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Quizzes > Health & Medicine

Paramedic test questions: practice for the exam

Quick, free paramedic practice test with instant results and explanations

Editorial: Review CompletedCreated By: Sam WilliamsUpdated Aug 26, 2025
Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art illustration showing paramedic exam practice quiz materials on golden yellow background.

This quiz helps you work through paramedic exam questions, spot gaps, and get instant feedback on each choice as you prepare for the exam. Strengthen core skills with realistic cases, and explore related drills like emt practice questions, the vital signs quiz, and a first aid practice test.

The proper length of a nasopharyngeal airway is determined by measuring from the tip of the patient's nose to which landmark?
Mastoid process
Corner of the mouth
Angle of the mandible
Earlobe
Sizing a nasopharyngeal airway by measuring from the tip of the nose to the earlobe ensures the device will reach the hypopharynx without causing trauma. Too short a device may be ineffective, while too long may cause gagging or laryngeal stimulation. Proper sizing decreases the risk of airway obstruction and improves ventilation. For more detail see .
During a primary assessment, which sign most strongly suggests a partial upper airway obstruction?
Tachycardia
Stridor
Hypotension
Pallor
Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh sound produced during inspiration when airflow is partially obstructed in the upper airway. It is a hallmark sign of partial obstruction above the vocal cords. Prompt recognition allows immediate airway interventions to prevent complete obstruction. See more at .
What is the normal respiratory rate range for a healthy adult at rest?
20 - 28 breaths per minute
28 - 36 breaths per minute
12 - 20 breaths per minute
8 - 12 breaths per minute
The normal adult respiratory rate at rest is between 12 and 20 breaths per minute. Rates below or above this range may indicate respiratory or metabolic disturbances. Accurate measurement of respiratory rate is a vital sign in patient assessment. For reference, see .
Which blood type is considered the universal donor for packed red blood cell transfusions?
O negative
B negative
AB positive
A positive
O negative blood lacks A, B, and Rh antigens, minimizing the risk of hemolytic reactions in recipients. It is therefore considered the universal donor type for emergency transfusions. Use of O negative can be lifesaving when blood type is unknown. More information available at .
What is the first-line medication for treating anaphylaxis in the prehospital setting?
Albuterol
Epinephrine
Atropine
Diphenhydramine
Epinephrine is the primary treatment for anaphylaxis because it rapidly reverses bronchoconstriction, vasodilation, and angioedema. Intramuscular injection into the lateral thigh is preferred in the prehospital environment. Delayed administration is associated with worse outcomes. Guidelines are detailed at .
On the Glasgow Coma Scale, what eye opening score is assigned when a patient opens their eyes only in response to a verbal command?
3
4
2
1
A Glasgow Coma Scale eye opening score of 3 is given when the patient opens their eyes in response to verbal stimulation. Spontaneous eye opening scores a 4, pain response scores a 2, and no eye opening scores a 1. Correct scoring helps determine neurologic status and guides treatment. More details at .
Which pulse site is recommended for determining circulation in an unresponsive adult patient?
Brachial artery
Carotid artery
Femoral artery
Radial artery
The carotid artery is the preferred site for assessing circulation in an unresponsive adult because it is centrally located and remains palpable longer during shock states. The radial pulse is used only when the patient is responsive and has a pulse. Accurate pulse assessment is critical in advanced cardiac life support. See .
Which tool is most commonly used to estimate pediatric medication dosages and equipment sizes in the field?
Young's rule
Broselow tape
Cowling formula
Clark's rule
The Broselow Pediatric Emergency Tape provides weight-based estimates of medication dosages and equipment sizes by correlating a child's length to their weight. It is widely used in prehospital care to reduce calculation errors under time pressure. Its use improves safety and efficiency in pediatric emergencies. More info at .
What medication should be administered for a suspected opioid overdose presenting with respiratory depression?
Naloxone
Atropine
Flumazenil
Activated charcoal
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the respiratory depressive effects of opioids by competitively binding to opioid receptors. It can be administered intranasally or intravenously in the prehospital setting. Rapid administration can restore adequate ventilation. Protocol details available at .
Which cardiac rhythm is treated with immediate defibrillation rather than cardioversion?
Atrial fibrillation
Pulseless electrical activity
Asystole
Pulseless ventricular tachycardia
Pulseless ventricular tachycardia is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized electrical activity. In contrast, asystole and PEA are non-shockable and require high-quality CPR and medications. Early defibrillation in pulseless VT significantly improves survival. See .
At what heart rate threshold is atropine indicated for symptomatic bradycardia in an adult?
Less than 30 beats per minute
Less than 40 beats per minute
Less than 50 beats per minute
Less than 60 beats per minute
Atropine is recommended for symptomatic bradycardia when the heart rate is less than 50 beats per minute. It works by blocking vagal influences on the heart to increase heart rate. Doses of 0.5 mg IV every 3 - 5 minutes up to 3 mg are typical. Detailed dosing in .
What is the correct landmark for needle decompression in a suspected tension pneumothorax?
Second intercostal space in the midclavicular line
Fourth intercostal space in the anterior axillary line
Sixth intercostal space in the midaxillary line
Third intercostal space in the midscapular line
Needle decompression for tension pneumothorax is performed in the second intercostal space at the midclavicular line. This location avoids injury to major vessels and allows rapid release of trapped air. Proper technique is essential to reverse hemodynamic compromise. See protocol at .
Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for facial muscle movement?
Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
Trigeminal (CN V)
Accessory (CN XI)
Facial (CN VII)
The facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) controls the muscles of facial expression, as well as conveying taste sensations from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Damage to this nerve can cause facial droop and Bell's palsy. Assessment of facial movement tests its integrity. More on this at .
What is the maximum recommended adult intramuscular dose of epinephrine for anaphylaxis?
5 mg of 1:1,000 concentration
0.3 mg of 1:1,000 concentration
0.5 mg of 1:1,000 concentration
1 mg of 1:10,000 concentration
The recommended adult IM dose for anaphylaxis is 0.5 mg of epinephrine using a 1:1,000 concentration injected into the anterolateral thigh. This dose rapidly addresses vasodilation and bronchoconstriction. Lower doses may be used in smaller adults or pediatrics. Refer to .
Which part of the ECG waveform represents ventricular repolarization?
P wave
QRS complex
U wave
T wave
The T wave on an ECG corresponds to ventricular repolarization, when the ventricles recover electrically after contraction. Abnormalities in T-wave morphology can signal ischemia or electrolyte disturbances. Proper interpretation is key in cardiac assessment. Details at .
What is the normal range for end-tidal CO? (ETCO?) in a spontaneously breathing adult?
50 - 60 mmHg
35 - 45 mmHg
10 - 20 mmHg
20 - 30 mmHg
Normal end-tidal CO? values range from 35 to 45 mmHg in a healthy adult breathing spontaneously. Values below this range may indicate hyperventilation or pulmonary embolism, while higher values suggest hypoventilation or rebreathing. Monitoring ETCO? helps assess ventilation efficacy. More at .
What is the primary pharmacologic action of nitroglycerin in chest pain management?
Increased myocardial contractility
Beta-adrenergic blockade
Venous vasodilation
Alpha receptor antagonism
Nitroglycerin primarily causes venous vasodilation, which reduces preload and myocardial oxygen demand. It also dilates coronary arteries to improve blood flow. This combination alleviates ischemic chest pain. Reference .
Which electrolyte must be closely monitored and often supplemented in diabetic ketoacidosis?
Sodium
Calcium
Potassium
Magnesium
In diabetic ketoacidosis, insulin therapy drives potassium into cells, risking hypokalemia. Even with initial hyperkalemia, total body potassium is depleted. Monitoring and replacing potassium is essential to prevent arrhythmias. See .
Which of the following is a contraindication for continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) in a prehospital patient?
Chronic COPD exacerbation
Cardiogenic pulmonary edema
Acute congestive heart failure
Suspected pneumothorax
CPAP is contraindicated in patients with a suspected pneumothorax because positive pressure can worsen the pneumothorax and precipitate tension physiology. Other contraindications include decreased level of consciousness and facial trauma. Correct patient selection is crucial for safe CPAP use. See .
A trauma patient exhibits decorticate posturing. This motor response indicates damage to which area of the central nervous system?
Cerebellum
Cerebral hemispheres above the midbrain
Brainstem below the red nucleus
Spinal cord
Decorticate posturing (flexion of the arms and extension of the legs) indicates severe injury to areas above the midbrain, specifically the cerebral hemispheres. This sign suggests loss of cortical control over the red nucleus. It is associated with a poor prognosis. Further reading at .
In hemorrhagic shock, which type of crystalloid solution is most appropriate for initial fluid resuscitation?
Lactated Ringer's solution
5% dextrose in water (D5W)
0.45% normal saline
Dextran 40
Lactated Ringer's solution is isotonic and contains electrolytes that more closely mimic plasma, making it preferable for initial resuscitation of hemorrhagic shock. D5W is hypotonic and provides no significant intravascular volume expansion. Colloids may be considered later but are not first-line. Protocols at .
An oropharyngeal airway (OPA) is indicated in which of the following patients?
Alert and oriented with stridor
Unresponsive without gag reflex
Responsive with intact gag reflex
Conscious with airway edema
An OPA is used only in unresponsive patients who lack a gag reflex, as it holds the tongue off the posterior pharynx. Placement in a patient with an intact gag reflex can induce vomiting and aspiration. Always assess for contraindications prior to insertion. Guidelines at .
According to the Parkland formula, how many milliliters of fluid are required in the first 24 hours for a 70-kg adult with 30% total body surface area (TBSA) burns?
2,100 mL
16,800 mL
8,400 mL
4,200 mL
The Parkland formula specifies 4 mL × body weight in kg × percentage TBSA burned. For a 70-kg adult with 30% burns: 4 × 70 × 30 = 8,400 mL in the first 24 hours. Half of this volume is given in the first 8 hours, and the remainder over the next 16 hours. Details at .
Which set of findings comprises Cushing's triad, indicative of increased intracranial pressure?
Hypotension, bradycardia, hyperthermia
Hypotension, tachycardia, tachypnea
Hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations
Hypertension, tachycardia, hyperthermia
Cushing's triad consists of systemic hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations and indicates raised intracranial pressure. This physiological response attempts to maintain cerebral perfusion pressure. It is a late and ominous sign in head injury. More at .
Which induction agent is preferred for rapid sequence intubation in a hypotensive trauma patient?
Thiopental
Etomidate
Midazolam
Propofol
Etomidate is hemodynamically stable and is the induction agent of choice for hypotensive patients undergoing rapid sequence intubation. It has minimal impact on blood pressure and cardiac output compared to other agents. Its use reduces the risk of peri-intubation hypotension. See .
Furosemide acts primarily by inhibiting ion transport in which segment of the nephron?
Thick ascending limb of Henle's loop
Proximal convoluted tubule
Collecting duct
Distal convoluted tubule
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the Na?-K?-2Cl? cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This action prevents sodium and water reabsorption, increasing diuresis. It is potent and effective in pulmonary edema and fluid overload. Details at .
Which lung sound is most characteristic of pulmonary edema?
Stridor
Fine crackles
Pleural friction rub
Wheezes
Fine crackles (rales) heard on auscultation are indicative of fluid in the alveoli, a hallmark of pulmonary edema. They are typically bilateral and heard at the lung bases. Recognizing these sounds aids in diagnosis and guides oxygen and diuretic therapy. See .
Where is the correct anatomical landmark for performing a cricothyrotomy in an adult patient?
Through the cricothyroid membrane (between thyroid and cricoid cartilages)
Through the thyrohyoid membrane
At the level of the hyoid bone
Between the first and second tracheal rings
A cricothyrotomy is performed through the cricothyroid membrane, which lies between the thyroid cartilage and the cricoid cartilage. This site is chosen because it is relatively avascular and easily palpated. Accurate identification reduces the risk of complications. Technique details at .
How is the Rapid Shallow Breathing Index (RSBI) calculated to assess readiness for extubation?
Tidal volume divided by respiratory rate
Respiratory rate times tidal volume
Minute ventilation divided by tidal volume
Respiratory rate divided by tidal volume in liters
The RSBI is calculated by dividing the patient's respiratory rate (breaths/min) by their tidal volume in liters. An RSBI under 105 indicates a higher likelihood of successful extubation. It helps predict weaning outcomes in ventilated patients. More information at .
Which acid-base disturbance is most consistent with a patient who has chronic COPD?
Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Chronic COPD often leads to chronic retention of CO?, causing a primary respiratory acidosis. The kidneys compensate by increasing bicarbonate reabsorption, resulting in metabolic compensation. Blood gas values show elevated PaCO? and HCO?? levels. For details see .
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Study Outcomes

  1. Apply Advanced Patient Assessment Techniques -

    Practice performing systematic assessments in realistic scenarios to hone your ability to identify critical patient conditions quickly.

  2. Analyze Realistic Clinical Scenarios -

    Work through paramedic exam practice questions that mimic field situations to improve clinical decision-making under pressure.

  3. Identify Proper Emergency Procedures -

    Learn to select and sequence the correct interventions for trauma, cardiac, and respiratory emergencies in line with current protocols.

  4. Evaluate Pharmacological Interventions -

    Test your knowledge of drug dosages, indications, and contraindications to ensure safe medication administration during resuscitation.

  5. Reinforce NREMT Test-Taking Strategies -

    Discover tips for tackling challenging paramedic practice quiz questions and managing your time effectively during the free nremt paramedic practice test.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Primary Assessment and the ABCs -

    Master the airway, breathing, circulation (ABC) sequence from American Heart Association guidelines to quickly identify life threats. Use head-tilt - chin-lift or jaw-thrust maneuvers to open the airway, then assess breathing quality and circulation status. Practice these techniques in paramedic practice exams to sharpen your rapid-response skills.

  2. Cardiac Rhythms and ACLS Algorithms -

    Learn to recognize common arrhythmias like ventricular fibrillation or asystole on ECG strips and follow ACLS flowcharts from the American Heart Association. Memorize key steps such as "Shock, CPR, Shock, CPR" and the usage of epinephrine every 3 - 5 minutes. Testing yourself with nremt paramedic practice test free scenarios helps cement algorithm mastery under time pressure.

  3. Pharmacology Dose Calculations -

    Perfect weight-based drug dosing using the formula Dose (mg) = weight (kg) × mg/kg. For example, a 70 kg patient requiring 0.1 mg/kg of medication needs 7 mg total. Work through multiple paramedic practice quiz problems to reduce calculation errors in the field.

  4. Patient History Mnemonics: SAMPLE & OPQRST -

    Use SAMPLE (Signs/Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past history, Last oral intake, Events) and OPQRST (Onset, Provocation, Quality, Radiation, Severity, Time) to gather focused histories under pressure. These memory aids are endorsed by the National Association of EMS Physicians for structured assessments. Drill these mnemonics in free practice quizzes to ensure you never miss critical details.

  5. Shock Recognition and Fluid Resuscitation -

    Differentiate hypovolemic, cardiogenic, distributive, and obstructive shock using vital-sign patterns and clinical signs. Follow Advanced Trauma Life Support guidelines for isotonic fluid boluses (20 mL/kg) and reassess perfusion after each 500 mL. Regularly review these protocols in paramedic exam practice questions to solidify evidence-based treatment steps.

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