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Quizzes > Health & Medicine > Human Anatomy & Medicine

Master the Fundamentals of Nursing Test 1 Quiz

Ready to ace the fundamentals of nursing exam questions? Dive in and challenge yourself!

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art illustration for nursing fundamentals quiz on a coral background

This Fundamentals of Nursing Test 1 quiz helps you practice core concepts and common exam items, so you can spot gaps before the test. Work through realistic questions, then use our quick review quiz or try the NCLEX prep quiz to strengthen weak areas.

Which vital sign represents the number of heartbeats per minute?
Temperature
Respiratory rate
Pulse
Blood pressure
Pulse is the measure of heartbeats per minute, reflecting cardiac output and rhythm. Accurate assessment aids in detecting arrhythmias or hemodynamic instability. Blood pressure reflects force of blood against vessel walls, temperature measures body heat, and respiratory rate is breaths per minute.
What is the normal adult range for respiratory rate per minute?
12 - 20 breaths
30 - 40 breaths
8 - 12 breaths
20 - 30 breaths
An adult's normal respiratory rate is 12 - 20 breaths per minute. Rates below or above this range may indicate respiratory depression or distress. Consistent monitoring helps detect early complications.
When performing hand hygiene, how long should you rub your hands with alcohol-based rub?
20 seconds
30 seconds
5 seconds
10 seconds
Hand hygiene with alcohol-based rub requires 20 - 30 seconds of friction to ensure proper germ reduction. Shorter times may not eliminate pathogens effectively. Proper technique reduces healthcare-associated infections.
Which part of the nursing process involves identifying health strengths and problems?
Assessment
Implementation
Planning
Evaluation
Assessment is the first step where data about the client's health status is collected and analyzed to identify needs. Planning follows assessment to set goals. Implementation carries out interventions, and evaluation measures outcomes.
What is the minimal recommended daily fluid intake for an average adult?
2000 mL
1000 mL
1500 mL
500 mL
About 2000 - 2500 mL of fluid intake daily maintains fluid balance in an average adult. Insufficient intake can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Intake includes oral fluids and food moisture.
Which isolation precaution is required for a patient with Clostridioides difficile infection?
Airborne precautions
Standard precautions only
Droplet precautions
Contact precautions
Contact precautions are necessary for C. difficile to prevent spore transmission via surfaces or hands. Gloves and gown use and dedicated equipment reduce spread. Airborne and droplet precautions are for respiratory pathogens.
Which term describes the state of equilibrium when water intake equals water output?
Fluid balance
Edema
Dehydration
Fluid overload
Fluid balance means intake matches output, maintaining homeostasis. Imbalance leads to dehydration or fluid overload. Nurses monitor I&O to detect deviations early.
What is the normal urine output per hour for an adult patient?
30 - 50 mL
100 - 120 mL
10 - 20 mL
60 - 80 mL
Normal adult urine output is 30 - 50 mL per hour, reflecting adequate renal perfusion. Less may indicate hypovolemia or renal impairment. Monitoring output is critical in fluid management.
Which action should a nurse take first when finding a patient unresponsive and not breathing?
Obtain a bag-valve mask
Give two rescue breaths only
Call for help and begin CPR
Check the patient's chart
CAB sequence prioritizes Circulation and Airway; calling for help and starting chest compressions immediately improves survival. Chart review delays critical intervention. Full CPR includes compressions and breaths.
What does the 'R' in the SBAR communication tool stand for?
Resolution
Response
Report
Recommendation
In SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation), 'Recommendation' conveys proposed actions. It standardizes communication to reduce errors. 'Response' and others are incorrect expansions.
Which of the following best describes objective data in patient assessment?
Patient's statement of pain level
Observation of skin color
Expression of worry
Report of anxiety
Objective data are observable and measurable facts like skin color or vital signs. Subjective data are patient's reported feelings or perceptions. Accurate data classification guides appropriate care.
A nurse is delegating tasks to a nursing assistant. Which task is appropriate to delegate?
Developing nursing care plan
Initial patient assessment
Measuring and recording intake and output
Administering oral medications
Measuring and recording I&O is a noninvasive task within an assistant's scope. Assessments, medication administration, and care planning require nursing judgment. Delegation follows the Five Rights.
Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with prolonged nasogastric suctioning?
Metabolic alkalosis
Hypochloremia
Metabolic acidosis
Hyperkalemia
Loss of gastric acid from prolonged suctioning leads to metabolic alkalosis. Chloride and hydrogen ions are removed, raising bicarbonate levels. Hypokalemia also may occur but alkalosis is hallmark.
Which nonverbal cue indicates a patient might be in pain?
Guarding a body part
Smiling frequently
Relaxed posture
Maintaining eye contact
Guarding or protecting a body part suggests discomfort or pain at that site. Relaxed posture typically indicates comfort. Nonverbal cues complement verbal pain reports.
Which phase of wound healing involves new tissue formation and collagen deposition?
Maturation
Proliferative
Inflammatory
Hemostasis
The proliferative phase (days 3 - 21) features angiogenesis, collagen deposition, granulation tissue formation, and wound contraction. Hemostasis stops bleeding; inflammation removes debris; maturation remodels collagen.
A patient's arterial blood gas shows pH 7.30, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, HCO3 - 24 mEq/L. What is the primary acid-base disturbance?
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory acidosis
A low pH with elevated PaCO2 indicates respiratory acidosis due to CO2 retention. Bicarbonate is normal, indicating primary respiratory disturbance. Compensation would raise HCO3 - over time.
When administering an IM injection, which angle and needle length are most appropriate for an adult?
15-degree angle, 0.5 inch needle
90-degree angle, 1 - 1.5 inch needle
45-degree angle, 1 inch needle
60-degree angle, 2 inch needle
IM injections require a 90° angle to penetrate muscle, using 1 - 1.5 inch needles for adults. Other angles deliver subcutaneous or intradermal injections. Proper technique ensures medication efficacy.
Which acid-base imbalance is seen in severe vomiting?
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Loss of gastric acid through vomiting causes metabolic alkalosis due to hydrogen ion depletion. Compensation may include hypoventilation. Vomiting does not cause respiratory disturbances directly.
Which documentation principle ensures that entries cannot be altered or erased?
Completeness
Confidentiality
Permanence
Accuracy
Permanence ensures records remain intact and unaltered, usually via electronic or permanently inked entries. Confidentiality protects privacy; accuracy focuses on correctness; completeness covers full documentation.
A patient's ABG shows pH 7.50, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, HCO3 - 24 mEq/L. What is the primary disturbance?
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Elevated pH with low PaCO2 indicates respiratory alkalosis from hyperventilation. Normal HCO3 - shows primary respiratory origin. Compensation would decrease bicarbonate kidneys over time.
Which nursing intervention is priority for a patient with risk of deep vein thrombosis?
Apply sequential compression devices
Administer high-protein diet
Encourage bed rest
Restrict fluid intake
Sequential compression devices promote venous return and prevent clot formation. Early ambulation also helps. Bed rest and fluid restriction increase thrombosis risk. Diet does not directly affect DVT prevention.
Which condition is characterized by hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state rather than ketoacidosis?
Latent autoimmune diabetes
Gestational diabetes
Type 2 diabetes
Type 1 diabetes
Type 2 diabetics can develop hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) with extreme hyperglycemia and dehydration but little ketone production. Type 1 typically leads to diabetic ketoacidosis.
Which measure best reduces ventilator-associated pneumonia?
Bed flat positioning
Twice-daily oral sugar rinses
Daily sedation vacations and weaning trials
Routine deep tracheal suctioning
Daily sedation interruption and weaning reduce ventilator days and pneumonia risk. Elevating head of bed and oral care are also recommended. Flat positioning increases aspiration risk.
A patient with congestive heart failure reports sudden weight gain of 3 pounds in one day. What does this indicate?
Fluid retention exacerbation
Improved nutrition
Bone density increase
Muscle mass gain
Rapid weight gain in CHF suggests fluid overload and possible decompensation. Nurses should assess for edema, breath sounds, and adjust diuretics. Muscle or bone changes occur over weeks or months.
Which lab value indicates a patient on warfarin has reached a therapeutic INR for atrial fibrillation?
INR 2.5
INR 4.0
INR 1.5
INR 0.8
A therapeutic INR for atrial fibrillation is 2.0 - 3.0; 2.5 falls within range. Values below risk clotting, above risk bleeding. Monitoring guides warfarin dosing.
When caring for a patient in diabetic ketoacidosis, which lab finding is expected?
Elevated PaCO2
Elevated pH
Elevated ketones
Elevated bicarbonate
In DKA, ketone bodies accumulate causing metabolic acidosis with decreased bicarbonate and pH, and elevated ketones in blood and urine. Respiratory compensation lowers PaCO2.
Which strategy best prevents medication errors when administering high-risk drugs?
Relying on memory for dosage calculations
Skipping double-checking for efficiency
Using two patient identifiers and barcode scanning
Administering based on verbal orders only
Two patient identifiers plus bar-code verification ensures the right patient receives the right medication. Verbal orders and memory reliance increase error risks. Double-checking is critical for high-risk drugs.
Which finding is most concerning in a post-op patient receiving PCA morphine?
Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg
Respiratory rate 8 breaths per minute
Pain rating of 3/10
Sedation score of 2 (slightly drowsy)
A respiratory rate below 10 is concerning for opioid-induced respiratory depression, requiring intervention. Pain rating and stable vitals are expected under PCA. Sedation score must be monitored but slight drowsiness is acceptable.
A patient in septic shock exhibits lactic acidosis. Which hemodynamic change best explains this condition?
Reduced anaerobic metabolism
Increased tissue perfusion
Decreased oxygen utilization at cellular level
Elevated arterial oxygen content
In septic shock, impaired cellular oxygen utilization leads to anaerobic metabolism and lactic acid build-up. Despite adequate perfusion, cells cannot extract oxygen effectively. This differs from hypovolemic shock where perfusion itself is low.
In a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), which ventilator setting adjustment improves oxygenation most directly?
Increase tidal volume significantly
Remove humidification
Decrease respiratory rate
Increase positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
Increasing PEEP prevents alveolar collapse at end-expiration, improving oxygenation in ARDS. Large tidal volumes can cause barotrauma. Respiratory rate and humidification have less direct impact on oxygenation.
During a rapid response for a code blue, what is the optimal compression-to-ventilation ratio for a single rescuer adult CPR?
5:1
50:1
30:2
15:2
Current guidelines recommend 30 compressions to 2 breaths for single-rescuer adult CPR to maximize perfusion while ensuring ventilation. Ratios of 15:2 are for two rescuers in pediatric CPR.
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Study Outcomes

  1. Assess Core Nursing Concepts -

    Evaluate your understanding of fundamental of nursing practice questions by responding to a variety of topics such as patient safety, infection control, and therapeutic communication.

  2. Apply Critical Thinking Skills -

    Tackle fundamentals of nursing exam questions with effective strategies that help you select the best interventions and prioritize patient care.

  3. Analyze Exam Question Formats -

    Familiarize yourself with the structure and style of fundamentals of nursing exam 1 practice questions to build confidence and accuracy under timed conditions.

  4. Identify Knowledge Gaps -

    Pinpoint specific areas for improvement by reviewing detailed feedback on your performance, helping you focus your study efforts before the big test.

  5. Track Readiness Progress -

    Use your quiz score to measure progress, set study goals, and monitor improvements in your mastery of fundamental of nursing exam questions.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Nursing Process Mnemonic (ADPIE) -

    The nursing process follows five systematic steps: Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation. Use the ADPIE mnemonic to ensure you cover each phase when answering fundamentals of nursing test 1 questions. This structured approach promotes critical thinking and individualized patient care (American Nurses Association).

  2. Dosage Calculation Formula (D/H × Q) -

    Accurate medication dosing relies on the formula Desired dose (D) divided by dose on hand (H) times quantity (Q). On fundamentals of nursing exam 1 practice questions, this D/H × Q method is frequently tested - e.g., 500 mg ordered, 250 mg tablets available: (500/250)×1 tablet = 2 tablets. Mastering this ensures safe medication administration (University of California School of Nursing).

  3. Infection Control: Standard Precautions -

    Follow CDC guidelines for donning PPE in the order: Gown, Mask, Goggles, Gloves, and reverse for removal. A handy mnemonic is "G Me Gloves" to recall the correct sequence and minimize contamination. Always perform hand hygiene for at least 20 seconds before and after patient contact (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention).

  4. Vital Signs and Normal Ranges -

    Memorize key ranges: Temperature 36 - 38 °C, Pulse 60 - 100 bpm, Respirations 12 - 20/min, Blood Pressure 90/60 - 120/80 mmHg. Use the acronym "TPR BP" to quickly recall order and values. Trending changes help detect early deterioration in patient status (National Institutes of Health).

  5. SBAR Communication Framework -

    Use Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation to structure handoffs and clarify information. For example, "S: Pt febrile at 38.5 °C; B: Post-op day 2; A: Wound redness noted; R: Recommend antibiotic order." This concise format reduces errors and enhances interdisciplinary teamwork (Joint Commission).

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