Cabin Crew Airlaw MCAR
Maldivian Aircrafts are identified as:
A. Q8
B. 8Q
C. 8-Q
D. Q8-XXX
2. A flight conducted at night is identified as:
A. VFR flight
B. IFR or VMC flight
C. IFR flight
D. VMC
3. ETOPS stands for;
A. Extended-range Twin-engine Operational Performance Standard
B. External twin-engine Operation
C. Extended time of passenger standards
D. External Twin Otter System
4. Definitions and abbreviations are under;
A. MCAR-1
B. MCAR-2
C. MCAR-3
D. MCAR-13
5. Definition of aerodrome;
A. A defined area on land or water (including any buildings, installations and equipment) intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft.
B. A defined area on land (including any buildings, installations and equipment) intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraf
C. A defined area on land or water (excluding any buildings, installations and equipment) intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft
D. A defined area on land or water (including any buildings, installations and equipment) intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of Helicopters
6. Regarding the facilities of aerodrome, you should refer to:
A. Civil Aviation regulations
B. Aeronautical Information Publication
C. Operations Manual
D. Air Navigation Order
7. AOC stands for:
A. Aircraft Operator Certificate
B. Air Operator Certificate
C. Air Operator Center
D. Aircraft Operation coordinator
8. ISA stands for;
A. International Standard Altitude
B. International Standard Atmosphere
C. International Standard Aircrafts
D. Internal Signing Authority
Aircraft Accident means:
A. Means an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and the time all such persons have disembarked, in which a person is fatally injured
B. Means an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and the time all such persons have disembarked, in which a person is hospitalized
D. All of the above
C. Means an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and the time all such persons have disembarked, in which a person is fatally injured and got fainted.
10 MEL stands for;
A. Minimum Equivalent list
B. Master Equipment list
C. Minimum Equipment List
D. Minimum Equipment Loaded
11. ELT Stands for;
A. Emergency Locator Transmitter
B. Emergency Location Transmission
C. Emergency Locator beacon Transmitter
D. Emergency Locator Transmit
12. Which of the following comes under MCAR-OPS1?
A. Aircraft Manual
B. Operations Manual/ Cabin crew manual
C. Dangerous Goods Manual
D. Flight and safety manual
13. The MCAA must be informed if a cabin attendant is:
A. Sick or incapacitated due to injury for up to 20 days
B. Sick or incapacitated due to injury for 20 or more days
C. Sick or incapacitated due to injury
D. None of the above
14. Rules of Air comes under;
A. MCAR-2
B. MCAR-47
C. MCAR-OPS1
D. MCAR-18
15. Altitude is referred as;
A. The vertical distance of a level, appoint or object considered as a point, Measured from the ground
B. The vertical distance of a level, a point or object considered as a point measured from means sea level
C. The vertical distance of a level, a point or object considered as a point measured from the lowest point on the ground
D. The vertical distance of a level, a point or object considered as a point measured from ground level
16. FR Stands for;
A. Instrument Flight Ruler
B. Instrument Flying Regulation
C. Instrument Flight Rules
D. Instrument Flying Rules
17. VFR Flight shall not be operated above;
A. FL 100
B. FL 200
C. FL110
D. FL120
18. Duty hours in any seven consecutive days;
A.60 hours
B. 90 hours
C. 100 hours
D. 40 hours
19. Except when necessary for take-off or landing, or except by permission from the director, a flight shall not be flown;
A. At a height less than 150m above ground level
B. Over a city or congested area near runway terminals
C. At a height less than 120m above ground level
D. At a height less than 100m above ground level
20. Except when necessary for take-off and landing, or specially authorized by director a flight shall not be flown at a level below the minimum flight altitude of;
A. At a level which is at least 500m above the highest obstacle within 8km of the estimated position
B. At a level which is at least 600m above the highest obstacle within 10km of the estimated position
C. At a level which is at least 600m above the highest obstacle within 8km of the estimated position
D. At a level which is at least 1000m above the highest obstacle within 8km of the estimated position
21. MCAR-18 Refers to:
A. Rules of Air
B. Carriage of Dangerous good by air
C. Definitions and abbreviation
D. Aircraft Manual
22. What is Dangerous Goods incident?
A. An occurrence other than a dangerous good accident, associated with the related to the transport of dangerous goods by air, which results in injury to a person, property damage and which jeopardizes the aircraft or its occupants
B. An occurrence other than a dangerous good accident, associated with the related to the transport of dangerous goods by air, which results in serious injury to a person resulting death or property damage and which jeopardizes the aircraft or its occupants
C. An incident other than a dangerous good accident, associated with the related to the transport of dangerous goods by air, which results in injury to a person, property damage and which jeopardizes the aircraft or its occupants and needs maintenance
D. Incident, associated with the related to the transport of dangerous goods by air, which results in injury to a person, property damage and which jeopardizes the aircraft or its occupants leading a major investigation
23. An occurrence associated with and related to the transport of dangerous goods by air which results is fatal or serious injury to a person or major property damage is
A. Dangerous accident
B. Accident
C. Dangerous goods accident
D. Dangerous goods release
24. When carrying a dangerous good, a breakage or leakage occurs. Who is responsible for the leakage?
A. Civil aviation department
B. Maldives Airports Company
C. Air Operator
D. Shipper of the good
25. A crewmember shall not consume alcohol under the following circumstances;
A. 24 hour prior to flight
B. Less than 12 hours prior to the specified reporting time for flight duty C. Less than 8 hours prior to the specified reporting time for flight duty
C. Less than 12 hours prior to the specified reporting time for flight duty
26. An operator shall ensure that after landing;
A. Passengers are reminded of the location of emergency exits
B. Passengers are reminded of use of floor proximity escape marking
C. Passengers are reminded of smoking regulations and use of safety belt harness
D. Passengers are reminded of sick bags
27. Number of first aid kit required in a passenger seats installed of 150 is;
A. 1 kit
B. 2 kit
C. 3 kit
D. 4 kit
28. The commander shall ensure that multiple occupancy of aircraft seats may only be allowed on specified seats and does not occur other than;
A. By one adult and infant who is properly secured by a supplementary loop or other restraint device
B. By one adult and child who is properly secured by a supplementary loop or other restraint device
C. By two adult and infant who is properly secured by a supplementary loop or other restraint device
D. By one adult and infant who is properly secured by one seat belt together
29. During take-off and landing and whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety, each crew member shall be properly secured by:
A. Safety belts
B. All safety harness
C. All safety belts and harness
D. All safety belts and life jackets
30. Interphone system is required with a maximum certified take-off mass exceeding:
A. 5700kg or having a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19 passengers
B. 15000kg or having a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19 passengers
C. 15000kg having a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 passengers
D. 5700kg having a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19 passengers
31. Number of extinguishers required of maximum approved passenger seating of 31 is;
A. 2 extinguishers
B. 3 extinguishers
C. 1 extinguisher
D. 4extinguishers
32. Cardinal point North West is:
A. 270 degrees
B., 90 degrees
C .315 degrees
D. 45 degrees
33. Block time is defined as;
A. The time between an aeroplane first moving from its dock for the purpose of taking off until it comes to rest on the designated parking position and all engines or propellers are stopped
B. The time between an aeroplane first moving from its parking place for the purpose of taking off until it comes to rest on the designated parking position
C. The time between an aeroplane first moving from its parking place for the purpose of taking off until it comes to land on the designated destination
D. The time between an aeroplane first moving from its parking place for the purpose of taking off until it comes to rest on the designated parking position and all engines or propellers are stopped
34. Local night is defined as;
A. A period of eight hours falling between 00:00 hours and 06:00 hours local time
B. A period of eight hours falling between 20:00 hours and 08:00 hours local time
C. A period of eight hours falling between 18:00 hours and 08:00 hours local time
D. A period of eight hours falling between 22:00 hours and 08:00 hours local time
35. Window of Circadian low (WOCL) falls between;
A. 02:00 hours and 06:59 hours
B. 02:00 hours and 05:59 hours
C. 01:00 hours and 07:59 hours
D. 22:00 hours and 05:00hours
36. Cumulative duty hours in 28 consecutive days;
A. 60
B. 190
C. 300
D. 100
37. The total block time for 28 consecutive days shall not exceed:
A. 190 hours
B. 120 hours
C. 100 hours
D. 300 hours
38. Maximum daily FDP is;
A. 12 hours
B. 16 hours
C. 13 hours
D. 8 hour
39. Which of the following is true:
A. The minimum rest which must be provided before undertaking a flight duty period starting at home base shall be at least as long as the preceding duty period or 12 hours whichever is the greater
B. The minimum rest which must be provided before undertaking a flight duty period starting at home base shall be at least as long as the preceding duty period or 10 hours whichever is the greater
C. The minimum rest which must be provided before undertaking a flight duty period starting at home base shall be at least as long as the preceding duty period or 13 hours whichever is the greater
D. The minimum rest whichh must be provided before undertaking a flight duty period starting at home base shall be at least as long as the preceding duty period or 8 hours whichever is the greater
40. Minimum requirement for a cabin crew includes;
A. Should be 18 yards
B. Should be at least 20 years old
C. Should be at least 18 years
D. Should be fluent in 3 languages
41. The minimum cabin crew members required to be onboard in Maldivian aircraft when carrying 187 passengers;
A. 3 crew
B. 4 cabin crew
C. 2 cabin crew
D. 50 cabin crew for the fraction of 1 for each passenger
42. Cabin crew member means;
A crew member who performs, in the interest of safety of passengers, duties assigned by the operator or the pilot-in-command of the aircraft, but who shall act as a flight crew member
B. A crew member who performs, in the interest of safety of passengers, duties assigned by the pilot-in command of the aircraft, but who shall act as a flight crew member
C. A crew member who performs, in the interest of safety of passengers, duties assigned by the chief cabin crew or the pilot-in-command of the aircraft, but who shall act as a flight crew membe
D. A crew member who performs, in the interest of safety of passengers, duties assigned by the operator or the pilot-in-command of the aircraft, but who shall not act as a flight crew member
43. Identification of cabin crew member should include; A
A. An operator shall ensure that all cabin crew members wear the operators’ cabin crew uniform
B. An operator shall recommend that all cabin crew members wear the operators’ cabin crew uniform
C. An operator shall give a heads up that all cabin crew members wear the operators’ cabin crew uniform
D. All crew must wear company uniform
44. An operator shall carry at least one cabin crew member to operate an aero plane with A maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than;
A. 19 passengers
B. 9 passengers
C. 10 passengers
D. 21 passengers
45. An operator shall not appoint a cabin crew as a senior cabin crew unless he/she has at least:
A. One years experience
A. One years experience
C. Three years experience
D. 5 years experience
46.With approval of MCAA, a cabin crew member may operate:
A. 4 aero plane types
B. 3 aero plane types
C. 2 aero plane types
D. 5 aero plane type
47. Conversion and differences training does not include:
A. Fire and smoke training
B. Passenger handling
C. Evacuation procedures
D. SEP Training
48. Life rafts must be equipped with;
A. Survivor locator light
B. GPRS
C. First aid kits
D. Float pumps
49. Break iş;
A. A period free of all duties, which count as duty, being less than rest period
B. A period free of all duties, which does not count as duty, being less than rest period
C. A period free of all duties, which count as rest period, being less than 8 hours
D. Period free of all flights, which count as duty, being less than rest period
50 Local Day is;
A. A 24 hour period commencing at 00.00 local time
B. A 24 hour period commencing at 00.00 local night
C. A 24 hour period commencing at 00.00 UTC
C. A 24 hour period commencing at 00.00 UTC
1. A single day free of duty shall include:
A. Two local nights, a rest period may be included as part of the day off
B. Two local nights, a rest period may not be included as part of the day off
C. Two local nights, a rest period not included as part of the day off
D. A local night, a rest period may be included as part of the day off
2. Maximum reduction of FDP is;
A. 3 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 2 hours
D. 1 hour
3. What is meant by ACAS?
A. A system that alerts the PIC of secondary traffics and obstacles based on SS transponder signals to
B. A system invented to minimize air collision on surveillance aircrafts
C. Aircraft Collision administrator system avoids traffic violation
D. ACAS is an organization set up in 1980s to maintain a standard to minimize accidents
4. An operator shall make sure that each cabin attendant under goes familiarization of at least:
A. 15 hours and 20 sectors
B. 15 hours 10sectors
C. 20 hours 15 sectors
D. 5 hours 10 sectors
5. If UTC is 1 am, what will be the time in MLE?
A. 5 hours + UTC
B. 6am
C. 8pm
D. a&b
6. Any injury which is sustained by a person in an accident and which requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date the was received is considered as;
A. Serious problem
B. Serious
C. Serious Injury
D. Fatal Injury
7. This is a philological effect of high altitude, lack of oxygen?
A. hyperthermia
B hypoxia
C. anemia
D. Altitude sickness
8. Variants of an aeroplane type are considered to be different types if they are not similar in each of the following aspects;
A. Emergency exit operation, Type specific emergency procedures, Location and type of portable equipment
B. Location and type of portable equipment, emergency evacuation, briefing
C. Type specific emergency procedures & no: of passengers carried
D. All of the above
9. During passenger briefing it is mandatory for the cabin attendants to do the demonstration on the following?
A. Seat belt extensions, life jackets, oxygen if equipped
B. Emergency features and no-smoking
C. Use of Seat belt and life jackets, use of oxygen if equipped
D. All of the above
10. During an emergency as a requirement the cabin crew needs to be seated;
A. In front of cabin facing the passengers.
B. Near RMPS helping them for rapid evacuation.
C. On the cabin crew designated seat.
D. All of the above
11. MCAR OPS1 is applicable to:
A. Helicopters
B. ETOPS aircrafts
C. Aeroplanes
D. All kind of transportation
12. A passenger can be carried in the cargo hold of an aircraft if:
A. The hold is big enough
B. Approved by the director of CAD, even if it is not designed to enable so
C. Not under any circumstance
D. The passenger is going to miss a connecting flight
13. Hypothermia is:
A condition in which an organism’s temperature drops below that required for normal metabolism and bodily functions (37°C)
B. A condition in which an organism’s temperature rises higher than that required for normal metabolism and bodily functions (37°C)
C. Partial Lack of oxygen
D. Blockage of blood vessels resulting in clotting
14. Which of the following should be recorded as an air accident
A. While landing an aircraft wing hit a stationary aircraft, ending in significant damage
B. The engine caught fire during a routine check
C. Propeller of an aircraft was broken after being hit by a falling object while parked in field
D. A man was knocked down by an aircraft while taxing on the runway. He was seriously injured but there was no damage to aircraft
15. An operator shall not operate an aeroplane with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 5 700 kg or having a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 seats unless it is equipped with at least one crash axe or crowbar located on the flight deck; how many crash axe or Crowbar is required for a passenger flight carrying 250 passenger?
A. 2 or 3 crash axe or crowbar
B. 1 crowbar is mandatory
C. 2 crash axe or crowbar
D. 1 crowbar
16. An operator shall not operate a land airplane when taking off or landing at an aerodrome where the take-off or approach path is so disposed over water that in the event of a mishap there would be a likelihood of a ditching:
A. Unless it is equipped with life jackets equipped with a survivor locator light, for each person on board. Each life jacket must be stowed in a position easily accessible from the seat or berth of the person for whose use it is provided
B. Unless it is equipped with life Raft equipped with a survivor locator light, for each person on board.
C. Unless it is equipped with portable Oxygen enough for all passengers onboard.
D. Unless it has 4 engines equipped
17. Apron mean;
A. A defined area, on a land aerodrome, intended to accommodate aircraft for purposes of loading or unloading passengers, mail or cargo, fueling, parking or maintenance.
B. A defined area, on water, intended to accommodate aircraft for purposes of loading or unloading passengers, mail or cargo, fueling, parking or maintenance
C. A defined area, on a land, intended to accommodate aircraft for purposes of loading or unloading passengers, mail or cargo, fueling, parking or maintenance
D. A defined area, on a land aerodrome, intended to accommodate aircraft for purposes of unloading passengers, mail or cargo, fueling, parking or maintenance
18. How many megaphones are required for a double deck B-747 with 50 passengers on Board?
A. 1 megaphone
B. 2 megaphone.
C. 3 megaphone
D. 4 megaphone
25. Water shall never be used on
A. Burning wood
B. Burning metal
C. Burning liquid and semisolids
D. Brining textiles
26. The ground-air visual signal put up by the survivors requiring a medical assistance is;
A. V
B. X
C. XX
D. Y
27. A Maldivian license holder who suffers an injury making him incapable of undertaking his duties under the license should inform the authorities
A. When 20 elapsed
B. Immediately
C. Within 20 days
D. At his/her convenience
28. A cabin crew is required to hold a valid medical of
A. Class 1
B. Class 2
C. Class 3
D. Class 4
29. To conduct passenger flight above 10,000 feet
A. Aircraft must be jets
B Aircraft must be pressurized
C. Aircraft must be equipped with oxygen enough for passengers and crew
D. Number of passengers must not exceed 15
30. Altitude is the vertical distance of a level, point or object a point above
A. MSL
B. AGL
C. Specific datum
D. Aerodrome level
31. Recurrent training and refresher (including checking) is mandatory for a cabin attendant who is out of employment for;
A. 12 months
B. 15 months
C. 2 years
D. 6 months
33. Break time is defined as
A period free of all duties, which counts as duty, less than a rest period
B. A period free of all duties, which does not counts as duty, less than a rest period
C. A period free of all flights, which counts as duty, less than a rest period
D. A period free of all duties, which counts as duty, considered as rest period
34. The maximum FDP can be extended up to
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 3 hours
D. 4 hours
35. An aircraft certified for a maximum capacity of 5700kg for the takeoff weight is considered:
A. Small jet
B. Small aircraft
C. Jumbo jets
D. Wide bodies
36. What is considered a VTOL?
A. Twin Otter
Helicopters
C. Boeing 777
D. DHC-8
37. The height above ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of the cloud below 06000 mete (20000ft) covering more than half the sky is considered as:
A Ceiling
B. Visibility
C. Cruising Level
D. Flight Level
38. Dangerous good forbidden for transport by air under any circumstances are;
A. Articles and substances that are specifically identified by name or by generic description in the Technical Instructions as being forbidden for transport by air except liquids
B. Articles and substances that are specifically identified by name or by generic description in the Technical Instructions as being forbidden for transport by air
C. Articles and substances that are specifically identified by name as being forbidden for transport by air on normal passenger flights
D. Articles and substances that are flammable
39. The maximum daily FDP can be extended by up to:
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 3 hours
D. 4 hours
40. The maximum daily FDP can be extended by up to:
A 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 3 hours
D. 4 hours
41. Regarding Use of Portable electronic devices;
A. An operator shall not permit any person to use, and take all reasonable measures to ensure that no person does use Portable electronic devices.
B. An operator shall not permit any person to use, and take all reasonable measures to ensure that no person does use, on board an aeroplane a portable electronic device that can adversely affect the performance of aeroplanes systems and equipment.
C. Except for crew onboard, no passengers are allowed to use portable electronic devices.
D. An operator shall only permit to use mobile phones
42. During turbulence, in the absence of any instructions from the flight crew, the senior cabin crew member shall;
A. Discontinue no-safety related duties and advise the flight crew of the level of turbulence and the need for seat belt signs to be switched on.
B. Inform flight deck and secure the passengers and cabin.
C. Remain seated and advise all passengers and crew to fasten seat belts
D. Stop serving passengers and keep passengers advised of the severe turbulence
43. Introductory CRM Course must be completed;
A. Before a cabin crew is being assigned as a qualified Cabin crew member
B. Within 6 months of operating as a qualified Cabin crew member
C. Within 1 month of operating as a Cabin crew member
D. Introductory CRM is not required if the cabin crew commences the CRM Course before the recurrent program
44. The maximum number of extensions in any seven consecutive days is;
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
45. For non-scheduled day VFR operations, single pilot operations and emergency medical Service operations, the required minimum res period is;
A. 12 hours
B. 14 hours
C. 10 hours
D. 13 hours
46. A crew member shall not perform duties on an aeroplane;
A. Following deep sea diving
B. Following free diving before 12 hours has elapsed
C. Following deep sea diving except when a reasonable time period has elapsed.
D. After giving birth
47. A crew member shall not perform duties on an aeroplane;
A. Following blood donation except when a reasonable time period has elapsed
B. Following blood donation except when on on-call duty
C. Following blood donation except when called for rescue flight
D. Following blood donation un less she/ she has doctors permission
48. If he/she knows or suspects that he/she is suffering from fatigue, or feels unfit to the extent that the flight may be endangered, the Cabin crew shall
A. Request for easy time
B. Refrain from long flights and busy schedule
C. Refrain from all flying duties
D. Request for early layovers
49. Flight crew can consume alcohol to a level not exceeding 0.2 promille in his concentrated blood if he/ she consumes alcohol;
A 8 hours prior to the specific reporting time for flight duty
B. 8 hours prior to the specific reporting time for flight duty and commencement of standby
C. 10 hours prior to the specific reporting time for the specific flight
D. 8 hours prior to the specific departure time
50. The commander is authorized to;
A. Take immediate decision and action, take any action he/she considers necessary under the circumstances during emergency situations, unless she/he does not deviate from SOPs
B. To take any actions; immediate decision and action, he/she considers necessary under the circumstances even if he/she has to deviate from SOPs in the interest of safety.
C. To land the aircraft in any aerodrome when everything seems normal.
D. Follow the SOPs strictly during emergency situations to make sure everything goes as per the book.
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