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Quizzes > Health & Medicine

EMT practice questions: Basic protocols quiz (15 questions)

Quick, free EMT quiz with instant results and answer feedback.

Editorial: Review CompletedCreated By: Channy TekUpdated Aug 23, 2025
Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art illustration for EMT basic protocol quiz on a golden yellow background

This quiz helps you practice EMT basic protocols with 15 realistic questions and instant feedback. Work through airway, cardiac, trauma, and operations scenarios to check your decisions and spot gaps before test day. For extra review, try the emt-b practice test, focus on a specific topic with the emt shock quiz, or build stamina with the module 4 EMT practice test.

In the primary assessment, what does the "D" stand for in "ABCDE"?
Breathing
Disability
Airway
Circulation
The "D" in the primary assessment mnemonic ABCDE stands for Disability, which involves a rapid neurological evaluation using tools like AVPU or GCS. It helps identify life-threatening neurological issues early. Assessing disability includes checking pupil size, motor response, and level of consciousness. .
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR with two rescuers?
30:1
15:2
15:1
30:2
Current guidelines recommend a compression-to-ventilation ratio of 30:2 for adult CPR when two rescuers are present. This ratio maximizes perfusion by delivering sufficient compressions before ventilations. Consistent ratios help simplify training and improve survival rates. .
At what rate should chest compressions be performed during adult CPR?
60 - 80 compressions per minute
100 - 120 compressions per minute
80 - 100 compressions per minute
120 - 140 compressions per minute
The recommended compression rate for adult CPR is 100 - 120 compressions per minute to maintain adequate cardiac output. Rates below 100 may reduce perfusion, while rates above 120 can compromise compression depth. Staying within this range optimizes blood flow. .
Which airway adjunct is indicated for a semiconscious patient with an intact gag reflex?
Endotracheal tube
Cricothyrotomy
Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)
An NPA is preferred in semiconscious patients who still have a gag reflex, as an OPA could induce vomiting or laryngospasm. The NPA is inserted through the nostril and keeps the airway open without triggering the gag reflex. Always lubricate before insertion for patient comfort. .
During primary assessment, a patient's radial pulse is absent but carotid is present. This most likely indicates:
Mild hypotension
Normal perfusion
Severe hypotension
Hypertension
Absence of a radial pulse with a present carotid pulse suggests a systolic blood pressure below approximately 80 - 90 mmHg, indicating significant hypotension. This finding guides the EMT to treat for shock and maintain perfusion. Rapid recognition can improve patient outcomes. .
You respond to a patient complaining of chest pain. What is the first medication you should consider if protocols allow?
Aspirin
Oxygen
Morphine
Nitroglycerin
Aspirin is given early in suspected myocardial ischemia to inhibit platelet aggregation and improve outcomes. It should be chewed unless contraindications exist. Protocols often prioritize aspirin before other interventions. .
Normal respiratory rate for an adult is:
12 - 20 breaths per minute
30 - 40 breaths per minute
6 - 8 breaths per minute
20 - 30 breaths per minute
Adults normally breathe 12 - 20 times per minute at rest. Rates below 12 indicate bradypnea, and above 20 suggest tachypnea. Monitoring rate helps assess respiratory compromise early. .
What is the recommended depth for chest compressions in an adult during CPR?
3 inches
1.5 - 2 inches
1 inch
At least 2 inches
Adult chest compressions should be at least 2 inches (5 cm) deep to ensure adequate cardiac output. Shallower compressions may not circulate enough blood, while deeper than 2.4 inches risks injury. Consistency in depth improves survival chances. .
A patient presents with unilateral facial droop, slurred speech, and arm drift. Which type of stroke assessment tool would you use?
OPQRST
SAMPLE
CHEST
CPSS (Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale)
The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale (CPSS) evaluates facial droop, arm drift, and speech abnormalities to identify potential stroke. It's quick and validated for prehospital use. Early stroke recognition expedites definitive care. .
You arrive at a scene where a patient is pulseless and apneic. After two minutes of CPR, what action is next?
Administer epinephrine
Give high-flow oxygen
Defibrillate if indicated
Check pulse again
After two minutes of CPR, guidelines call for rhythm analysis and defibrillation if a shockable rhythm is present. Prompt defibrillation improves survival in ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Continue CPR immediately after shock. .
What is the preferred site for pulse checking in an unresponsive adult?
Brachial artery
Radial artery
Femoral artery
Carotid artery
The carotid artery is the preferred site in unresponsive adults due to its accessibility and reliability. Peripheral pulses like radial may be absent in shock states. Always check one side at a time to avoid compromising blood flow. .
A patient with a known history of diabetes is confused and diaphoretic. Blood glucose reads 40 mg/dL. What is the best initial treatment?
IM glucagon
Oral glucose
IV normal saline
IV 50% dextrose (D50W)
In hypoglycemia with altered mental status, IV D50W raises blood glucose rapidly to restore cerebral function. If IV access is delayed, IM glucagon is an alternative. Oral glucose is contraindicated in patients unable to protect their airway. .
When immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury on a long board, you must:
Only secure the torso first
Secure the head last
Secure the torso then stabilize the head
Only secure the head
Proper spinal immobilization involves securing the torso to the board first and then applying a head immobilizer and straps. This sequence prevents unnecessary movement of the cervical spine. Incorrect order can exacerbate injury. .
An NPA size is determined by measuring from:
Angle of the jaw to the tragus
Corner of the mouth to the earlobe
Earlobe to nostril
Tip of the nose to the earlobe
An NPA is sized by measuring from the patient's nostril to the earlobe or angle of the jaw. This ensures the tube reaches the hypopharynx without entering the esophagus. Correct sizing reduces complications. .
During a seizure, the priority treatment is:
Restrain the patient
Administer intravenous diazepam
Check blood sugar only
Protect the airway and prevent injury
The primary goal during a seizure is to protect the patient from injury and maintain a patent airway without aggressive restraint. Restraint can cause additional harm. If protocols allow, check blood glucose after the seizure. .
What kind of burn involves the epidermis and part of the dermis with blister formation?
Third-degree burn
First-degree burn
Second-degree burn
Fourth-degree burn
A second-degree (partial-thickness) burn involves the epidermis and part of the dermis, often causing blisters, pain, and redness. First-degree burns affect only the epidermis. Third- and fourth-degree burns involve deeper tissues. .
A patient exhibits hypotension, jugular venous distention, and muffled heart sounds. What condition does this triad describe?
Myocardial infarction
Cardiac tamponade
Tension pneumothorax
Aortic dissection
Beck's triad of hypotension, jugular venous distention, and muffled heart sounds is classic for cardiac tamponade. Fluid accumulation in the pericardial sac impairs ventricular filling. Rapid recognition and pericardiocentesis are critical. .
You have a conscious patient who is short of breath and wheezing. You should:
Immediately intubate
Administer naloxone
Assist with their prescribed inhaler
Provide high-flow oxygen only
In a conscious wheezing patient with prescribed inhalers, assisting with their bronchodilator (e.g., albuterol) is the next step. Intubation is reserved for deteriorating patients. Oxygen may be given, but bronchodilator therapy addresses bronchospasm. .
A GCS score for a patient who opens eyes to pain (2), withdraws from pain (4), and mumbles incoherently (3) equals?
8
7
6
9
The Glasgow Coma Scale is summed by eye (2), motor (4), and verbal (3) responses, totaling 9. A score of 8 or below indicates severe brain injury and need for airway protection. Accurate GCS scoring guides management. .
Which of the following is a sign of decompensated shock?
Thirst
Falling blood pressure
Anxiety
Tachycardia
In decompensated shock, compensatory mechanisms fail and blood pressure begins to fall. Early signs like tachycardia and anxiety characterize compensated shock. Recognition of hypotension warrants aggressive management. .
During pregnancy, supine hypotensive syndrome is caused by:
Blood loss
Increased blood volume
Uterine rupture
Aortocaval compression
Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when the gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava in the supine position, reducing venous return and cardiac output. Patients may become dizzy or hypotensive. Positioning on the left side alleviates compression. .
Indication for administering naloxone in the field is:
Tachycardia
Deep breathing with dilated pupils
Shallow breathing with pinpoint pupils
Hypotension only
Naloxone is indicated in suspected opioid overdose where respiratory depression (shallow or bradypnea) and pinpoint pupils are present. It reverses opioid effects and restores adequate breathing. Monitor for withdrawal and repeat dosing as needed. .
How many milliliters per kilogram of isotonic fluid is recommended for initial pediatric shock resuscitation?
20 mL/kg
30 mL/kg
40 mL/kg
10 mL/kg
The recommended initial bolus for pediatric shock is 20 mL/kg of isotonic crystalloid (e.g., normal saline) to restore perfusion. Repeat boluses may be given based on response. Careful monitoring prevents fluid overload. .
On a 12-lead ECG, ST segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF indicates infarction in which area of the heart?
Lateral wall
Anterior wall
Septal wall
Inferior wall
Leads II, III, and aVF view the inferior surface of the heart supplied by the right coronary artery in most patients. ST elevation here indicates inferior wall myocardial infarction. Prompt recognition directs catheterization lab activation. .
A patient on a CPAP machine shows worsening respiratory distress and altered mental status. Your next step is:
Increase CPAP pressure
Discontinue CPAP and assist ventilations
Decrease CPAP pressure
Intubate immediately
If a patient on CPAP deteriorates with altered mental status, airway protection is compromised. Discontinue CPAP and provide assisted ventilations with a bag-valve mask or advanced airway. Continuing CPAP may worsen hypoventilation. .
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Study Outcomes

  1. Understand EMT Basic Protocols -

    Readers will grasp key steps and guidelines of EMT basic care, including airway management, vital signs assessment, and emergency scene safety.

  2. Analyze Triage Decision-Making -

    Readers will learn to prioritize patients accurately in mass-casualty scenarios by applying established triage principles.

  3. Apply CPR Directives -

    Readers will recall and execute correct compression rates, depths, and ventilation methods according to current CPR guidelines.

  4. Differentiate Types of Patient Consent -

    Readers will distinguish between expressed, implied, and informed consent and understand when each applies during emergency care.

  5. Recognize EMT Scope of Practice -

    Readers will identify interventions permitted for EMTs, such as oxygen administration, bleeding control, and splinting.

  6. Identify Strengths and Study Areas -

    Readers will review their quiz performance to pinpoint mastered topics and areas needing further review before the certification exam.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Systematic Primary Survey (DRABCDE) -

    Memorize the DRABCDE approach - Danger, Response, Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Expose/Environment - to ensure no critical step is missed in your initial assessment, whether you're tackling sample EMT test questions or working a real call. For example, immediately clear the airway (A) before assessing breathing (B) and start high”quality CPR if needed. Regular practice on manikins reinforces muscle memory and speed under pressure.

  2. Efficient Triage with START -

    Use the Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START) method - Respirations (>30/min), Perfusion (radial pulse or capillary refill >2 s), and Mental status (can follow commands) - to tag patients in under 20 seconds during your EMT basic practice test simulations. Practice the "RPM" mnemonic to recall these vital checks quickly. This standardized system boosts your speed and accuracy in mass”casualty scenarios.

  3. High”Quality CPR Techniques -

    AHA guidelines emphasize 2 - 2.4 inches of compression depth at a rate of 100 - 120 compressions per minute with complete recoil between compressions. Remember the "Stayin' Alive" beat to maintain consistent rhythm, and switch providers every 2 minutes to prevent fatigue. Hands”only CPR training sessions help you perfect technique and confidence for EMT testing questions and practical evaluations.

  4. Mastering Patient Consent -

    Understand the difference between expressed, implied, and informed consent to uphold patient autonomy and legal standards. For instance, treat unresponsive adults under implied consent, but always seek explicit permission from conscious, competent patients. Reviewing local protocol nuances ensures you're prepared for both your EMT quiz scenarios and field assessments.

  5. Recognizing and Managing Shock -

    Identify shock early by looking for tachycardia, hypotension, pale skin, and altered mental status, then classify it (hypovolemic, distributive, cardiogenic) to guide treatment. Apply high”flow oxygen, control bleeding, and position the patient supine with feet elevated to improve perfusion. A quick refresher on the Parkland formula (4 mL/kg × %TBSA) can also reinforce fluid management for burn”induced hypovolemia - a key topic on many EMT basic practice tests.

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