Unlock hundreds more features
Save your Quiz to the Dashboard
View and Export Results
Use AI to Create Quizzes and Analyse Results

OR
Sign inSign in with Facebook
Sign inSign in with Google
Quizzes > Health & Medicine > Diseases & Conditions

Take the CDC Mastery Practice Exam Quiz - Show Your Expertise

Think you can ace this CDC practice quiz? Tackle these CDC Mastery questions now!

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
CDC Mastery practice exam themed paper art illustration on a golden yellow background.

The CDC Mastery Quiz helps you practice under exam-like conditions and spot gaps before the exam. You'll get instant feedback, a running score, and quick review options like the EOC review or Security Forces practice to drill key exam areas.

What does CDC stand for?
Community Disease Coalition
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Central Disease Council
Control of Disease Center
CDC stands for Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, a U.S. federal agency focused on public health. It was established to prevent and control disease threats domestically and globally. The agency provides guidance, conducts research, and responds to outbreaks.
Which of the following is a core function of public health?
Developing personal fitness plans
Assessing community health needs
Promoting specific pharmaceutical brands
Regulating private sector prices
Assessing community health needs is one of the three core functions of public health (assessment, policy development, and assurance). This function involves collecting and analyzing data to identify health problems. The CDC often publishes community health assessments.
Which level of prevention aims to stop disease before it starts?
Quaternary prevention
Tertiary prevention
Secondary prevention
Primary prevention
Primary prevention seeks to prevent disease occurrence by reducing risk factors or increasing resistance. Examples include vaccination and health education. It is the first line of defense in public health practice.
What is the incubation period?
Time from illness onset to recovery
Time from symptom onset to death
Time between two disease peaks
Time from exposure to symptom onset
The incubation period is the interval between exposure to an infectious agent and the appearance of the first symptoms. It helps in outbreak investigation and setting quarantine guidelines. Different pathogens have characteristic incubation periods.
Which data type is measured on a nominal scale?
Patient's blood type
Blood pressure reading
Cholesterol level
Temperature in °C
Nominal data classify observations into categories without a natural order, such as blood types A, B, AB, and O. They are categorical variables used in descriptive statistics. Analysis often involves frequency counts and proportions.
What is an epidemic?
Disease eradicated globally
Constant low-level disease occurrence
An unusual increase in disease incidence in a population
Worldwide spread of a new disease
An epidemic refers to a sudden increase in cases of a disease above what is normally expected in that population. It may be confined to a region or country. Monitoring epidemics helps trigger public health responses.
Which tool is used by CDC for immunization schedule planning?
Immunization Information System
Vaccine Information Statement
Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System
Disease Reporting System
The Immunization Information System (IIS) is a confidential, population-based database that records all immunization doses administered. It helps providers track patient vaccination history and schedule updates. Many states use it to generate reminder and recall notices.
Which vaccine is recommended annually for most adults?
Influenza vaccine
HPV vaccine
Varicella vaccine
MMR vaccine
The influenza vaccine is recommended annually for most adults because flu viruses frequently mutate. Annual vaccination reduces the risk of severe illness and complications. The CDC updates the vaccine formulation each year.
What is contact tracing used for?
Developing new vaccines
Identifying and notifying individuals exposed to a case
Measuring environmental contamination
Determining disease genetic sequences
Contact tracing involves identifying persons who have been exposed to an infected individual and notifying them of their potential risk. It is essential for controlling the spread of communicable diseases. The CDC provides guidelines and training for effective contact tracing.
Which term describes the proportion of a population immune to a disease?
Morbidity rate
Case fatality rate
Incidence rate
Herd immunity
Herd immunity occurs when a sufficient proportion of a population is immune to an infectious disease, reducing its spread. It can be achieved through prior illness and/or vaccination. The threshold varies by disease transmissibility.
Which epidemiologic study measures exposure and outcome at the same time?
Case-control study
Cohort study
Randomized controlled trial
Cross-sectional study
A cross-sectional study assesses both exposure and outcome simultaneously in a population sample. It provides prevalence data but cannot establish causality. It is often used for health surveys and surveillance.
Which vaccine-preventable disease is targeted for global eradication next after smallpox?
Varicella
Measles
Polio
Rubella
Polio is the next vaccine-preventable disease targeted for global eradication following smallpox. Concerted international efforts have reduced cases by over 99%. The CDC collaborates with WHO and other partners in this initiative.
What is morbidity rate?
The frequency of occurrence of disease in a population
The number of deaths in a population
The ratio of exposure to outcome
The speed of epidemic spread
Morbidity rate refers to the number of individuals with a particular disease in a population at a given time. It includes both incidence and prevalence measures. It informs resource allocation and public health planning.
Which agency publishes the Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report (MMWR)?
Food and Drug Administration
World Health Organization
CDC
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
The CDC publishes the MMWR, which provides timely, reliable public health information and recommendations. It is considered the agency's primary vehicle for scientific publication. It covers topics from outbreak reports to policy updates.
What is the primary method for confirming a suspected outbreak?
Reviewing social media trends
Polling random households
Counting hospital beds
Conducting lab testing on samples
Laboratory testing of clinical or environmental samples is the definitive way to confirm an outbreak. It identifies the pathogen and its characteristics. Lab confirmation guides case definitions and control measures.
Which public health term describes the number of new cases in a population during a specific time?
Incidence
Sensitivity
Prevalence
Attributable risk
Incidence measures the number of new cases of a disease in a population during a specified period. It is used to assess risk and disease dynamics. Prevalence, by contrast, includes existing cases.
What is the case fatality rate?
Proportion of deaths among identified cases
Total population mortality
Deaths among exposed persons
New cases per year
Case fatality rate (CFR) is the proportion of individuals diagnosed with a disease who die from it within a specified period. It indicates disease severity and guides resource allocation. CFR is calculated as (deaths/cases)×100.
Which study design is best for rare diseases?
Case-control study
Cohort study
Cross-sectional study
Ecological study
Case-control studies are efficient for rare diseases because they start with cases and look back at exposures. They require fewer subjects and are less costly. They can, however, be prone to recall bias.
Which vaccine phase tests safety in a small group of volunteers?
Phase III
Phase I
Phase II
Phase IV
Phase I vaccine trials assess safety and dosage in a small group of healthy volunteers. They monitor for adverse effects and immune response. Successful Phase I leads to larger Phase II trials.
What is sensitivity of a diagnostic test?
Ability to detect true negatives
Ability to detect true positives
Overall accuracy
Proportion of false positives
Sensitivity measures the proportion of true positives correctly identified by a test. High sensitivity minimizes false negatives. It is crucial for screening tests where missing cases is risky.
Which surveillance system relies on mandatory reporting of certain diseases?
Syndromic surveillance
Passive surveillance
Sentinel surveillance
Active surveillance
Passive surveillance depends on healthcare providers and laboratories to report cases as required by law or regulation. It is cost-effective but may underreport. The CDC receives such reports for national disease monitoring.
What does R0 (R naught) represent in epidemiology?
Recovery rate
Basic reproduction number
Case fatality ratio
Rate of progression
R0, or basic reproduction number, indicates the average number of secondary cases produced by one case in a fully susceptible population. R0 >1 suggests potential for outbreak. Control measures aim to reduce the effective reproduction number below 1.
Which statistical test is appropriate for comparing means of two independent groups?
Paired t-test
Chi-square test
ANOVA
Independent samples t-test
An independent samples t-test compares the means of two separate groups to see if they differ significantly. Data should be approximately normally distributed with similar variances. The CDC uses such tests in epidemiologic analyses.
Which term refers to unintended consequences of an intervention?
Confounder
Side effect
Primary outcome
Bias
A side effect is any unintended effect of an intervention or treatment, whether harmful or beneficial. Monitoring side effects is key in vaccine safety and drug surveillance. The CDC tracks adverse events via VAERS.
Which approach is used to evaluate long-term outcomes in a cohort?
Cross-sectional study
Prospective cohort study
Case series
Ecological study
Prospective cohort studies follow a group of individuals over time to assess how exposures affect outcomes. They can establish temporal relationships and calculate incidence. They are resource-intensive but provide strong evidence.
What is a confounder?
Statistical interaction
Random error in measurement
Variable that is modified by exposure
Variable associated with both exposure and outcome
A confounder is a factor associated with both the exposure and the outcome that can distort the observed effect. Controlling for confounders is essential in study design and analysis. Methods include stratification and multivariable modeling.
Which guideline outlines the steps for environmental health investigations?
Haddon Matrix
Gantt chart
CDC's Environmental Assessment Steps
Epidemiologic Triangle
CDC's Environmental Assessment Steps provide a systematic process for investigating environmental contributions to health events. They include defining objectives, collecting data, and recommending controls. This guide supports outbreak and exposure investigations.
Which rate adjusts crude rates to a standard population?
Age-adjusted rate
Specific rate
Crude rate
Case rate
Age-adjusted rates remove differences in age distribution when comparing populations. They allow fair comparison by applying observed rates to a standard population structure. The CDC publishes age-adjusted mortality data.
Which method reduces selection bias in clinical trials?
Retrospective design
Randomization
Case-control matching
Blinding
Randomization allocates participants to intervention or control groups by chance, reducing selection bias. It ensures comparability and supports causal inference. The CDC advocates randomized designs when ethical and feasible.
Which term describes variability due to random error?
Random variation
Validity
Bias
Precision
Random variation refers to fluctuations in data due to chance and measurement error. It affects precision but not validity. Increasing sample size can reduce random variation.
What is the purpose of the National Notifiable Diseases Surveillance System (NNDSS)?
Distribute vaccines to states
Conduct all outbreak investigations
Collect data on reportable diseases for national tracking
Track environmental exposures only
The NNDSS collects case reports of nationally notifiable diseases from states and territories. It enables monitoring of disease trends and detection of outbreaks. Data are published weekly in the MMWR.
In outbreak investigations, what is a case definition?
Standardized criteria for classifying cases
List of all patients treated
Treatment guideline
Laboratory protocol
A case definition provides uniform criteria to ensure cases are comparable and consistent. It may include clinical criteria, person, place, time, and laboratory parameters. Clear definitions help determine outbreak scope.
Which molecular method is most commonly used for rapid pathogen detection?
Western blot
Polymerase chain reaction
Gram staining
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies specific DNA sequences, allowing rapid and sensitive pathogen detection. It is widely used in clinical and public health labs. The CDC utilizes PCR for surveillance and diagnostics.
What is a point-source outbreak?
Endemic disease pattern
Multiple unrelated exposures
Exposure occurs over a prolonged period
Exposure to a single source over a brief time
A point-source outbreak occurs when individuals are exposed nearly simultaneously to a shared source of infection. The epidemic curve typically shows a sharp rise and fall. Identifying the single source aids control measures.
In logistic regression, what does an odds ratio of 1 indicate?
Confounding present
No association between exposure and outcome
Protective effect of exposure
Strong risk factor
An odds ratio (OR) of 1 implies no association between exposure and outcome in logistic regression. OR >1 suggests increased odds; OR <1 suggests decreased odds. Interpretation also considers confidence intervals.
Which sampling method ensures every member has an equal chance of selection?
Simple random sampling
Snowball sampling
Convenience sampling
Stratified sampling
Simple random sampling gives each individual in the population an equal probability of selection. It minimizes selection bias and supports generalizability. It often requires a complete sampling frame.
What is the role of the Epidemic Intelligence Service (EIS)?
Regulate hospital licensing
Manufacture vaccines
Develop pharmaceutical guidance
Conduct field epidemiology investigations
The EIS is a CDC program that trains epidemiologists in field investigation and surveillance. Officers respond to outbreaks, disasters, and public health emergencies globally. The program strengthens public health capacity.
Which analysis assesses time trends in disease occurrence?
Temporal analysis
Spatial analysis
Cross-sectional analysis
Case-control analysis
Temporal analysis examines how disease incidence changes over time, identifying patterns such as seasonality or secular trends. It guides timing of interventions and resource planning. CDC surveillance reports routinely include temporal graphs.
Which term describes a false negative rate in testing?
Positive predictive value
Negative predictive value
1 - specificity
1 - sensitivity
The false negative rate equals 1 minus sensitivity, representing the proportion of true cases missed by the test. High sensitivity reduces false negatives. It's critical in screening to avoid missed diagnoses.
What is the purpose of a funnel plot in public health?
Graph time trends
Assess geographic clustering
Detect publication bias or variation
Display age distributions
Funnel plots display study effect size against precision to detect publication bias or variation among units (e.g., hospitals). As sample size increases, estimates cluster around the average, forming a funnel. The CDC uses such plots in performance assessments.
Which factor is most critical when selecting an indicator for surveillance?
Relevance and feasibility
Novelty of measure
Cost of data collection
Ease of political acceptability
Relevance ensures the indicator reflects important health issues; feasibility ensures data can be collected reliably. Indicators must balance scientific validity and practical constraints. The CDC's Data 2020 initiative emphasizes feasible metrics.
Which vaccine adverse event surveillance system is co-managed by CDC and FDA?
Vaccine Safety Datalink
VAERS
MedWatch
NVICP
The Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS) is jointly managed by CDC and FDA to monitor safety after vaccine licensure. It collects reports of adverse events for signal detection. VAERS data guide further safety studies.
In a survival analysis, what does a Kaplan-Meier curve show?
Incidence rate over time
Proportion surviving versus time
Mean survival at baseline only
Hazard ratios only
A Kaplan-Meier curve estimates the survival function and shows the proportion surviving at each time point. It accounts for censored data when participants are lost to follow-up. The CDC uses it in chronic disease research.
Which analytic method controls for multiple confounders simultaneously?
Stratified analysis
Chi-square test
Correlation analysis
Multivariable regression
Multivariable regression models adjust for multiple confounding variables at once to estimate the independent effect of each predictor. Common models include logistic and linear regression. They are widely used in CDC epidemiologic studies.
During a foodborne outbreak, investigators notice a single ingredient used in multiple dishes. Which study design best tests this hypothesis?
Cross-sectional survey of kitchen staff
Ecological study comparing restaurants
Case-control study of cases vs. non-cases
Retrospective cohort study among diners
A retrospective cohort study among exposed diners compares attack rates in those who consumed the ingredient versus those who did not. It directly tests the ingredient-exposure hypothesis. This design is preferred when the exposed cohort is well-defined.
A new respiratory virus emerges. Which CDC unit coordinates national lab confirmation protocols?
Vaccine Task Force
Laboratory Response Network
National Institute for Occupational Safety
Influenza Division
The Laboratory Response Network (LRN) integrates federal, state, and local labs for rapid testing protocols during public health emergencies. It standardizes assays and ensures quality. LRN was pivotal during the COVID-19 response.
In adaptive clinical trial designs, what is the primary advantage?
Elimination of control group
Ability to modify aspects based on interim data
Reduced ethical oversight
Fixed sample sizes
Adaptive designs allow pre-specified modifications to sample size, randomization ratios, or treatment arms based on interim analyses. This increases efficiency and ethical treatment allocation. The CDC considers adaptive trials in pandemic responses.
Which command in Epi Info would you use to perform a multilevel mixed-effects model?
GLMMIX
ANOVA
SURVEYMEANS
LOGISTIC
GLMMIX in Epi Info fits generalized linear mixed-effects models for clustered or hierarchical data. It accounts for random effects at multiple levels. This is essential for complex survey and multi-center data.
A Bayesian outbreak model incorporates prior information. What is a key benefit?
Ensures deterministic predictions
Avoids model assumptions
Eliminates need for data
Provides probabilistic estimates that update with data
Bayesian models combine prior knowledge with observed data to yield posterior distributions. They offer flexible updating of probabilities as new information emerges. Public health analysts use them for real-time outbreak forecasting.
In geospatial analysis, what does a choropleth map display?
Time-series trends
Movement of individuals
Disease rates by geographic area using color gradients
Point locations of cases
A choropleth map uses varying shades or colors in predefined geographic areas to represent data values, such as disease rates. It highlights spatial patterns in health outcomes. The CDC's WONDER system provides choropleth mapping tools.
0
{"name":"What does CDC stand for?", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"What does CDC stand for?, Which of the following is a core function of public health?, Which level of prevention aims to stop disease before it starts?","img":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/3012/images/ogquiz.png"}

Study Outcomes

  1. Identify Core CDC Guidelines -

    Learn to distinguish essential infection control and prevention protocols outlined in the CDC Mastery practice exam, ensuring you recognize key standards across healthcare scenarios.

  2. Apply Best Practices in Infection Control -

    Use insights from the cdc mastery questions to implement proper hygiene, sterilization, and isolation procedures in clinical settings.

  3. Evaluate Emergency Response Procedures -

    Assess critical emergency protocols and decision-making strategies tested in the CDC practice quiz to improve your readiness for urgent public health situations.

  4. Interpret Detailed Feedback -

    Analyze instant quiz results and explanations to understand your performance trends and the rationale behind correct answers in the cdc mastery practice exam.

  5. Strengthen Knowledge Gaps -

    Identify areas for improvement through targeted review, refine your cdcmastery skills, and increase confidence for certification or practical application.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Standard Precautions and Hand Hygiene -

    Understand CDC's core standard precautions - hand hygiene, personal protective equipment (PPE), sharps safety, and respiratory etiquette - to block pathogen spread. Use the "My 5 Moments for Hand Hygiene" mnemonic (before patient contact, before aseptic task, after body fluid exposure, after patient contact, after environment contact) from the World Health Organization for reliable recall. Consistent practice of these basics is the foundation of cdc mastery in infection control.

  2. Transmission-Based Precautions -

    Differentiate contact, droplet, and airborne precautions to match pathogen routes: gowns and gloves for contact, surgical masks within three feet for droplets, and N95 respirators plus negative-pressure rooms for airborne. Remember "A-D-C" (Airborne - Distance - Contact) as a quick mnemonic to select the correct barrier. Proper signage and staff training reinforce compliance in high-risk settings (CDC, 2021).

  3. Biosafety Levels (BSL) in the Laboratory -

    Review BSL-1 through BSL-4 classifications to align containment practices with pathogen risk: BSL-2 adds restricted access and biosafety cabinets, while BSL-4 requires full-body, positive-pressure suits. Apply the "Contain and Conquer" principle - engineered controls first, then administrative policies and PPE - to ensure safe handling. Refer to CDC/NIH's Biosafety in Microbiological and Biomedical Laboratories manual for detailed protocols.

  4. Emergency Response and Triage Protocols -

    Master the Incident Command System (ICS) structure and triage algorithms like START (Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment) using the "RPM" check: Respiration, Perfusion, Mental status. For example, RPM helps you quickly categorize victims into immediate (red), delayed (yellow), minimal (green), or expectant (black) during mass-casualty events. Regular drills based on FEMA and CDC guidelines build confidence under pressure.

  5. Environmental Cleaning and Disinfection -

    Memorize EPA-registered disinfectants and required contact times for high-touch surfaces - especially 1:10 bleach solutions (≈5,000 ppm) for blood spills. Use the "Bleach 1-10" trick to simplify dilution math and always confirm efficacy against target organisms. Consistent auditing with fluorescent markers or ATP testing supports high standards recommended by leading infection prevention journals.

Make a Quiz (FREE) Copy & Edit This Quiz Create a Quiz with AI

Diseases & Conditions Quizzes

Powered by: Quiz Maker