A&P Exam Review
A&P Exam Review Quiz
Test your knowledge and understanding of Anatomy and Physiology with our comprehensive quiz featuring 110 thoughtfully crafted questions. Perfect for students, educators, and anyone eager to enhance their learning in this vital field of health science.
Key Features:
- Multiple choice questions
- Covers a wide range of topics
- Immediate feedback on answers
Homeostasis can be best described as?
A state of constant fluctuations
A state of relative consistency
A state that requires conscious effort to maintain
A relatively ineffective way of maintaining normalcy
All of the following systems and their organs participate in the actions of transport and defense within the human body except the:
Urinary system
Circulatory system
Musculoskeletal system
Integumentary system
The lungs are located in the:
Abdominal cavity
Pelvic cavity
Thoracic cavity
Cranial cavity
The mediastinum contains all of the following except the:
Heart
Thymus
Lungs
Aorta
The gallbladder lies in the:
Thoracic cavity
Pelvic cavity
Dental cavity
Abdominal cavity
The abdominal region in which the urinary bladder is found is the:
Hypogastric
Epigastric
Left hypochondriac
Left iliac
A surgeon removing a gallbladder should know how to find it in the _______ region.
Left hypochondriac
Right hypochondriac
Left lumbar
Right lumbar
The abdominal region in which the appendix is found is the:
Epigastric
Umbilical
Hypogastric
Right iliac
The dorsal cavity contains all of the following except the:
Thyroid gland
The pineal gland
The hypothalamus
The hippocampus
Pathogenesis may be defined as:
The regular course of human development
The course of disease development
The ability of a disease to spread within a population
The ability of a disease to cause illness
Epidemiology is the study of the ______ of diseases in human population
Occurrence
Distribution
Development
All of the above
Blood production is a function of which system?
Skeletal
Integumentary
Circulatory
Lymphatic
The abdominopelvic cavity contains all of the following except the:
Small intestine
Large intestine
Pancreas
Heart
The hollow part of an organ or body structure is called the:
Diaphysis
Epiphysis
Lumen
Epithelium
The most widespread and abundant tissue in the body is:
Epithelial
Nervous
Muscular
Connective
Blood is considered which type of tissue?
Blood is not considered tissue
Connective
Epithelial
Muscular
Which is not a function of connective tissue?
Support
Protection
Transportation
Communication
The peritoneum is an example of a _____ membrane
Cutaneous
Serous
Mucous
Cellular
Hematopoietic tissue can be found in the
Lungs
Heart
Bones
Arterioles
Which type of tissue has the greatest capacity to regenerate?
Nervous
Epithelial
Connective
Bone
Which of the following is not a function of the skin?
Vitamin E synthesis
Vitamin D synthesis
Protection
Excretion
The type of cancer associated with immune deficiencies is:
Malignant melanoma
Cervical
Ewing's sarcoma
Kaposi sarcoma
The surface film found on the skin has a variety of functions, including:
Lubrication
Buffering of caustic agents
Antibacterial and antifungal activity
All of the above
A second-degree burn is characterized by:
All of the below
Edema
Severe pain
Generalized swelling
A major distinction between second and third degree burns is that third degree burns:
Involve the epidermis
Involve the dermis
Are characterized by an insensitivity to pain immediately after the injury
Are characterized by extreme pain immediately following the injury
Burns can be caused by:
Ultraviolet light
Corrosive chemicals
Electrical current
A, B, and C
What increase in body temperature would be caused by pyrogens?
Hypothermia
Fever
Second-degree burn
Deep-thiccness burn
After several hours of landscaping in the yard, Jen experienced a body temperature of 105F (40.5C), a rapid heart rate, and hot, dry skin. She was taken to a medical facility and treated for what condition?
Heat stroke
Heat exhaustion
Partial-thickness burns
She's faking so she can clock out early
Will is admitted to the hospital with burns to the deep epidermal layers and injury to the upper layers of the dermis. The physician treats Will's condition as a:
First-degree burn
Second-degree burn
Third-degree burn
Fourth-degree burn
A fracture in the shaft of the bone is a break in the:
Metaphysis
Epiphysis
Diaphysis
Cancellous tissue
The cells responsible for active erosion of bone material are called:
Osteoblasts
Osteocytes
Osteogenic cells
Osteoclasts
Which of the following is not one of the primary functions performed by bones?
Hematopoiesis
Support
Hormonal production
Protection
The first step in healing a fracture is:
The formation of a fracture hematoma
Removal of dead bone tissue by osteoclasts
Soft procallus formation
Bony callus formation
Which condition results from vitamin D condition in children?
Osteomyelitis
Rickets
Scoliosis
Osteitis Deformans
Which skull bone articulates with the first vertebra?
Occipital bone
Temporal bone
Zygomatic bone
Orbital bone
If the cribriform plate is damaged, there is a chance of:
Inability to chew
Difficulty moving the head side to side
Infectious material passing from the nose to the brain
Infectious material passing from the mouth to the brain
The pisiform bone can be found in the:
Hand
Foot
Ankle
Wrist
Which is not true of the myelin sheath?
It covers cell bodies in the brain and spinal cord
It is important for nerve impulse conduction
It is associated with white matter
It is damaged in those with multiple sclerosis
A lack of which neurotransmitter is associated with Parkinson's disease?
Serotonin
Acetylcholine
Norepinephrine
Dopamine
Which of the following antidepressants acts by blocking the action of monoamine oxidase (MAO)?
Cipralex
Phenelzine
Amitriptyline
Wellbutrin
Pain that is perceived as being superficial but that is actually caused by an underlying organ is called _____ pain
Referred pain
Visceral pain
Psychosomatic pain
Somatic pain
Both olfactory receptors and taste buds are:
Thermoreceptors
Osmoreceptors
Chemoreceptors
Photoreceptors
Insulin:
Tends to lower blood concentrations of glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids
Promotes the metabolism of glucose by tissue cells
A, B, and D
Is produced by beta cells
High blood levels of ADH would be found in someone who has:
Been working in cold temperatures and is hypervolemic
Been working in hot temperatures and is dehydrated
Been working in an office and has been seated for too long
Been working in hot temperatures and consumed too much water to compensate for the heat
The target cells for ADH are found in the:
Liver
Kidney
Urinary bladder
Pancreas
Which of the following is/are involved in determining a person's total blood volume?
Age
Sex ( ͡° ͜ʖ ͡°)
Body type
All of the above
Blood volume per kg of body weight varies inversely with:
Age
Sex
Body fat
Height
A normal RBC count ranges from ____ million/cubic mm
4.2-6.2
40.2-60.2
400.2-600.2
.42-.62
Erythropoiesis is the formation of:
White blood cells
Red blood cells
Green blood cells
Blood plasma
Which type of white blood cell plays a major role in immunity to infectious diseases?
Eosinophils
Neutrophils
Basophils
Lymphocytes
People with AB blood are considered universal recipients because their blood:
Does not contain either A or B antigens
Does not contain Rh antigens
Does not contain either A or B antibodies
Contains both A and B antibodies
Which of the following is an anticoagulant?
Heparin
Prothrombin
Fibrinogen
Antihemophilic factor
The function of blood is to:
Carry nutrients to cells
Remove waste from cells
Assist the body in temperature regulation
All of the above
Which characteristic of blood makes it especially effective in temperature regulation?
Low specific heat capacity
High specific heat capacity
Blood is red and so are a lot of hot things
Blood is not effective at regulating temperature
A person with no antigens on the RBC would have which blood type?
AB
O
A
B
A person with an antigen on the red blood cell and a different antibody in the plasma would have which blood type?
A
AB
O
It is not possible to have an antigen on an RBC and a different antibody in the plasma
After Martha's baby was born, why did the physician apply a gauze dressing for a short time on the umbilical cord and give the baby a dose of Vitamin K?
Newborns do not have any platelets for the first 3 months and will bleed freely unless actions are taken to prevent bleeding
Newborns often show elevated platelet counts at birth, and both of the actions taken by the physician will help the umbilical cord stop bleeding
The physician knew that the baby would need vitamin K to replace the red blood cells lost during delivery
Newborns often have a reduced number of platelets, which are needed to clot blood, and both of the actions taken by the physician will help the umbilical cord stop bleeding
Which of the following vessels do not have the ability to constrict and dilate?
Capillaries
Arteries
Arterioles
Veins
Which of the following vessels carries blood from the lungs to the heart?
Pulmonary arteries
Pulmonary veins
Superior vena cava
Inferior vena cava
As the external iliac artery enters the thigh, its name changes to the _____ artery
Internal iliac
Popliteal
Femoral
Subclavian
Atherosclerosis is characterized by the deposition of lipids in the tunica:
Externa
Media
Adventitia
Intima
The ventricle of the heart that ejects blood toward the lungs is the:
Left ventricle
Left atrium
Right ventricle
Right atrium
The pulmonary arteries empty blood into the: (I don't think this question makes sense. Pulmonary arteries empty blood into the lungs, but that wasn't an option. The review says "right atrium so go with that I guess)
Right atrium
Left atrium
Right ventricle
Left ventricle
If damaged, which valve could allow blood to leak back into the right atrium?
Tricuspid valve
Bicuspid valve
Pulmonary semilunar valve
Aortic semilunar valve
What is the functional significance of large areas of cardiac muscle being electrically coupled to form a single functional syncytium?
Because they form a syncytium, cardiac muscles can contract on their own
Because they form a syncytium, muscle cells can pass an action potential along a large area of the heart wall, stimulating contraction in each muscle fiber of the syncytium
Because they form a syncytium, muscle cells cannot summate contraction to produce tetanus, and thus do not fatigue
Because they form a syncytium, cardiac muscle cells can pass an action potential by way of internodal bundles contracting both atrial chambers
Christopher, a 2 month old infant, has a bluish tinge to his skin. Upon listening to the infant's chest, the physician became concerned about a leakage of blood between the right and left atria. What might have caused this problem and what is the treatment?
The ductus venosus may not have closed at birth, and immediate surgical repair may be needed
The ductus aarteriosus may not have been closed at birth, and immediate surgical repair may be needed
The foramen ovale may not be closed, causing backflow f blood into the lungs. The physician will reexamine the infant frequently becaus the foramen ovale may take as long as 9 months to heal
The foramen ovale may be closed , causing blackflow of blood into the lungs. The physician will reexamine the infant frequently because the foramen ovale may take as long as 9 months to open
If the AV node were forced to assume pacemaker activity, the resulting pulse rate would be _____ beats per minute
30-50
50-70
40-60
60-100
A cause of a heart murmur may be:
Incomplete closing of a valve
Narrowing of a valve (Stenosis)
None of the above
A and B
An increase in heart rate tends to increase:
Cardiac output
A, C, and D
Arterial blood volume
Blood pressure
Which of the following events would tend to cause a decrease in blood viscosity?
Marked anemia
An elevated RBC count
An increase in blood protein concentration
Increased prothrombin production
Which of the following arteries is not one of the six major pressure points used to stop an arterial bleed?
Axillary artery
Common carotid artery
Temporal artery
Facial artery
Circulatory shock caused by an acute allergic reaction is called _____ shock
Septic
Anaphylactic
Hypovolemic
Hyponatremic
Circulatory shock caused by the effects of infectious agents is called _____ shock
Hypovolemic
Hypokalemic
Anaphylactic
Septic
Circulatory shock caused by a drop in the amount of blood in the circulatory system is called _____ shock
Septic
Hypervolemic
Hypovolemic
Anaphylactic
Which of the following is a function of lymph nodes?
Phagocytosis
Filtration
Hematopoiesis
All of the above
The lymph nodes located in the neck along the sternocleidomastoid muscle are called the:
Parotid nodes
Superficial cervical nodes
Supraclavicular nodes
Posterior auricular nodes
The spleen is located in the _____ region?
Right hypochondriac
Epigastric
Left hypochondriac
Left lumbar
How would muscle contraction affect lymphokinetic action?
Increased external pressure from muscle contraction also increases lymphatic pressure, which results in keeping lymph moving in only one direction
Increased external pressure from muscle contraction allows lymph to flow in any direction away from the site of contraction
Muscle relaxation following a contraction decreased lymphatic pressure, allowing lymph more space within the vessels to flow
The same neural impulses that signal a muscle to contract also signal lymphatic vessels to constrict and force lymph to flow in one direction
Mike, a 43 year old man, was in a serious car accident. He has a rigid and tender left hypochondrium region. His blood pressure is dropping and he is in pain. What organ might be involved in this injury?
Liver
Spleen
Pancreas
Kidney
Inflammation mediators include:
Histamine
Kinins
Prostaglandins
All of the above
After leaving the stomach, if severed by injury, food will not enter the:
Large intestine
Sigmoid colon
Small intestine
This feels like a really weird question
Which of the following structures controls the opening of the stomach into the small intestine?
Duodenum
Cardiac sphincter
Golgi apparatus
Pyloric sphincter
The contents of the stomach are emptied into the:
Transverse colon
Duodenum
Jejunum
Ileum
A barium enema study is used to detect and locate:
Polyps
Tumors
Diverticula
All of the above
Surgical removal of the gallbladder is referred to as:
Gallbladderectomy
Cholecystotomy
Cholecystectomy
Cholesterol
Heartburn is often caused by acid reflux. Which of the following might aggravate the reflux?
All of the below
Smoking
Obesity
Spicy foods
The purpose of peristalsis is to:
Propel food forward along the GI tract
Assist the liver in the production of bile
Allow the stomach to expand and store more food
Assist the kidneys in the production of uric acid
Rotavirus can cause which life-threatening condition in infants?
Diarrhea
Ottorhea
Rhinorhea
Hyponatremia
The process of emulsification is important in the digestion of:
Carbohydrates
Proteins
Glucose
Fats
The total fluid or water content of the human body ranges from _____ of its total body weight
40%-60%
45%-75%
60%-80%
35%-55%
Ringer solution is often described as normal saline solution modified by the addition of:
Sodium and Calcium
Sodium and potassium
Potassium and calcium
Calcium and chloride
Two factors that determine urine volume are:
Glomerular filtration rate
The rate of water reabsorption by the renal tubules
A and B
Abnormal conditions that cause fluid and electrolyte output to exceed input include all of the following except:
Drinking liquid too fast
Vomitting
Diarrhea
Priapism
Which of the following pairs are almost identical when compared chemically?
Interstitial fluid and intracellular fluid
Plasma and intracellular fluid
Blood and Urine
Plasma and interstitial fluid
Edema is defined as abnormally large amounts of fluid in the:
Intracellular spaces
Intercellular spaces
Blood
Pleural cavities
Which of the body locations is not one that is usually impacted by edema?
Kidneys
Lungs
Dependent areas of the body
All of the above
Edema may occur when:
Sodium is retained in the extracellular fluid as a result of increased aldosterone secretion or after serious renal disease such as acute glomerulonephritis
An increase in capillary blood pressure occurs
A decrease in the concentration of plasma proteins normally retained in the blood occurs
All of the above
An intravenous addition of sodium can be used to treat:
Hypernatremia
Hyponatremia
Hyperkalemia
Hypokalemia
In patients with severe burn injuries, what mechanism is responsible for the increased risk of hypovolemic shock?
An increase in capillary blood pressure
An increase in capillary permeability with a resulting increase in flow of blood to the tissues
An increase in interstitial fluid causing an increase in blood volume
A loss of interstitial fluid causing a drain of blood plasma out of the vessels and into tissue spaces
The pH of blood is maintained at approximately
7.0
7.2
7.4
7.6
Which of the following is/are considered acid-forming foods?
Meat
Eggs
Poultry
All of these are acid-forming
An increase in respiratory rate would result in a decrease in all of the following except:
Carbon dioxide
Acidity
PH
Hydrogen ions
A decrease in blood pH below normal tends to:
Produce hypoventilation
Stimulate increased respirations
Stimulate a compensatory increase in blood hydrogen ion concentration through the respiratory system
A and C
Hyperventilation can result in loss of consciousness because of:
Elevated carbon dioxide levels
Acidosis
Alkalosis
Hyperventilating is tiring and you need a nap
For the body to maintain an acid-base balance, which of the following are necessary?
Chemical buffers
Respiratory system
Urinary system
All of these
Susan has been experiencing prolonged hypoventilation. If not treated soon, Susan may develop what condition?
It may decrease blood pH enough to produce acidosis
It may decrease blood pH enough to produce alkalosis
It may increase blood pH enough to produce acidosis
It may increase blood pH enough to produce alkalosis
A rare but very serious complication of metformin therapy is:
Hyperkalemia
Lactic acidosis
Lactic alkalosis
Hyponatremia
A man was advised to acidify his urine to help reduce the development of kidney stones. To accomplish that, he has been drinking a large glass of grapefruit juice every day. Which of the following explains why this is ineffective and gives a food choice that will make his urine acidic?
Grapefruit juice is acid forming and this strategy is effective
Grapefruit technique
Grapefruit juice is not acid-forming when metabolized; cranberry juice is acid-forming and will acidify his blood, resulting in a decreased urine pH
Grapefruit juice is not acid-forming when metabolized; Orange juice is acid-forming and will acidify his blood, resulting in a decreased urine pH
How does the body respond if the respiratory mechanism is unable to stop a pH shift?
A renal physiological buffer system involving the excretion of either an acidic or alkaline urine will be initiated within 24 hours
A renal physiological buffer system involving the excretion of either an acidic or alkaline urine will be initiated within 12 hours
A renal physiological buffer system involving the excretion of either an acidic or alkaline urine will be initiated within 2 hours
A syncope episode will occur
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