

σ� Antibiotics

51. The following are a core list of drugs and equipment for use in MEs, except….

σ� Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray, 400μg per metered dose

σ� Midazolam buccal liquid, 10 mg/ml, or midazolam injection

σ� Oxygen cylinder (10 litres/minute)

σ� Salbutamol inhaler, 100 μg per actuation

σ� Steroids

52. In addition, dental practices might wish to stock the following drugs to aid the management of patients with mild allergic reactions, except…

σ� Cetirizine 10mg tablets or oral solution (5 mg/5 ml)

σ� Chlorphenamine, 4mg tablets or oral solution (2 mg/5 ml)

σ� Loratadine, 10 mg /tablets

σ� Midazolam buccal liquid, 10 mg/ml, or midazolam injection

53. The following are key signs of anaphylaxis, except…

σ� Upper airway oedema and bronchospasm

σ� Stridor and wheezing

σ� Tachycardia (heart rate > 110 per minute)

σ� HTA

54. The following are the priority the managements of anaphylaxis, except…

σ� Assess the patient

σ� Call for an ambulance

σ� Secure the patient’s airway

σ� Check BP

σ� Administer IV fluid

55. The following are signs and symptoms of mild allergy reaction, except….

σ� Urticaria and rash, particularly of chest, hands and feet

σ� Rhinitis

σ� Conjunctivitis

σ� Mild bronchospasm without evidence of severe shortness of breath

σ� Abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhea

56. The following are treatment of milder forms of allergy reaction, except…

σ� Administer 1 Cetirizine Tablet, 10 mg for children

σ� Or Administer 1 Chlorphenamine Tablet, 4mg

σ� Or Administer a salbutamol inhaler, 4 puffs (100 μg per actuation)

σ� Or Administer Midazolam buccal liquid, 10 mg/ml, or midazolam injection

57. The following are signs and symptoms of acute severe asthmatic, except….

σ� Inability to complete sentences in one breath

σ� Respiratory rate >25 per minute

σ� Tachycardia (heart rate >110 per minute)

σ� Convulsion and diarrhea

58. The following are managements of asthmatic, except….

σ� Assess the patient and sit patient upright

σ� Administer 100% oxygen - flow rate: 10L/mn

σ� Administer a salbutamol inhaler, 4 puffs (100 μg per actuation), repeat as needed

σ� Administer Adrenaline, 1ml/A of 1:1000 solution for IM

59. The following are signs and symptoms of acute Angina and MI, except….

σ� Shortness of breath and increased respiratory rate

σ� Skin becomes pale and clammy

σ� Nausea and vomiting are common

σ� Pulse might be weak and blood pressure might fall

σ� Crushing pain in the right and across the front of chest

60. The following are signs and symptoms of Epilepsy, except….

σ� Sudden loss of consciousness

σ� Patient may become rigid, fall, might give a cry and becomes cyanosed

σ� Jerking movements of the limbs; the tongue might be bitten

σ� Brief warning or ‘aura’ and frothing from the mouth and urinary incontinence

σ� Abdominal pain and vomiting

61. Which of the following is not true the management of epilepsy?

σ� Assess the patient

σ� Do not try to restrain convulsive movements

σ� Ensure the patient is not at risk from injury

σ� Secure the patient’s circulation

σ� Administer 100% oxygen-flow rate: 10L/mn

62. The following are signs and symptoms of faint, except….

σ� Dizzy, light-headed

σ� Slow pulse rate

σ� Loss of consciousness

σ� Pallor and sweating

σ� Abdominal pain and diarrhea

63. The following are key signs of Hypoglycaemia, except…

σ� Aggression and confusion

σ� Sweating

σ� Tachycardia (heart rate >110 per min

σ� Cyanosis

64. The following are the symptoms of Hypoglycaemia, except…

σ� Shaking and trembling

σ� Difficulty in concentration

σ� Slurring of speech and Headache

σ� Fitting and Unconsciousness

σ� Hypertension arterial

65. The following are the managements of Hypoglycaemia, except…

σ� Assess the patient

σ� Administer 100% oxygen-flow rate: 10L/mn

σ� Administer oral glucose (10–20 g), repeated, after10–15 minutes

σ� Administer adrenaline, 0.5 ml (1:1000), IM. Injection

66. Which of the following is wrong of the management of Hypoglycaemia with the unconscious patient?

σ� Assess the patient

σ� Administer 100% oxygen-flow rate: 10L/mn

σ� Administer oral glucose (10–20 g), repeated, after10–15 minutes

σ� Or Administer glucagon, 1 mg, IM

67. Which of the drug is not true for the management of Anxiety patient?

σ� Midazolam

σ� Diazepam

σ� Lorazepam

σ� Ketamine

68. The patients with congestive heart failure may have all of these conditions, except:

σ� Extreme dyspnea

σ� Hyperventilation

σ� Extreme headache

σ� Cyanosis

69. The patients with congestive heart failure may have all of these conditions, except:

σ� Cough

σ� Hemoptysis

σ� Difficulty in breathing

σ� Teary eyes

70. The incorrect preventive measure before the surgical procedure for a patient with congestive heart failure is

σ� Written consent from the patient’s cardiologist

σ� Oral premedication

σ� Long painless appointments

σ� Small amounts of vasoconstrictors in local anesthesia

71. The preferred position for the patients with congestive heart failure is

σ� Standing position

σ� Sitting position.

σ� Sleeping position

σ� Sleeping position with legs raised a bit upward

72. The incorrect preventive measure before the surgical procedure for a patient with angina pectoris is

σ� Oral premedication, usually 20-50mg diazepam

σ� Written consent from the patient’s cardiologist

σ� Small amounts of vasoconstrictors in local anesthesia

σ� Dental surgery in hospital

73. What is the most common emergency in dental office?

σ� Asthma

σ� Angina pectoris

σ� Postural hypotension

σ� Syncope

74. Which age group and gender is most commonly prone to syncope or faint?

σ� Between the ages of 45 to 65 years and more women than men

σ� Between the ages of 16 to 35 years and more men than women

σ� Between the ages of 65 to 85 years and equal genders

σ� It happens in all age groups

75. Why pediatric patients rarely develop syncope?

σ� Because they are very healthy

σ� Because they are not nervous

σ� Because they do not hide their fears and readily react emotionally and physically during a stressful situation

σ� Because they usually go the dental clinic with their parents

76. What happens to us when vasovagal reaction starts?

σ� Bradycardia

σ� Hypotension

σ� Hypoxia of the brain

σ� All of the above

77. Which one of the following is NOT the causes of syncope?

σ� Pollen

σ� Cardiac

σ� Peripheral vascular

σ� Cerebrovascular

78. Which one of the following is NOT the symptoms of syncope?

σ� Breathing – irregular, jerky & gasping

σ� Weak thready pulse

σ� Convulsive movements

σ� Bronchospasm

79. Which one of the following is NOT the non-psychogenic factors predispose to syncope?

σ� Sitting in upright position or standing

σ� Emotional stress

σ� Hunger (from dieting & missed meals)

σ� Exhaustion or fatigue

80. What are the late symptoms of presyncope stage?

σ� Cold hands and feet

σ� Visual disturbances

σ� Dizziness

σ� All of the above

81. Which one of the following is not the sign and symptoms of postsyncoppe stage?

σ� Sweating

σ� Urticaria

σ� Pallor

σ� Nausea

82. For the management of patients with syncope, why do we need to place head lower than heart with legs slightly raised?

σ� To restore normal heart rate

σ� To normalize pulse rate

σ� To allow blood flow into the brain

σ� To raise blood sugar level

83. When do you need to place the patients in Recovery Position?

σ� When they loose consciousness but are still breathing

σ� When they are still fully conscious

σ� When they are in seizure

σ� When they have got hyperventilation

84. Which of the following is NOT the vital signs?

σ� Pulse

σ� Blood pressure

σ� Enlarged lymph nodes

σ� Respirations and temperature

85. When do you have to reassure the patients?

σ� Before starting the dental treatment

σ� During dental procedures

σ� After the procedures

σ� All of the above

86. Which one of the following statement is NOT the symptoms and signs of hypoglycaemia?

σ� Hunger

σ� Itching

σ� Sweating

σ� Pins and needles in lips and tongue

87. In which case Glucagon is injected subcutaneously?

σ� Conscious hypoglycaemia

σ� Unconscious hypoglycaemia

σ� Syncope

σ� Angina pectoris

88. Why glucose or dextrose is not allowed to give IM and subcutaneous?

σ� Because it can cause drug reaction

σ� Because if can cause tissue abscess

σ� Because this will cause tissue necrosis

σ� Because this will cause severe pain

89. What happens if you give insulin to a hypoglycemic patient?

σ� The patient will feel better

σ� The patient will feel dizzy

σ� The patient will be relaxed

σ� The patient would die

90. How do you put a semiconscious or unconscious patient in a recovery position?

σ� The patient lay upside down

σ� The patient is placed to the right side

σ� The patient placed to the left side with the arms and legs crossed over

σ� The patient is seated in a semi-supine position

91. Why do we place a semiconscious or unconscious patient in a recovery position?

σ� To permits fluids to drain from the nose and throat so they are not breathed in

σ� To allow the patient sleep better

σ� To avoid injury to the neck

σ� To avoid head injury

92. Which one of the following statements is NOT the symptoms of allergy?

σ� Red, itchy, watery eyes

σ� Sneezing, congestion, runny nose

σ� Cold hands and feet

σ� Itchy or sore throat, postnasal drip, and cough

93. For management of allergy, which oral antihistamine is best?

σ� Promethazine (Phenegan*)

σ� Diphenhydramine (Benadryl*)

σ� Dramamin

σ� Cetirizziine

94. Which one of the following statement is NOT the symptoms of overdose reactions of local anesthetic

σ� Confusion, talkativeness

σ� Muscular twitching, facial tremor

σ� Blurred vision

σ� Headache, tinnitus, drowsiness, disorientation

95. How do you manage the overdose reaction of LA?

σ� Administer 100%

σ� Inject hydrocortisone

σ� Inject anticonvulsant such as Diazepam

σ� Administer 100% and Inject anticonvulsant such as Diazepam

96. Why anaphylaxis is the severe life threatening condition?

σ� Because it can cause laryngeal oedema

σ� Because it can cause bronchospasm

σ� Because it can cause airway obstruction and cardiac arrest

σ� All of the above

97. What are the typical symptoms and signs of anaphylazis?

σ� Urticaria

σ� Rapid swelling of the lips, tongue and the top of the feet and hands

σ� Stridor and wheezing

σ� All of the above

98. Which one of the following statement is NOT the treatment of anaphylxis?

σ� Inject Glucagon

σ� Give high flow Oxygen (10 Litres /minute) by face mask.

σ� Monitor vital signs

σ� Inject adrenalin 1:1000 IM

99. For the treatment of anaphylaxis over the age of 12 years old, how much adrenalin 1:1000 do you have to inject intramuscularly?

σ� 0.15ml

σ� 0.3ml

σ� 0.5ml

σ� 5ml

100. In the treatment of anaphylaxis between the age of 6 to 12 years old, how much adrenalin 1:1000 do you have to inject intramuscularly?

σ� 0.3ml

σ� 0.15ml

σ� 0.5ml

σ� 0.25ml

101. For the treatment of anaphylaxis under the age of 6 years old, how much adrenalin 1:1000 do you have to inject intramuscularly?

σ� 1.5ml

σ� 0.15ml

σ� 0.25ml

σ� 0.50ml

102. How much oxygen do you use for the management of anaphylaxis?

σ� Low flow of 4L per minute

σ� Medium flow of 6L/minute

σ� Pretty high flow of 7L/minute

σ� High flow of 10 Litres /minute by face mask

103. How much normal saline (0.9% w/v sodium chloride) IV do you use for the management of anaphylaxis?

σ� 1000 ml

σ� 2000 ml

σ� 1 - 3 litres

σ� 1000 ml and 1 - 3 litres

104. When the second dose of adrenalin is necessary to use for the management of anaphylaxis?

σ� After 5 minutes of no clinical improvement

σ� After 7 minutes of no clinical improvement

σ� After 10 minutes of no clinical improvement

σ� After 15 minutes of no clinical improvement

105. In postural hypotension, the systolic blood pressure can drop to:?

σ� 50 mm Hg in one minute

σ� 60 mm Hg in one minute

σ� 70 mm Hg in one minute

σ� 80 mm Hg in one minute

106. Which one of the following statement is NOT the predisposing factor to postural hypotension?

σ� Prolonged period of leaning or recovery from prolonged sickness

σ� Late stage pregnancy and advanced age

σ� Taking steroid over 6 months

σ� Taking drugs such as sodium depleting diuretics, calcium channel blockers & ganglion blocking agents, sedatives and narcotics, histamine blockers

107. What does postural hypotension differ from vasodepressor syncope?

σ� The heart rate during postural hypotension remain at the baseline level or somewhat higher

σ� The heart rate during postural hypotension is lower than syncope

σ� The pulse rate in postural hypotension is faster

σ� The blood pressure in hypotension is higher than in syncope

108. What is the first step for the management of postural hypotension?

σ� Give oxygen

σ� Start ABC

σ� Sit the patient upright

σ� Lay the down with the feet slightly elevated

109. Which one of the following statement is NOT the prevention of postural hypotension?

σ� Patient should be slowly returned to erect position at end of the treatment

σ� Patient should quickly sit up and walk away immediately

σ� Two or three positional changes over a period of minute or two to reach the upright position.

σ� Patients should be cautioned against rising too rapidly from supine or semi-supine position.

110. What is the characteristic pain of angina pectoris?

σ� Acute severe pain under the sternum

σ� Chronic moderate pain in the chest

σ� Intermitten pain in the head

σ� Tender in the TMJ

111. What are the precipitating factors of angina?

σ� Exercise

σ� Emotion

σ� Heavy meal

σ� All of the above

112. Which one of the following statement is NOT the management of angina?

σ� Discontinue dental treatment

σ� Position the patient supine with feet elevated

σ� Administer oxygen

σ� Apply nitroglycerin sublingually

113. Which conditions Glyceryl Trinitrate is prescribed?

σ� For the treatment of allergy

σ� For the relief of severe chest pain caused by angina and myocardial infarction

σ� For the treatment of asthma

σ� For the treatment of epilepsy

114. What is the difference between angina pectoris and acute myocardial infarction?

σ� Angina is more intense and longer pain than acute myocardial infarction

σ� Angina can cause sudden death

σ� Acute myocardial infarction is a severe and prolonged substernal pain, but more intense and of longer duration than the angina pectoris.

σ� Acute myocardial infarction is less severe than angina and doesn't cause sudden death

115. Which one of the following statement is NOT the management of myocardial infarction?

σ� Administer oxygen

σ� Infuse normal saline

σ� Administer aspirin sublingually

σ� Manage pain with parenteral opioids

116. Which medicines that can be used for the treatment of angina and myocardial infarction?

σ� Glyceryl Trinitrate spray or tablet

σ� Midazolam

σ� Aspirin tablet dissolve under the tongue

σ� Glyceryl Trinitrate spray and Aspirin tablet dissolve under the tongue

117. What is the dosage of chewable Aspirin for the treatment of acute coronary syndrome?

σ� 150mg

σ� 200mg

σ� 300mg

σ� 500mg

118. Which one of the following statement is NOT the management acute coronary syndrome?

σ� Breath in clap hands

σ� Give 300mg Aspirin: chewed or dissolved before swallowing

σ� Monitor patient's vital signs: respiration, pulse, BP, oxygen saturation. If patient loses consciousness do Basic Life Support

σ� Start CPR if they stop breathing

119. Which one of the following statement is NOT the trigger of seizure?

σ� Stress/anxiety

σ� Missed medication

σ� Lack of sleep/extreme fatigue

σ� Anticonvulsant medication

120. Which one of the following statement is NOT the management of siezure?

σ� Position supine with patient placed on flat surfaces

σ� Remove dangerous objects from the mouth and around the patient eg. Sharp instruments

σ� Loosen any tight clothing

σ� Restrain the patient

121. What is the definitive treatment of seizure?

σ� Administer oxygen

σ� Start CPR

σ� Inject Diazepam 10mg IV

σ� Inject adrenalin 1:1000 IM

122. Which one of the following statement is NOT the management of epilepsy?

σ� Make the chair supine or lay the patient on the floor

σ� Give antihistamine orally

σ� Assess consciousness by talking to the patient

σ� D. Maintain the airway

123. How to prevent status epilepticus?

σ� Tell the patient to take regular dose of anticonvulsant on the day of treatment

σ� Instruct him/her to alert you as the aura of the impending seizure manifests itself.

σ� Keep life support equipment ready in case of an emergent status epilepticus

σ� All of the above

124. Which one of the following statement is NOT the symptoms and signs of asthma?

σ� Rapid respiration

σ� Chest pain

σ� Expiratory wheezing

σ� Breathlessness

125. Which medication is used for the treatment of asthma?

σ� Anticonvulsant

σ� Glucagon

σ� Salbutamol Aerosol Inhaler (Ventolin*)

σ� Nitrous oxide

126. Hyperventilation is caused by:?

σ� Loss of oxygen in the brain

σ� Loss of carbine dioxide from the blood

σ� Excess of adrenaline

σ� Excess of uric acid

127. Which one of the following statement is NOT the symptoms of hyperventilation?

σ� Slow, heavily long breaths

σ� Rapid short strained breaths

σ� Cold sweats

σ� Palpitation and dizziness

128. Which one of the following statement is NOT the management of hyperventilation?

σ� Position the patient supine

σ� Reassure the patient and stabilize vital signs

σ� Encourage patient to rebreath into a paper bag or clap hands

σ� Inject Diazepam 10mg IV or 3 – 5mg Midazolam IV or IM in severe cases

129. What happens when hyperventilation is not treated?

σ� Patient develops into unconscious

σ� Patient may become convulsion

σ� Patient may develop a typical sign of Carpopedal Tetany

σ� Patient may die

130. Which one of the following statement is NOT the causes of airway obstruction?

σ� Tongue of unconscious patient

σ� Flumazenil (Benzodiazepine antagonist)

σ� Foreign body

σ� Overdose sedative drug

131. Which one of the following statement is NOT the presentation of airway obstruction?

σ� Sridor

σ� Choking

σ� No sound or voice

σ� Skin rash

132. How to prevent airway obstruction?

σ� Use rubber dam to prevent falling of endo files

σ� Use high power suction

σ� Place a gauze pack at the back of the mouth (laryngeal screen)

σ� All of the above

133. Which one of the following statement is NOT the management of airway obstruction?

σ� Clear the airway

σ� Elevate the patient's feet

σ� Perform head tilt and chin lift and a jaw thrust

σ� Perform the Heimlich maneuver

134. Which one of the following statement is NOT the management of acute adrenal insufficiency or collapse?

σ� Lay the patient flat with feet elevated

σ� Administer oxygen

σ� Inject hydrocortisone 200mg IV

σ� Inject thyroid hormone T3 & T4

135. What is the treatment of alcoholic?

σ� Administration of 100 mg thiamine IV

σ� Treat hypoglycaemia with 50 ml of 50% dextrose solution

σ� Provide oxygen therapy as needed

σ� All of the above

136. What are the steps of medical emergencies?

σ� Primary survey, basic life support, and advanced life support (CPR)

σ� Position, emergency drugs, call ambulance

σ� Use oxygen, put in recovery position

σ� All of the above

137. In CPR, how many chest compressions per minute and how many breaths?

σ� 15 compressions per minute, one breath

σ� 20 compressions per minute, 3 breaths

σ� 30 compressions, 2 breaths

σ� 40 compressions, 4 breaths

138. How much oxygen do the breathing victims need per minute?

σ� 1 - 4 LPM

σ� 4 - 6LPM

σ� 10 - 15LPM

σ� 15 - 20LPM

139. How much oxygen do the victims with difficulty in breathing need per minute?

σ� 1 - 4 LPM

σ� 4 - 6 LPM

σ� 10 - 15 LPM

σ� 15 LPM or higher

140. What type of oxygen mask is used for breathing victims?

σ� Nasal cannula

σ� Non-rebreather mask

σ� Bag-valve mask

σ� Manual Resuscitation mask

141. What are oropharyngeal airways used for?

σ� For retracting the tongue from blocking the airway

σ� For intubating the larynx

σ� For opening the pharynx

σ� For mouth-to-mouth breathing

142. Which emergency cases oxygen are NOT needed?

σ� Hyperventilation

σ� Angina pectoris

σ� Syncope and seizure

σ� Hyperventilation and Syncope and seizure

143. In CPR, how many cycles of chest compressions and breaths before the pulse of the victims are needed to be re-assessed?

σ� 2 cycles of 15 compressions/1 breath

σ� 3 cycles of 20 compressions / 2 breaths

σ� 4 cycles of 30 compressions / 2 breaths

σ� 6 cycles of 40 compressions / 3 breaths

144. In CPR of a small child, how many chest compressions per minute and how many breaths?

σ� 10 compressions per minute, one breath

σ� 15 compressions per minute, 2 breaths

σ� 30 compressions, 2 breaths

σ� 40 compressions, 4 breaths

145. In CPR of an infant, how many chest compressions per minute and how many breaths?

σ� 5 compressions per minute, one breath

σ� 15 compressions per minute, 2 breaths

σ� 30 compressions, 2 breaths

σ� 50 compressions, 5 breaths

146. What do Magill forceps used for?

σ� For picking sterilized instruments

σ� For retrieving foreign objects from the hypopharynx

σ� For retrieving fractured endo file in the root canal

σ� For picking up dropped instruments from the floor

147. What is a pulse oximeter used for?

σ� For measuring the pulse

σ� For measuring temperature

σ� For measuring oxygen saturation in the arterial blood

σ� For measuring the pulse and For measuring oxygen saturation in the arterial blood

148. Which one of the following is NOT the emergency drugs?

σ� Oxygen

σ� Adrenalin, glucagon, diazepam, hydrocortisone Adrenalin, glucagon, diazepam, hydrocortisone

σ� Antihypertensive drug

σ� Glyceryl trinitrate

149. What is the emergency drug for severe bleeding control?

σ� Vitamin K

σ� Adrenoxyl

σ� Dicinone

σ� Tranexamic acid

150. What are the preventive measures for medical emergency?

σ� Complete past medical history & medications

σ� Vigilant observation & prompt recognition of symptoms of an emergency

σ� Anxiety, stress reduction, and monitor patients during treatment

σ� All of the above

151. Which one of the following is NOT the general anxiety-reduction protocol during appointment?

σ� Frequent verbal reassurances

σ� Distracting conversation

σ� Warning the patient before doing the procedures

σ� Keeping surgical instruments out of patient’s sight

152. Which one of the following is NOT the haemorrhage control of maxillofacial trauma?

σ� Pressure dressings

σ� Blindly clamp into a wound

σ� Elevate head in the hemodynamically stable patient

σ� Wire the fracture jaws

153. Which one of the following statement is NOT the common signs and symptoms of maxillofacial trauma?

σ� Bruising / swelling

σ� Step deformity

σ� Presence of pus

σ� Bleeding / CSF

154. How to stabilize cervical spine fracture?

σ� By using cervical collar or sandbags

σ� By using special metal neck supports

σ� By using any device to immobilize the neck, including newspapers

σ� By using cervical collar or sandbags and By using any device to immobilize the neck, including newspapers

155. Among the following statement, which one always indicate airway obstruction?

σ� Increase respiratory rate

σ� Increase pulse rate

σ� Snoring breathing

σ� Decreased blood pressure

156. The following are the time of systemic complications occurrence, which one occurs the most?

σ� Immediate before treatment

σ� During or after local anesthesia

σ� During treatment

σ� After treatment

157. The following are data of occurrence of systemic complications during treatment, which one is the most common complication?

σ� Tooth extraction

σ� Pulp extirpation

σ� Preparation

σ� Filling

158. Which one is the major cause of the airway obstructions?

σ� Pharynx

σ� Lung

σ� Tongue

σ� Nose

159. The following are the airway equipment for medical emergencies except ?

σ� Oxygen tank

σ� Cotton role and gauze

σ� Oropharyngeal airways and face masks

σ� Suction unit and suction tubes

160. The right position is the one that is most comfortable for the patient of emergencies, which is correct for asthmatic patient?

σ� The patient needs to be flat on his or her back

σ� Patients probably will want to sit up, which helps their ability to breathe.

σ� Place the patient horizontally with the feet slightly elevated

σ� With the feet elevated slightly, the patient can receive a larger flow of blood to the head and thus stimulate the brain

161. The following are the signs and symptoms of the angina pectoris except:?

σ� Pain posterior to the sternum, may be precipitated by fatigue, extreme stress, or a rich meal, and subsides within 2–5 min after rest and the use of vasodilators

σ� Painful discomfort in the chest, with a burning sensation, pressure, or tightness

σ� Pain may be present in the cardiac area, radiating to the left shoulder, neck, left arm, sometimes down the chin and teeth of the mandible

σ� Pain may be present in the cardiac area, radiating to the right shoulder, neck, left arm, sometimes down the chin and teeth of the mandible.

162. For patients with hypothyroidism, on medications, extraction of decayed teeth is:?

σ� A relative contraindication

σ� Treated as normal extraction

σ� Indicated, with maximum precautions

σ� An absolute contraindication

163. Which of the following is wrong about Blood Pressure (BP):?

σ� BP is recorded as two numbers: systolic and diastolic pressure

σ� The systolic pressure (as the heart relaxes between beats) and the diastolic pressure (as the heart beats).

σ� The measurement is written the systolic number on top and the diastolic number on the bottom ( Eg: 120/80 mmHg)

σ� None of all

164. Which of the following is the management of patient with asthma?

σ� Administration of sedative medication for stress management

σ� Control of pain (to avoid stress), with sufficient duration and depth of local anesthesia

σ� Short appointments with gentle manipulations during surgical procedure

σ� All are correct

165. The following are the mild allergy symptoms, except:?

σ� Skin rash

σ� Itchy

σ� Dyspnea

σ� Watery eyes

166. The following are a list of emergency drugs and equipment , except:?

σ� Adrenaline, 1ml/A of 1:1000 solution for IM

σ� Aspirin, 300 mg dispersible tablets

σ� Glucagon, for IM of 1 mg

σ� Antibiotics

167. To perform tracheoctomy entry should be made at the: ?

σ� Cricothyroid ligament

σ� Thyroid membrane

σ� Thyroid notch

σ� Cricoid cartilage

168. The following are key signs of anaphylaxis, except:?

σ� Upper airway oedema and bronchospasm

σ� Stridor and wheezing

σ� Tachycardia (heart rate > 110 per minute)

σ� Circumoral paresthesia

169. In CPR, if one incorrectly apply pressure over xiphoid process the following may be injured:?

σ� Heart

σ� Liver

σ� Spleen

σ� Lungs

170. If cardiac arrest follows an anaphylactic reaction, which the priority of management is?

σ� Start BLS immediately

σ� Administer 100% oxygen, flow rate: 10 litres/minute

σ� Administer adrenaline, 0.5 ml (1:1000), IM. injection

σ� Call for an ambulance

171. Which of the following is best treatment for hypoglycaemia in an unconscious diabetic patient?

σ� IV administration of 50 percent dextrose in water

σ� Administration of oral carbohydrates

σ� Sublingual injection of 50 percent dextrose

σ� None of All

172. The following are signs and symptoms of life-threatening asthma, except:?

σ� Cyanosis or respiratory rate <8 per minute

σ� Bradycardia (heart rate <50 per minute)

σ� Exhaustion, confusion, decreased conscious level

σ� Abdominal pain and vomiting.

173. The following are signs and symptoms of acute severe asthmatic attack, except:?

σ� Inability to complete sentences in one breath

σ� Convulsion and diarrhea

σ� Respiratory rate >25 per minute

σ� Tachycardia (heart rate >110 per minute)

174. The following are managements of asthmatic, except:?

σ� Assess the patient and sit patient upright

σ� Administer 100% oxygen - flow rate: 10L/mn

σ� Administer a salbutamol inhaler, 4 puffs (100 μg per actuation), repeat as needed

σ� Administer Adrenaline, 1ml/A of 1:1000 solution for IM

175. The following are signs and symptoms of acute Angina and MI, except:?

σ� Shortness of breath and increased respiratory rate

σ� Skin becomes pale and clammy

σ� Crushing pain in the right and across the front of chest

σ� Nausea and vomiting are common

176. Which of the following is wrong about the management of angina and MI?

σ� Assess the patient

σ� Administer100% oxygen - flow rate: 10L/mn

σ� Administer glyceryl trinitrate spray, 2 puffs sublingually or administer aspirin,300mg dispersible tablet, orally

σ� Administer antibiotics.

177. Which of the following is not true of key signs of cardiac arrest?

σ� Loss of consciousness

σ� Tachycardia

σ� Absence of breathing

σ� Loss of pulse

178. Which of the following is wrong the management of cardiac arrest?

σ� Call for an ambulance

σ� Initiate BLS, using 100% oxygen or ventilation - flow rate: 10 litres/ minute

σ� If a defibrillator is available, carry out early defibrillation

σ� Administer IV blood fluid.

179. The following are signs and symptoms of Epilepsy, except:?

σ� Sudden loss of consciousness

σ� Patient may become rigid, fall, might give a cry and becomes cyanosed

σ� Abdominal pain and vomiting

σ� Jerking movements of the limbs; the tongue might be bitten

180. Which of the following is not true the management of epilepsy?

σ� Assess the patient

σ� To restrain convulsive movements

σ� Ensure the patient is not at risk from injury

σ� Secure the patient’s airway and administer 100% oxygen-flow rate: 10L/mn

181. What is the first step to check before starting CPR?

σ� Responsiveness and pulse

σ� To establish airway

σ� Blood pressure

σ� All of the above

182. Which of the following is wrong to the management of faint?

σ� Assess the patient

σ� Lay the patient flat and, if the patient is not breathless, raise the patient’s feet

σ� Administer Midazolam buccal liquid, 10 mg/ml, or midazolam injection.

σ� Administer 100% oxygen-flow rate: 10L/mn

183. The following are key signs of Hypoglycaemia, except:?

σ� Aggression and confusion

σ� Sweating

σ� Tachycardia (heart rate >110 per min

σ� Cyanosis

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