Gyneco(301-350)
Gynecology Knowledge Quiz
Test your medical knowledge with our comprehensive gynecology quiz designed for students, healthcare professionals, and anyone interested in women's health. This quiz features 50 multiple-choice questions covering a variety of gynecological topics, including menstrual disorders, reproductive health, and diagnostic procedures.
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- Perfect for exam preparation or self-assessment
A 24-year-old nulligravida woman comes to your office with an 18-month history of cyclic, debilitating pelvic pain related to menses. Her menses is regular and heavy, requiring 10 to 15 thick pads on the days of heaviest flow. She denies ever being diagnosed with a sexually transmitted infection (STI). She and her husband have been engaging in regular intercourse without contraception for 1 year in an attempt to conceive. On pelvic examination, you find a normalsized, immobile, retroverted uterus with nodularity and tenderness on palpation of the uterosacral ligaments.Which of the following studies would establish a diagnosis in this condition?
A. hysteroscopy
B. ultrasound
C. laparoscopy
D. hysterosalpingogram (HSG)
E. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
A 24-year-old nulligravida woman comes to your office with an 18-month history of cyclic, debilitating pelvic pain related to menses. Her menses is regular and heavy, requiring 10 to 15 thick pads on the days of heaviest flow. She denies ever being diagnosed with a sexually transmitted infection (STI). She and her husband have been engaging in regular intercourse without contraception for 1 year in an attempt to conceive. On pelvic examination, you find a normalsized, immobile, retroverted uterus with nodularity and tenderness on palpation of the uterosacral ligaments.Which of the following is not an appropriate medical therapy for this condition?
A. danazol
B. GnRH agonist
C. continuous OCPs
D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (Depo-SubQ Provera 104)
E. clomiphene
A 24-year-old nulligravida woman comes to your office with an 18-month history of cyclic, debilitating pelvic pain related to menses. Her menses is regular and heavy, requiring 10 to 15 thick pads on the days of heaviest flow. She denies ever being diagnosed with a sexually transmitted infection (STI). She and her husband have been engaging in regular intercourse without contraception for 1 year in an attempt to conceive. On pelvic examination, you find a normalsized, immobile, retroverted uterus with nodularity and tenderness on palpation of the uterosacral ligaments.Which of the following is least consistent with secondary dysmenorrhea?
A. Normal pelvic examination
B. Onset of pain after the age of 25 years
C. Onset of pain during adolescence
D. Pain relief with NSAIDs
E. Pain relief with OCPs
A 24-year-old nulligravida woman comes to your office with an 18-month history of cyclic, debilitating pelvic pain related to menses. Her menses is regular and heavy, requiring 10 to 15 thick pads on the days of heaviest flow. She denies ever being diagnosed with a sexually transmitted infection (STI). She and her husband have been engaging in regular intercourse without contraception for 1 year in an attempt to conceive. On pelvic examination, you find a normalsized, immobile, retroverted uterus with nodularity and tenderness on palpation of the uterosacral ligaments.Other causes of secondary dysmenorrhea include all of the following except
A. PID
B. Chronic use of OCPs
C. Uterine fibroids
D. IUD
E. adenomyosis
A 35-year-old female presents to your office with concerns about heavy menstrual periods for the past year that occur at irregular intervals. She explains that sometimes her menses comes twice a month but other times will skip 2 months in a row. Her menses may last 7 to 10 days and require 10 to 15 thick sanitary napkins on the heaviest days. She admits to some fatigue, but she denies any lightheadedness. She has no pain with menses or intercourse. She denies any vaginal discharge or any other symptoms. She is a nonsmoker. She has had normal Pap smears in the past. She is in a stable monogamous relationship with her husband and denies a history of sexually transmitted infections (STIs). On physical examination, her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg and her body mass index (BMI) is 32. Her physical examination is normal, including pelvic exam.The patient’s bleeding pattern is best described as
A. menometorrhagia
B. polymenorrhea
C. menorrhagia
D. metorrhagia
E. oligomenorrhea
A 35-year-old female presents to your office with concerns about heavy menstrual periods for the past year that occur at irregular intervals. She explains that sometimes her menses comes twice a month but other times will skip 2 months in a row. Her menses may last 7 to 10 days and require 10 to 15 thick sanitary napkins on the heaviest days. She admits to some fatigue, but she denies any lightheadedness. She has no pain with menses or intercourse. She denies any vaginal discharge or any other symptoms. She is a nonsmoker. She has had normal Pap smears in the past. She is in a stable monogamous relationship with her husband and denies a history of sexually transmitted infections (STIs). On physical examination, her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg and her body mass index (BMI) is 32. Her physical examination is normal, including pelvic exam.Which of the following should initially be considered in the differential diagnosis of this patient’s problem?
A. dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB)
B. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
C. Endometrial carcinoma
D. Bleeding dyscrasia
E. All of the above
A 35-year-old female presents to your office with concerns about heavy menstrual periods for the past year that occur at irregular intervals. She explains that sometimes her menses comes twice a month but other times will skip 2 months in a row. Her menses may last 7 to 10 days and require 10 to 15 thick sanitary napkins on the heaviest days. She admits to some fatigue, but she denies any lightheadedness. She has no pain with menses or intercourse. She denies any vaginal discharge or any other symptoms. She is a nonsmoker. She has had normal Pap smears in the past. She is in a stable monogamous relationship with her husband and denies a history of sexually transmitted infections (STIs). On physical examination, her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg and her body mass index (BMI) is 32. Her physical examination is normal, including pelvic exam.Which of the following tests is not appropriate for the initial workup of this patient?
A. Complete blood count (CBC)
B. Assessment for history of bleeding dyscrasia
C. Free testosterone and dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEAS)
D. Urine pregnancy test
E. All of the above
A 35-year-old female presents to your office with concerns about heavy menstrual periods for the past year that occur at irregular intervals. She explains that sometimes her menses comes twice a month but other times will skip 2 months in a row. Her menses may last 7 to 10 days and require 10 to 15 thick sanitary napkins on the heaviest days. She admits to some fatigue, but she denies any lightheadedness. She has no pain with menses or intercourse. She denies any vaginal discharge or any other symptoms. She is a nonsmoker. She has had normal Pap smears in the past. She is in a stable monogamous relationship with her husband and denies a history of sexually transmitted infections (STIs). On physical examination, her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg and her body mass index (BMI) is 32. Her physical examination is normal, including pelvic exam.The most likely diagnosis is
A. DUB
B. PID
C. Endometrial carcinoma
D. Bleeding dyscrasia
E. None of the above
A 35-year-old female presents to your office with concerns about heavy menstrual periods for the past year that occur at irregular intervals. She explains that sometimes her menses comes twice a month but other times will skip 2 months in a row. Her menses may last 7 to 10 days and require 10 to 15 thick sanitary napkins on the heaviest days. She admits to some fatigue, but she denies any lightheadedness. She has no pain with menses or intercourse. She denies any vaginal discharge or any other symptoms. She is a nonsmoker. She has had normal Pap smears in the past. She is in a stable monogamous relationship with her husband and denies a history of sexually transmitted infections (STIs). On physical examination, her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg and her body mass index (BMI) is 32. Her physical examination is normal, including pelvic exam.What is the most likely underlying mechanism for this patient’s abnormal bleeding?
A. A coagulation defect
B. anovulation
C. Uterine pathology
D. Cervical pathology
E. None of the above
A 35-year-old female presents to your office with concerns about heavy menstrual periods for the past year that occur at irregular intervals. She explains that sometimes her menses comes twice a month but other times will skip 2 months in a row. Her menses may last 7 to 10 days and require 10 to 15 thick sanitary napkins on the heaviest days. She admits to some fatigue, but she denies any lightheadedness. She has no pain with menses or intercourse. She denies any vaginal discharge or any other symptoms. She is a nonsmoker. She has had normal Pap smears in the past. She is in a stable monogamous relationship with her husband and denies a history of sexually transmitted infections (STIs). On physical examination, her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg and her body mass index (BMI) is 32. Her physical examination is normal, including pelvic exam.Your patient returns to discuss test results. Her hemoglobin is 10.8 g/dL. She does not desire future fertility and has no method of birth control at this time. Which of the following therapies would not be an appropriate medical management option for this patient?
A. Iron supplementation
B. Cyclic progestin
C. Medroxyprogesterone acetate injection (Depo-Provera)
D. Combined oral contraceptives
E. Levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS)
A 25-year-old female (gravida 0, para 0) presents to your office complaining of not having her period for the past 6 months. She previously had regular cycles since menarche at age 13 years. Her blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg, and her BMI is 19. Her physical exam is unremarkable, including pelvic exam. She has normal secondary sexual development. Upon further questioning, she reveals that she has been training for a marathon and has lost approximately 10 pounds in the past 2 months. She does not have an eating disorder. She is currently sexually active with one partner and desires contraception.Which of the following best describes this patient’s bleeding pattern?
A. Primary amenorrhea
B. Secondary amenorrhea
C. dysmenorrhea
D. oligomenorrhea
E. polymenorrhea
A 25-year-old female (gravida 0, para 0) presents to your office complaining of not having her period for the past 6 months. She previously had regular cycles since menarche at age 13 years. Her blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg, and her BMI is 19. Her physical exam is unremarkable, including pelvic exam. She has normal secondary sexual development. Upon further questioning, she reveals that she has been training for a marathon and has lost approximately 10 pounds in the past 2 months. She does not have an eating disorder. She is currently sexually active with one partner and desires contraception.Which of the following would be the least likely cause for this patient’s bleeding pattern?
A. pregnancy
B. hypothyroidism
C. Hypothalamic amenorrhea
D. hyperprolactinemia
E. Turner’s syndrome
A 25-year-old female (gravida 0, para 0) presents to your office complaining of not having her period for the past 6 months. She previously had regular cycles since menarche at age 13 years. Her blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg, and her BMI is 19. Her physical exam is unremarkable, including pelvic exam. She has normal secondary sexual development. Upon further questioning, she reveals that she has been training for a marathon and has lost approximately 10 pounds in the past 2 months. She does not have an eating disorder. She is currently sexually active with one partner and desires contraception.What is the most appropriate initial step in the evaluation of this patient’s condition?
A. Progestin challenge
B. hysteroscopy
C. Pelvic ultrasound
D. Depo-Provera shot
E. None of the above
A 25-year-old female (gravida 0, para 0) presents to your office complaining of not having her period for the past 6 months. She previously had regular cycles since menarche at age 13 years. Her blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg, and her BMI is 19. Her physical exam is unremarkable, including pelvic exam. She has normal secondary sexual development. Upon further questioning, she reveals that she has been training for a marathon and has lost approximately 10 pounds in the past 2 months. She does not have an eating disorder. She is currently sexually active with one partner and desires contraception.The patient’s laboratory studies come back normal. She had a positive response to a progestin challenge. At this time, what would be the most beneficial medical therapy for this patient?
A. Combined oral contraceptives
B. Monthly progestin pills on days 1 through 10
C. Monthly progestin pills on days 18 through 28
D. NSAIDs
E. All of the above are acceptable
A 55-year-old postmenopausal woman with a history of type II diabetes presents to your office for her annual gynecological exam. She experienced menopause approximately 3 years ago. She mentions to you that she has had recurrent episodes of irregular “menstrual-like” vaginal bleeding, occurring every 4 to 8 weeks, for the past 6 months. She describes the bleeding as lasting from 1 to 7 days, requiring one to five pads a day. The patient has never been on hormone therapy (HT). She complains of some fatigue but is otherwise feeling well. Her Pap smears have always been normal. Sexual history is significant for a new sexual partner for the past 6 months. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg and her BMI is 42. The rest of her physical exam, including pelvic, is normal.You perform a Pap smear and a gonorrhea/chlamydia screen. You also check a CBC and TSH. What else do you recommend to the patient at this time?
A. Transvaginal ultrasound
B. Dilation and curettage (D&C)
C. Combined oral contraceptives
D. Oral progestin challenge
E. Any of the above
A 55-year-old postmenopausal woman with a history of type II diabetes presents to your office for her annual gynecological exam. She experienced menopause approximately 3 years ago. She mentions to you that she has had recurrent episodes of irregular “menstrual-like” vaginal bleeding, occurring every 4 to 8 weeks, for the past 6 months. She describes the bleeding as lasting from 1 to 7 days, requiring one to five pads a day. The patient has never been on hormone therapy (HT). She complains of some fatigue but is otherwise feeling well. Her Pap smears have always been normal. Sexual history is significant for a new sexual partner for the past 6 months. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg and her BMI is 42. The rest of her physical exam, including pelvic, is normal.A transvaginal ultrasound is performed and is read as “no structural abnormalities, normal sized uterus and ovaries, 7 mm endometrial stripe noted.” What should be the next step in this patient’s management?
A. Repeat the ultrasound in 6 months
B. Give cyclic progestin
C. Perform an endometrial biopsy
D. Give cyclic oral contraceptives
E. Observation only
A 27-year-old nulligravida female presents to your office for routine exam. Upon gynecological history, you discover that she has a 5-year history of oligomenorrhea, with only approximately two or three menses a year. She denies intercycle spotting or premenstrual symptoms. Her last menses was 3 months ago. Her blood pressure is 120/75 mmHg and her BMI is 34. Her physical exam reveals a moderate amount of facial hair and facial acne. Her pelvic examination is unremarkable.What condition do you suspect in this patient?
A. Adrenal tumor
B. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
C. hypothyroidism
D. hyperprolactinoma
E. None of the above
A 27-year-old nulligravida female presents to your office for routine exam. Upon gynecological history, you discover that she has a 5-year history of oligomenorrhea, with only approximately two or three menses a year. She denies intercycle spotting or premenstrual symptoms. Her last menses was 3 months ago. Her blood pressure is 120/75 mmHg and her BMI is 34. Her physical exam reveals a moderate amount of facial hair and facial acne. Her pelvic examination is unremarkable.All of the following laboratory studies are appropriate for initial evaluation except
A. TSH
B. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
C. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D. Pregnancy test
E. Transvaginal ultrasound
A 27-year-old nulligravida female presents to your office for routine exam. Upon gynecological history, you discover that she has a 5-year history of oligomenorrhea, with only approximately two or three menses a year. She denies intercycle spotting or premenstrual symptoms. Her last menses was 3 months ago. Her blood pressure is 120/75 mmHg and her BMI is 34. Her physical exam reveals a moderate amount of facial hair and facial acne. Her pelvic examination is unremarkable.The patient returns after 2 weeks to discuss her blood test results. Her pregnancy test is negative and her prolactin, TSH, and 17-hydroxyprogesterone levels are normal. Her LH: FSH ratio is 4:1, and her testosterone level is mildly elevated. Which of the following treatment options has (have) been found to be beneficial in the treatment of PCOS?
A. Weight loss
B. Combined oral contraceptives
C. metformin
D. spironolactone
E. All of the above
A 37-year-old G1P1001 female comes to your office with a 3-day history of progressive pelvic pain. She notes some vaginal spotting but no frank bleeding. She denies any fevers, chills, diarrhea, vaginal discharge, or urinary symptoms. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. She is married and has been trying to conceive for the past 6 months. She and her husband have one child already, a result of in vitro fertilization (IVF). She is afebrile, and her pulse and blood pressure are normal. On speculum examination, her os appears closed and there is a small amount of dark brownish-red blood pooled in the fornix. There is no mucopurulent discharge or cervical motion tenderness. On bimanual examination, her uterus feels slightly enlarged and boggy, and the left adnexa is tender without any obvious mass. A wet prep is normal except for many red blood cells.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute cervicitis
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
D. Completed spontaneous abortion
E. endometriosis
A 37-year-old G1P1001 female comes to your office with a 3-day history of progressive pelvic pain. She notes some vaginal spotting but no frank bleeding. She denies any fevers, chills, diarrhea, vaginal discharge, or urinary symptoms. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. She is married and has been trying to conceive for the past 6 months. She and her husband have one child already, a result of in vitro fertilization (IVF). She is afebrile, and her pulse and blood pressure are normal. On speculum examination, her os appears closed and there is a small amount of dark brownish-red blood pooled in the fornix. There is no mucopurulent discharge or cervical motion tenderness. On bimanual examination, her uterus feels slightly enlarged and boggy, and the left adnexa is tender without any obvious mass. A wet prep is normal except for many red blood cells.What is the most appropriate initial test that should be performed to support your diagnosis?
A. Urine or serum -human chorionic gonadotropin -hCG)
B. hysterosalpingogram
C. culdocentesis
D. pelvic/transvaginal ultrasound
E. laparoscopy
A 37-year-old G1P1001 female comes to your office with a 3-day history of progressive pelvic pain. She notes some vaginal spotting but no frank bleeding. She denies any fevers, chills, diarrhea, vaginal discharge, or urinary symptoms. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. She is married and has been trying to conceive for the past 6 months. She and her husband have one child already, a result of in vitro fertilization (IVF). She is afebrile, and her pulse and blood pressure are normal. On speculum examination, her os appears closed and there is a small amount of dark brownish-red blood pooled in the fornix. There is no mucopurulent discharge or cervical motion tenderness. On bimanual examination, her uterus feels slightly enlarged and boggy, and the left adnexa is tender without any obvious mass. A wet prep is normal except for many red blood cells.A Serum-hCG is ordered and is reported soon thereafter to be 5000 mIU/mL. Based on this level of serum -hCG, you would expect which of the following?
A. An intrauterine pregnancy visible on transvaginal ultrasound only
B. An intrauterine pregnancy visible on transabdominal ultrasound only
C. An intrauterine pregnancy visible on both transvaginal and transabdominal ultrasound
D. No intrauterine pregnancy yet because it is still too early
E. None of the above
A 37-year-old G1P1001 female comes to your office with a 3-day history of progressive pelvic pain. She notes some vaginal spotting but no frank bleeding. She denies any fevers, chills, diarrhea, vaginal discharge, or urinary symptoms. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. She is married and has been trying to conceive for the past 6 months. She and her husband have one child already, a result of in vitro fertilization (IVF). She is afebrile, and her pulse and blood pressure are normal. On speculum examination, her os appears closed and there is a small amount of dark brownish-red blood pooled in the fornix. There is no mucopurulent discharge or cervical motion tenderness. On bimanual examination, her uterus feels slightly enlarged and boggy, and the left adnexa is tender without any obvious mass. A wet prep is normal except for many red blood cells.In which anatomic site do most ectopic pregnancies occur?
A. The ampulla of the fallopian tube
B. The isthmus of the fallopian tube
C. The interstitial portion of the fallopian tube
D. The interstitial portion of the ovary
E. The endometrial lining
A 37-year-old G1P1001 female comes to your office with a 3-day history of progressive pelvic pain. She notes some vaginal spotting but no frank bleeding. She denies any fevers, chills, diarrhea, vaginal discharge, or urinary symptoms. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. She is married and has been trying to conceive for the past 6 months. She and her husband have one child already, a result of in vitro fertilization (IVF). She is afebrile, and her pulse and blood pressure are normal. On speculum examination, her os appears closed and there is a small amount of dark brownish-red blood pooled in the fornix. There is no mucopurulent discharge or cervical motion tenderness. On bimanual examination, her uterus feels slightly enlarged and boggy, and the left adnexa is tender without any obvious mass. A wet prep is normal except for many red blood cells.A transvaginal ultrasound reveals a mass in the adnexal and no evidence of an intrauterine pregnancy. Which of the following medical treatments is appropriate for this condition?
A. Intravenous estrogen
B. Combined oral contraceptives (contain estrogen and progestin)
C. progestin-only pills
D. intramuscular (IM) medroxyprogesterone acetate
E. IM methotrexate
A 37-year-old G1P1001 female comes to your office with a 3-day history of progressive pelvic pain. She notes some vaginal spotting but no frank bleeding. She denies any fevers, chills, diarrhea, vaginal discharge, or urinary symptoms. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. She is married and has been trying to conceive for the past 6 months. She and her husband have one child already, a result of in vitro fertilization (IVF). She is afebrile, and her pulse and blood pressure are normal. On speculum examination, her os appears closed and there is a small amount of dark brownish-red blood pooled in the fornix. There is no mucopurulent discharge or cervical motion tenderness. On bimanual examination, her uterus feels slightly enlarged and boggy, and the left adnexa is tender without any obvious mass. A wet prep is normal except for many red blood cells.Which of the following situations could explain a s-hCG titer below the “discriminatory threshold” and an absence of an intrauterine gestational sac on ultrasound?
A. early, normal pregnancy
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Heterotopic pregnancy
D. Early pregnancy failure
E. All of the above
A 37-year-old G1P1001 female comes to your office with a 3-day history of progressive pelvic pain. She notes some vaginal spotting but no frank bleeding. She denies any fevers, chills, diarrhea, vaginal discharge, or urinary symptoms. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. She is married and has been trying to conceive for the past 6 months. She and her husband have one child already, a result of in vitro fertilization (IVF). She is afebrile, and her pulse and blood pressure are normal. On speculum examination, her os appears closed and there is a small amount of dark brownish-red blood pooled in the fornix. There is no mucopurulent discharge or cervical motion tenderness. On bimanual examination, her uterus feels slightly enlarged and boggy, and the left adnexa is tender without any obvious mass. A wet prep is normal except for many red blood cells.Which of the following statements is true regarding the clinical presentation of ectopic pregnancy?
A. The majority of women present with fever higher than 100.4°F
B. The majority of women report vasovagal symptoms
C. The majority of women report amenorrhea or abnormal menses
D. The majority of women have peritoneal signs
E. The majority of women present with hemorrhage
A 37-year-old G1P1001 female comes to your office with a 3-day history of progressive pelvic pain. She notes some vaginal spotting but no frank bleeding. She denies any fevers, chills, diarrhea, vaginal discharge, or urinary symptoms. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. She is married and has been trying to conceive for the past 6 months. She and her husband have one child already, a result of in vitro fertilization (IVF). She is afebrile, and her pulse and blood pressure are normal. On speculum examination, her os appears closed and there is a small amount of dark brownish-red blood pooled in the fornix. There is no mucopurulent discharge or cervical motion tenderness. On bimanual examination, her uterus feels slightly enlarged and boggy, and the left adnexa is tender without any obvious mass. A wet prep is normal except for many red blood cells.Major complications of ectopic pregnancy include which of the following?
A. Intraabdominal hemorrhage
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Fetal death
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C
A 23-year-old healthy, nulliparous female comes to your office for her annual physical and Papanicolaou (Pap) test. Her last menstrual period was 7 days ago. She has been on oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) for several years and tells you that she stopped taking them recently to “give her body a break.” She heard from friends and relatives that using OCPs for a long time increases the risk of future health problems, including infertility. She is currently sexually active with one male partner for the past 6 months. They use condoms and withdrawal inconsistently. The patient reports a history of chlamydia several years ago for which she and her partner were treated. She does not want to be pregnant anytime in the near future. She smokes a pack of cigarettes a day. On examination, her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, her weight is 200 pounds, and she is 5 feet 5 inches tall (body mass index is 33). The rest of her examination is unremarkable except for some mild facial acne. You perform a pelvic examination, a Pap test, and gonorrhea and chlamydia cultures.What would you tell your patient regarding the use of the “withdrawal method?”
A. It is a highly effective method of contraception but not sexually transmitted disease (STD) protection
B. It is a highly effective method of STD protection but not contraception
C. It has a less than 1% failure rate with “perfect use”
D. It has up to a 24% failure rate with “typical use”
E. It has a failure rate similar to that of not using any contraceptive method at all
A 23-year-old healthy, nulliparous female comes to your office for her annual physical and Papanicolaou (Pap) test. Her last menstrual period was 7 days ago. She has been on oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) for several years and tells you that she stopped taking them recently to “give her body a break.” She heard from friends and relatives that using OCPs for a long time increases the risk of future health problems, including infertility. She is currently sexually active with one male partner for the past 6 months. They use condoms and withdrawal inconsistently. The patient reports a history of chlamydia several years ago for which she and her partner were treated. She does not want to be pregnant anytime in the near future. She smokes a pack of cigarettes a day. On examination, her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, her weight is 200 pounds, and she is 5 feet 5 inches tall (body mass index is 33). The rest of her examination is unremarkable except for some mild facial acne. You perform a pelvic examination, a Pap test, and gonorrhea and chlamydia cultures.Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of any estrogen-containing hormonal contraceptive method for this patient?
A. Estrogen is contraindicated because she is a smoker
B. Estrogen may increase her risk of endometrial cancer
C. Estrogen is contraindicated because of her history of chlamydia
D. Estrogen is contraindicated because of her obesity
E. Estrogen may improve her acne
A 23-year-old healthy, nulliparous female comes to your office for her annual physical and Papanicolaou (Pap) test. Her last menstrual period was 7 days ago. She has been on oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) for several years and tells you that she stopped taking them recently to “give her body a break.” She heard from friends and relatives that using OCPs for a long time increases the risk of future health problems, including infertility. She is currently sexually active with one male partner for the past 6 months. They use condoms and withdrawal inconsistently. The patient reports a history of chlamydia several years ago for which she and her partner were treated. She does not want to be pregnant anytime in the near future. She smokes a pack of cigarettes a day. On examination, her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, her weight is 200 pounds, and she is 5 feet 5 inches tall (body mass index is 33). The rest of her examination is unremarkable except for some mild facial acne. You perform a pelvic examination, a Pap test, and gonorrhea and chlamydia cultures.You counsel the patient about her contraceptive options. All of the following are true except
A. She cannot get an intrauterine device (IUD) because she has never had a child
B. She may have an increased risk of contraceptive failure on the transdermal contraceptive patch (OrthoEvra)
C. Local skin irritation is the most common side effect experienced by transdermal contraceptive patch users
D. The vaginal contraceptive ring (NuvaRing) is a soft, flexible ring that is self-inserted and removed by the patient
E. The depo-medroxyprogesterone shot (Depo- Provera) is associated with irregular bleeding and spotting that progressively decreases over time
A 23-year-old healthy, nulliparous female comes to your office for her annual physical and Papanicolaou (Pap) test. Her last menstrual period was 7 days ago. She has been on oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) for several years and tells you that she stopped taking them recently to “give her body a break.” She heard from friends and relatives that using OCPs for a long time increases the risk of future health problems, including infertility. She is currently sexually active with one male partner for the past 6 months. They use condoms and withdrawal inconsistently. The patient reports a history of chlamydia several years ago for which she and her partner were treated. She does not want to be pregnant anytime in the near future. She smokes a pack of cigarettes a day. On examination, her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, her weight is 200 pounds, and she is 5 feet 5 inches tall (body mass index is 33). The rest of her examination is unremarkable except for some mild facial acne. You perform a pelvic examination, a Pap test, and gonorrhea and chlamydia cultures.Your patient decides that she wants to restart combined oral contraceptives (COCs) since she has used the pills in the past and would like to have regular and predictable menstrual cycles. Which option would not be ideal for this patient?
A. progestin-only pills (POPs)
B. COCs containing 35 μg of ethinyl estradiol
C. COCs containing 20 μg of ethinyl estradiol
D. monophasic COCs
E. triphasic COCs
A 23-year-old healthy, nulliparous female comes to your office for her annual physical and Papanicolaou (Pap) test. Her last menstrual period was 7 days ago. She has been on oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) for several years and tells you that she stopped taking them recently to “give her body a break.” She heard from friends and relatives that using OCPs for a long time increases the risk of future health problems, including infertility. She is currently sexually active with one male partner for the past 6 months. They use condoms and withdrawal inconsistently. The patient reports a history of chlamydia several years ago for which she and her partner were treated. She does not want to be pregnant anytime in the near future. She smokes a pack of cigarettes a day. On examination, her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, her weight is 200 pounds, and she is 5 feet 5 inches tall (body mass index is 33). The rest of her examination is unremarkable except for some mild facial acne. You perform a pelvic examination, a Pap test, and gonorrhea and chlamydia cultures.You counsel your patient about starting COCs. Which of the following statements regarding COC initiation in this patient is true?
A. She must wait until the first Sunday after her period begins to start her COCs
B. Nausea and breast tenderness are uncommon side effects of COCs
C. If she develops any breakthrough bleeding, she should stop the COCs immediately
D. Weight gain is an unlikely consequence of COC use
E. If she misses a pill, she should wait until her next menses and then start a new pack
A 23-year-old healthy, nulliparous female comes to your office for her annual physical and Papanicolaou (Pap) test. Her last menstrual period was 7 days ago. She has been on oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) for several years and tells you that she stopped taking them recently to “give her body a break.” She heard from friends and relatives that using OCPs for a long time increases the risk of future health problems, including infertility. She is currently sexually active with one male partner for the past 6 months. They use condoms and withdrawal inconsistently. The patient reports a history of chlamydia several years ago for which she and her partner were treated. She does not want to be pregnant anytime in the near future. She smokes a pack of cigarettes a day. On examination, her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, her weight is 200 pounds, and she is 5 feet 5 inches tall (body mass index is 33). The rest of her examination is unremarkable except for some mild facial acne. You perform a pelvic examination, a Pap test, and gonorrhea and chlamydia cultures.Which of the following statements regarding long-term COC use is true?
A. There is strong evidence that long-term COC use increases ovarian cancer risk
B. There is strong evidence that long-term COC use increases breast cancer risk
C. There is strong evidence that long-term COC use decreases cervical cancer risk
D. There is strong evidence that long-term COC use decreases osteoporotic fracture risk
E. There is strong evidence that long-term COC use decreases endometrial cancer risk
A 23-year-old healthy, nulliparous female comes to your office for her annual physical and Papanicolaou (Pap) test. Her last menstrual period was 7 days ago. She has been on oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) for several years and tells you that she stopped taking them recently to “give her body a break.” She heard from friends and relatives that using OCPs for a long time increases the risk of future health problems, including infertility. She is currently sexually active with one male partner for the past 6 months. They use condoms and withdrawal inconsistently. The patient reports a history of chlamydia several years ago for which she and her partner were treated. She does not want to be pregnant anytime in the near future. She smokes a pack of cigarettes a day. On examination, her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, her weight is 200 pounds, and she is 5 feet 5 inches tall (body mass index is 33). The rest of her examination is unremarkable except for some mild facial acne. You perform a pelvic examination, a Pap test, and gonorrhea and chlamydia cultures.All of the following conditions may be improved with the use of estrogen-containing hormonal contraceptives except
A. iron-deficiency anemia
B. cholelithiasis
C. dysmenorrhea
D. Ectopic pregnancy
E. mittelschmerz
A 40-year-old female (gravida 2, para 2) comes to your office for her 6-week postpartum visit. She had an uncomplicated pregnancy, normal spontaneous vaginal delivery, and routine postpartum course. She and her baby are doing well. She has not gotten her period yet. She is breast-feeding and supplementing with formula intermittently. She does not want to get pregnant again, at least not for another few years. The patient has no major medical problems, does not smoke, and has already returned to her aerobics class. She has no history of STDs or abnormal Pap tests. She desires a reliable birth control method that she does not have to remember to take every day or remember to use every time she has sex with her husband. Her examination is completely normal.Of the following choices, which would be the most appropriate contraceptive method for this patient at this time?
A. Bilateral tubal ligation (BTL) or vasectomy
B. Transdermal contraceptive patch or vaginal contraceptive ring
C. COC pills
D. A levonorgestrel IUD or Depo-Provera
E. Continue with the lactation amenorrhea method (LAM) only
A 40-year-old female (gravida 2, para 2) comes to your office for her 6-week postpartum visit. She had an uncomplicated pregnancy, normal spontaneous vaginal delivery, and routine postpartum course. She and her baby are doing well. She has not gotten her period yet. She is breast-feeding and supplementing with formula intermittently. She does not want to get pregnant again, at least not for another few years. The patient has no major medical problems, does not smoke, and has already returned to her aerobics class. She has no history of STDs or abnormal Pap tests. She desires a reliable birth control method that she does not have to remember to take every day or remember to use every time she has sex with her husband. Her examination is completely normal.All of the following would be appropriate management strategies except
A. Expectant management
B. Uterine aspiration
C. Medical management with vaginal misoprostol
D. Exploratory laparoscopy
E.serial -humanchorionic gonadotropic( -hCG) measurements
A 40-year-old female (gravida 2, para 2) comes to your office for her 6-week postpartum visit. She had an uncomplicated pregnancy, normal spontaneous vaginal delivery, and routine postpartum course. She and her baby are doing well. She has not gotten her period yet. She is breast-feeding and supplementing with formula intermittently. She does not want to get pregnant again, at least not for another few years. The patient has no major medical problems, does not smoke, and has already returned to her aerobics class. She has no history of STDs or abnormal Pap tests. She desires a reliable birth control method that she does not have to remember to take every day or remember to use every time she has sex with her husband. Her examination is completely normal.Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of estrogen-containing hormonal contraceptives in this patient?
A. Estrogen is contraindicated in women older than 40 years of age
B. Estrogen may increase the patient’s breast milk production
C. Estrogen may delay the onset of menopause
D. Estrogen will promote the development of fibroids and/or increase their size
E. Estrogen may help regulate menses and/or reduce perimenopausal symptoms
A 40-year-old female (gravida 2, para 2) comes to your office for her 6-week postpartum visit. She had an uncomplicated pregnancy, normal spontaneous vaginal delivery, and routine postpartum course. She and her baby are doing well. She has not gotten her period yet. She is breast-feeding and supplementing with formula intermittently. She does not want to get pregnant again, at least not for another few years. The patient has no major medical problems, does not smoke, and has already returned to her aerobics class. She has no history of STDs or abnormal Pap tests. She desires a reliable birth control method that she does not have to remember to take every day or remember to use every time she has sex with her husband. Her examination is completely normal.Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of Depo-Provera in this patient?
A. She will have rapid return to fertility following cessation of use
B. Depo-Provera will not adversely affect her quantity or quality of breast milk
C. Depo-Provera is contraindicated if she has a seizure disorder
D. Depo-Provera will accelerate her age of onset of menopause
E. Depo-Provera will increase her risk of postmenopausal osteoporosis
A 40-year-old female (gravida 2, para 2) comes to your office for her 6-week postpartum visit. She had an uncomplicated pregnancy, normal spontaneous vaginal delivery, and routine postpartum course. She and her baby are doing well. She has not gotten her period yet. She is breast-feeding and supplementing with formula intermittently. She does not want to get pregnant again, at least not for another few years. The patient has no major medical problems, does not smoke, and has already returned to her aerobics class. She has no history of STDs or abnormal Pap tests. She desires a reliable birth control method that she does not have to remember to take every day or remember to use every time she has sex with her husband. Her examination is completely normal.Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of a copper IUD (ParaGard T 380A) in this patient.
A. She will have an increased risk of ectopic pregnancy
B. There is usually a long delay in return to fertility following removal of the copper IUD
C. The copper IUD is contraindicated in breastfeeding mothers
D. The copper IUD may increase her symptoms if she suffers from dysmenorrhea or menorrhagia
E. The copper IUD should not be inserted until she begins menstruating again
A 40-year-old female (gravida 2, para 2) comes to your office for her 6-week postpartum visit. She had an uncomplicated pregnancy, normal spontaneous vaginal delivery, and routine postpartum course. She and her baby are doing well. She has not gotten her period yet. She is breast-feeding and supplementing with formula intermittently. She does not want to get pregnant again, at least not for another few years. The patient has no major medical problems, does not smoke, and has already returned to her aerobics class. She has no history of STDs or abnormal Pap tests. She desires a reliable birth control method that she does not have to remember to take every day or remember to use every time she has sex with her husband. Her examination is completely normal.Your patient asks you about sterilization options in the future. Which of the following statements about vasectomies and tubal ligations is true?
A. Vasectomies are usually performed in an outpatient office under local anesthesia
B. Current vasectomy and tubal ligation procedures are easily reversible
C. Vasectomies increase prostate cancer risk
D. Tubal ligations increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy
E. Vasectomies reduce libido, erectile function, and penile sensation
A 34-year-old female who is a long-term patient of yours presents to the office for a routine blood pressure check. She was recently diagnosed with hypertension and diabetes. Her medications include metformin, hydrochlorothiazide, and a multivitamin. Her blood pressure today is 150/100 mmHg, and her body mass index is 30. She is currently sexually active with her husband, and they use the “rhythm” method only. She reports that her menses have been irregular and vary from 20 to 45 days apart. The patient is worried about the risks of hormonal contraception given her medical conditions. She does not want to be pregnant for several years.You advise her to do all the following except
A. Exercise on most days of the week for 30 minutes
B. Eat a high-fiber, low-fat diet
C. Continue to use the rhythm method (calendar method) only
D. Consider an IUD
E. Consider a progestin implant
A 34-year-old female who is a long-term patient of yours presents to the office for a routine blood pressure check. She was recently diagnosed with hypertension and diabetes. Her medications include metformin, hydrochlorothiazide, and a multivitamin. Her blood pressure today is 150/100 mmHg, and her body mass index is 30. She is currently sexually active with her husband, and they use the “rhythm” method only. She reports that her menses have been irregular and vary from 20 to 45 days apart. The patient is worried about the risks of hormonal contraception given her medical conditions. She does not want to be pregnant for several years.Which of the following statements about barrier methods is true?
A. The diaphragm must be inserted at least 24 hours prior to intercourse
B. The cervical cap (FemCap) is less effective in parous women compared to nulliparous women
C. The cervical cap has a lower pregnancy failure rate compared to the diaphragm
D. Barrier methods are not safe for medically complicated patients
E. Women with latex allergies should not use the FemCap or Lea’s Shield
A very tearful 21-year-old female (gravida 0, para 0) walks into your office on a Tuesday morning. She tells you that she had sexual intercourse with her boyfriend Friday night. They used a condom, but it broke. They previously had intercourse with a condom the week before. Her last menstrual period was approximately 3 weeks ago and was normal in flow and duration. She had been given a sample pack of Ortho-Tri-Cyclen during her initial gynecologic examination 2 weeks ago, but she did not have a chance to start them yet. She would be devastated ifshe got pregnant. She is a heavy smoker (two packs per day) but otherwise has no medical problems, denies bleeding or other symptoms, and her examination is normal. Her most recent Pap smear and gonococcus/chlamydia results were normal.Which of the following statements regarding the use of emergency contraceptive pills (ECPs) in this patient is true?
A. ECPs are contraindicated because it has been longer than 72 hours
B. ECPs are contraindicated because she is a heavy smoker
C. ECPs could have been prescribed to this patient over the phone without an examination
D. ECPs would be contraindicated if either her Pap or her gonococcus/chlamydia test was abnormal
E. ECPs are contraindicated in pregnancy because they are abortifacients
A very tearful 21-year-old female (gravida 0, para 0) walks into your office on a Tuesday morning. She tells you that she had sexual intercourse with her boyfriend Friday night. They used a condom, but it broke. They previously had intercourse with a condom the week before. Her last menstrual period was approximately 3 weeks ago and was normal in flow and duration. She had been given a sample pack of Ortho-Tri-Cyclen during her initial gynecologic examination 2 weeks ago, but she did not have a chance to start them yet. She would be devastated ifshe got pregnant. She is a heavy smoker (two packs per day) but otherwise has no medical problems, denies bleeding or other symptoms, and her examination is normal. Her most recent Pap smear and gonococcus/chlamydia results were normal.Which of the following best describes the effects of giving women advance supplies of ECPs?
A. Women are more likely to stop routine birth control
B. Women are less likely to use condoms
C. Women are more likely to use ECPs when needed
D. The rate of unintended pregnancy declines
E. Women have higher rates of STDs
You receive a call at 3 am from your prenatal patient who is worried about bleeding and cramping that began several hours ago. This is the fourth pregnancy for your patient, which was a planned pregnancy. She has had two uncomplicated, spontaneous vaginal deliveries and one elective abortion in the past. Her prenatal course to date has been uncomplicated. Two weeks ago, you obtained a first trimester ultrasound for dating purposes that revealed a 6-week intrauterine pregnancy. She denies any fever, nausea, vomiting, dizziness, lightheadedness, shortness of breath, or arm or chest pain. Her cramps are becoming more intense, but she is managing to control the pain with a heating pad. She reports using approximately three sanitary pads in the past 6 hours for bleeding, none of which were soaked through. The patient is home with her husband, who is a well-known patient of yours as well. They are very anxious and want to know what to do next.You advise your patient to
A. Come to your office first thing in the morning for an evaluation
B. Take some ibuprofen and see you at her next scheduled prenatal visit
C. Rush to the emergency room because of suspected ectopic pregnancy
D. Rush to the emergency room for an immediate dilation and curettage (D&C)
E. Call an obstetrician–gynecologist to schedule an outpatient consultation
You receive a call at 3 am from your prenatal patient who is worried about bleeding and cramping that began several hours ago. This is the fourth pregnancy for your patient, which was a planned pregnancy. She has had two uncomplicated, spontaneous vaginal deliveries and one elective abortion in the past. Her prenatal course to date has been uncomplicated. Two weeks ago, you obtained a first trimester ultrasound for dating purposes that revealed a 6-week intrauterine pregnancy. She denies any fever, nausea, vomiting, dizziness, lightheadedness, shortness of breath, or arm or chest pain. Her cramps are becoming more intense, but she is managing to control the pain with a heating pad. She reports using approximately three sanitary pads in the past 6 hours for bleeding, none of which were soaked through. The patient is home with her husband, who is a well-known patient of yours as well. They are very anxious and want to know what to do next.She follows your advice. The next day you see the patient and her husband in your office. She appears tearful, though calm. Her temperature is 98.4°F, blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, pulse is 80 beats/minute, and respiratory rate is 16 breaths/minute. She reports that since she spoke to you, she has passed a few dime-sized clots but no obvious tissue. She continues to have lower abdominal cramping. You perform a speculum exam, which reveals some blood in the vaginal vault and a small amount of tissue protruding from an open, dilated cervical os. A bimanual exam reveals a 6-week-size uterus with minimal tenderness but no peritoneal signs. The most likely diagnosis is
A. Missed abortion
B. Recurrent spontaneous abortion
C. Complete abortion
D. Incomplete abortion
E. Inevitable abortion
A 23-year-old female graduate student presents to the office for a “personal problem” as reported by your nurse. When you enter the room, she is noticeably tearful. She has regular menses, and her last menstrual period was approximately 6 weeks ago. Today, she denies fever, vaginal bleeding, and abdominal pain. You perform a high-sensitivity urine pregnancy test, which is positive. On examination, the uterus is approximately 6 weeks in size with no adnexal tenderness or masses. You tell the patient that she is approximately 6 weeks pregnant. The patient is quiet and will not make eye contact with you.Which the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Congratulate the patient and schedule her initial prenatal visit
B. Ask the patient how she feels about being pregnant
C. State that the urine pregnancy test is probably -hCG test is necessary to confirm the diagnosis
D. Tell her to go home and come back after she is ready to talk
E. Send her for an ultrasound for an accurate estimate of gestational age
A 23-year-old female graduate student presents to the office for a “personal problem” as reported by your nurse. When you enter the room, she is noticeably tearful. She has regular menses, and her last menstrual period was approximately 6 weeks ago. Today, she denies fever, vaginal bleeding, and abdominal pain. You perform a high-sensitivity urine pregnancy test, which is positive. On examination, the uterus is approximately 6 weeks in size with no adnexal tenderness or masses. You tell the patient that she is approximately 6 weeks pregnant. The patient is quiet and will not make eye contact with you.The patient’s pregnancy options could include all the following except
A. Continuing the pregnancy and becoming a parent
B. Continuing the pregnancy and pursuing adoption for the baby
C. Ending the pregnancy by medication abortion (e.g., mifepristone and methotrexate)
D. Ending the pregnancy by surgical (aspiration) abortion
E. Pursuing any of the above options based solely on what her partner wants
A 24-year-old female comes to the emergency room with a 2-day history of lower abdominal pain, fever, chills, and malaise. The patient also complains of nausea and multiple episodes of vomiting in the past 24 hours. On physical examination, there is bilateral adnexal tenderness, muco-purulent cervical discharge, and cervical motion tenderness. The patient has a temperature of 40°C. Her last menstrual period was 4 weeks ago, and her pregnancy test is negative. She admits to being sexually active but denies a history of any sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). She is currently not using birth control.What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Acute appendicitis
B. Acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
C. Uncomplicated cervicitis
D. Ectopic pregnancy
E. Threatened abortion
A 24-year-old female comes to the emergency room with a 2-day history of lower abdominal pain, fever, chills, and malaise. The patient also complains of nausea and multiple episodes of vomiting in the past 24 hours. On physical examination, there is bilateral adnexal tenderness, muco-purulent cervical discharge, and cervical motion tenderness. The patient has a temperature of 40°C. Her last menstrual period was 4 weeks ago, and her pregnancy test is negative. She admits to being sexually active but denies a history of any sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). She is currently not using birth control. What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient?
A. Hospitalize the patient for parenteral treatment
B. Hospitalize the patient for immediate laporoscopy
C. Begin outpatient treatment with follow-up within 24 hours
D. Begin outpatient treatment with follow-up in 1 week
E. Begin outpatient treatment with follow-up if her condition worsens
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