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Master Your IT Knowledge

Test your expertise in IT and virtualization concepts with our comprehensive quiz. Perfect for IT professionals and students alike, this quiz will challenge your understanding of key technologies and practices.

  • 85 challenging questions
  • Covers topics from Hyper-V to Active Directory
  • Ideal for self-assessment and certification preparation
85 Questions21 MinutesCreated by ConfiguringServer42
Servers that exist within a data center that is publicly accessible on the Internet are referred to as on-premises servers.
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Which of the following are hardware requirements for Hyper-V?
64GB of memory
b. Two network interfaces
c. Processor with Intel VT or AMD-V and SLAT
d. A 32-bit or 64-bit processor
Containers are often used to host Web apps within cloud environments.
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What term is used to refer to a logical grouping of computers that participate in Active Directory single sign-on?
a. Group Policy
b. Domain
c. Domain controller
d. Azure Active Directory
Which Hyper-V feature allows you to install a virtual machine within another virtual machine?
A. Nested virtualization
b. SLAT
c. Checkpoints
d. Hyper-V containers
Server Manager can be used to monitor and manage other Windows Server 2008 and later systems.
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Which of the following are panes that you will see listed for a server, server group, or server role within Server Manager?
A. Services
Events
. Roles and Features
d. Performance
Which of the following tools within the navigation pane of the Windows Admin Center can be used to perform capacity planning?
a. Performance
b. Services
c. System Insights
d. Azure hybrid services
The Windows Admin Center allows you to obtain a Windows PowerShell session within your Web browser
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Which of the following utilities can be used to manually install a new device that is not fully PnP-compliant?
a. Windows PowerShell
b. Device Manager
c. Devices and Printers utility
d. Server Manager
Virtual machine settings are stored within a .vhdx file.
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Which of the following commands may be used to start Hyper-V Manager?
A. hyperv
B. hyper-v
c. virtmgmt.msc
d. new-virtconsole
To which of the following virtual switches can a host operating system connect? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Internal
b. External
C. Public
D. Private
The physical network interface used by an external virtual switch is not configured using IP. Instead, it uses the Hyper-V Extensible Virtual Switch protocol to allow virtual network interfaces attached to the external virtual switch to use the physical network interface.
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Which of the following operating systems are supported for use within a Generation 2 virtual machine? (Choose all that apply.)
a. 32-bit versions of Windows 7
b. 64-bit versions of Windows Server 2008
c. Ubuntu 14.04
d. FreeBSD 9.1
Domain controllers store local user accounts within a SAM database and domain user accounts within Active Directory.
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Which of the following occurs when you join a computer to an Active Directory domain? (Choose all that apply.)
a. The Domain Users group is added to the local Users group
b. A computer account is created within Active Directory, if one has not been prestaged
c. The Domain Admins group is added to the local Administrators group
d. The SAM database is replaced by the Active Directory database
Ou can use the Install-ADDSDomain cmdlet within Windows PowerShell to configure a new forest root domain.
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Hich of the following trust relationships can be created between two domains in separate Active Directory forests?
a. Forest trust
b. Shortcut trust
c. Realm trust
d. External trusts
Which of the following group scopes can contain objects from any domain within the forest? (Choose all that apply.)
Global
B. Domain local
C. Distribution
D. Universal
Which of the following occurs when you encrypt a file using EFS within a domain environment? (Choose all that apply.)
A. An asymmetric private key is generated and used to encrypt the file contents
B. A copy of the symmetric encryption key is stored within the file metadata and asymmetrically encrypted with your public key
C. A symmetric encryption key is generated and used to encrypt the file contents
D. A copy of the symmetric encryption key is stored within the file metadata and asymmetrically encrypted with recovery agent's public key
Only the NTFS filesystem supports all of the basic and advanced attributes for folders and files.
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Which of the following can be used to set the compress attribute for an NTFS file? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Set-ItemProperty
B. cipher.exe
C. compress.exe
D. compact.exe
Which of the following basic NTFS/ReFS permissions allows you to delete a file? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Full control
B. Modify
C. Write
D. Read and execute
You wish to grant a specific user the ability to view the read-only attribute on files within a particular folder on the system, but do not wish to grant any other access. What advanced permission should you assign to this user?
a. Traverse folder/execute file
b. Read attributes
c. Read extended attributes
d. Read permissions
Windows 10 PCs can be configured to print directly to a network-attached print device, or to a shared printer on print server that prints directly to a network-attached print device.
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Which of the following spooling formats can be used by the GDI print API? (Choose all that apply.)
A. EMF
B. XPS
C. RAW
D. TEXT
Documents are rendered into print jobs on the print client by default.
a. True
b. False
Which of the following formats can be used to print to a shared printer using IPP?
a. servername:\sharedprintername
b. servername:/sharedprintername
c. \\servername\sharedprintername
d. http://servername/printers/sharedprintername/.printer
Which of the following features must you install on a Windows print client in order to print to a shared printer using SMB?
a. Internet Printing Client
b. LPR Port Monitor
c. SMB Printer Client
d. None of the above
Which of the following RAID volume types provide fault tolerance in the event of a single storage device failure? (Choose all that apply.)
A. striping
B. Striping with parity
C. mirroring
D. JBOD
On systems that have a UEFI BIOS, the UEFI system partition is the boot partition.
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Which of the following are reasons for creating multiple volumes on a single storage device? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Allow for the use of more than one type of filesystem
B. Reduce the chance that filesystem corruption will render all data on the storage device unusable
C. Segregate different types of data
D. Speed up access to stored data by keeping filesystems as small as possible
When initializing a new storage device that has a capacity larger than 2 TB, you must use a GPT instead of an MBR.
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You wish to create a RAID level 5 volume using the Disk Management tool. How many storage devices can you use in the volume?
3
7
32
NO LIMIT
Which of the following represents the maximum amount of time that a DNS server or resolver is allowed to cache the result of a forward lookup?
a. Zone transfer
b. TTL
c. Root hints
d. PTR
Windows computers contact their DNS server at boot time to create or update their host resource records. This feature is called zone transfer.
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Which of the following are authoritative DNS server types? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Primary
B. Active Directory-integrated primary
C. Secondary
D. Caching-only
If a DNS server does not contain a zone file that contains the resource records for a lookup, and is not configured as a conditional or default forwarder, it will use its root hints file to perform a recursive query.
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Which resource record stores zone transfer settings?
NS
b. PTR
c. A
d. SOA
You wish to provide access to Web resources in another organization. However, the associated A records for these resources are stored in a zone file on a DNS server in the other organization that is not publicly registered. What can you configure on your organization's DNS server to allow access to these resources? (Choose all that apply.)
A. A stub zone that forwards requests to the other organization's DNS server
B. A conditional forwarder that forwards requests to the other organization's DNS server
C. A primary zone that copies resource records from the zone on the other organization's DNS server
D. A secondary zone that copies resource records from the zone on the other organization's DNS server
Scavenging can be configured to remove stale resource records that were added to a zone using dynamic update.
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A user complains that they are unable to contact a specific server in your organization. You remember that you recently modified the A record for this server on your organization's Active Directory-integrated DNS server. Which troubleshooting step should you try first to remedy the issue?
a. Clear the DNS cache on the DNS server
b. Clear the DNS cache on the user's computer
c. Run the nslookup command on the user's computer
d. Restart the DNS Server service
Which two resource records can you create in a zone to provide the FQDN of an email server for the zone, as well as associate this FQDN with an IPv6 address? (Choose two answers.)
A. MX
B. A
C. CNAME
D. AAAA
Which of the following are valid reasons to deploy a WINS server? (Choose all that apply.)
A. To reduce NetBIOS name broadcasts on LANs in an organization
B. To allow computers in one LAN to resolve NetBIOS names in another LAN
C. To resolve NetBIOS names to IPv6 addresses
D. To provide legacy Windows clients access to an Active Directory domain
Which of the following is not considered a remote access technology?
a. DirectAccess
b. L2TP
c. PPPoE
d. Remote Desktop
Split tunneling is used to ensure that all network traffic generated by a remote access client passes through a VPN to a remote access server.
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Which of the following VPN protocols uses IPSec to encrypt network traffic? (Choose all that apply.)
IKEv2
PPTP
C. SSTP
D. L2TP
What can you configure on a router to protect traffic destined for another network in the organization as it passes over the Internet?
a. Port forwarding
b. Demand-dial interface
c. Reverse proxy
d. DirectAccess
The Remote Access role service in Windows Server 2019 provides for DirectAccess and VPN remote access, as well as RADIUS.
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You have configured a remote access server in your DMZ for IKEv2 VPN access. Which ports on your NAT router must you configure for port forwarding to this remote access server? (Choose all that apply.)
A. TCP port 1723
B. TCP port 1701
C. UDP port 500
D. UDP port 4500
Which of the following VPN authentication methods is considered the most secure?
EAP
CHAP
c. MS-CHAPv2
d. PAP
Remote access servers can be configured as RADIUS clients
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What features does RADIUS provide for remote access connections?
A. Centralized logging
B. Remote access policies
C. Centralized authentication
D. Centralized encryption
The user permission necessary for VPN remote access can be granted in the properties of a user account or remote access policy.
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Which of the following cloud delivery models uses containers exclusively to run Web apps?
a. SaaS
PaaS
c. IaaS
d. XaaS
Websites on a Web server provide the front end for most Web apps.
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In a continuous deployment scenario, which software creates a container or virtual machine on a cloud server to test the functionality of a new Web app version?
a. Orchestration
b. Code repository
c. Workflow
d. Build automation
Block storage is a cheaper alternative to object storage on public cloud providers.
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To which of the following groups should you assign NTFS/ReFS permissions for Web app content in order to provide anonymous user access?
IUSRS
NET_USRS
IIS_IUSRS
d. WWWUSRS
What must you configure in IIS Manager to allow users to access a help desk ticketing system Web app using the URL https://www.sample.com/helpdesk? (Choose all that apply.)
A. A helpdesk virtual directory
B. Request filtering
C. An HTTPS protocol binding
D. The WebSocket protocol
Which of the following IIS configuration features is used to specify the default webpage or Web app file that a client views?
a. Directory Browsing
b. Handler Mappings
c. Request Filtering
d. Default Document
The docker command is also called the Docker daemon.
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Which docker command displays container images available on Docker Hub?
a. Docker images
b. Docker container images
c. Docker search
d. Docker pull
Nano Server containers must be run as a Hyper-V container on Windows Server 2019.
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Group Policy settings apply to which of the following objects? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Users
B. Computers
Groups
D. OUs
There are no GPOs created in an Active Directory domain by default.
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You have created a new Group Policy Object (GPO). To which of the following objects can this GPO be linked? (Choose all that apply.)
A. OU
B. Group
C. Site
D. Domain
Group Policy preferences can be used to configure Windows features, but are only interpreted by Windows 7, Windows Server 2008, and later computers by default.
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You wish to configure a GPO that allows users in your organization to install a package using the Programs and Features section of Control Panel. Which software deployment method should you choose when configuring the Software Settings section of a GPO?
a. Publish the software in the User Configuration
b. Assign the software in the User Configuration
c. Publish the software in the Computer Configuration
d. Assign the software in the Computer Configuration
Which section of a GPO contains the most security-related settings for the Windows operating system?
a. User Configuration, Windows Settings
b. Computer Configuration, Windows Settings
c. User Configuration, Administrative Templates
d. Computer Configuration, Administrative Templates
You can import administrative template files into a GPO to allow Group Policy to configure third-party software settings.
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Which of the following is not included in a certificate?
a. Public key
b. Private key
c. Digital signature
d. CRL location
Which term refers to the process whereby a user or computer obtains a certificate from a CA?
a. PKI
Enrollment
c. revocation
d. hashing
Group Policy can be configured to auto-enroll certificates for users and computers based on the permissions in a certificate template on an enterprise CA.
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On which part of the maintenance cycle do server administrators spend the most time?
a. Monitoring
b. Proactive maintenance
c. Reactive maintenance
d. Documentation
Many organizations store system documentation in help desk ticketing software.
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Which of the following steps is not a common troubleshooting procedure?
a. Test possible solutions
b. Isolate the problem
c. Delegate responsibility
d. Collect information
A baseline is a set of performance information for a system during normal times of operation.
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Which of the following can be easily identified on the Processes tab of Task Manager? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Rogue processes
B. The number of bytes a process is sending to and from the network
C. The files that a process is using
D. Memory leaks
Committed memory refers to the memory that is used by the Windows kernel and device drivers.
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Which task should you perform in Task Manager before stopping a problematic process for a program that was created by your organization?
a. Right-click the process and click Create dump file
b. Right-click the process and click Search online
c. Right-click the process and click Analyze wait chain
d. Right-click the process and click UAC virtualization
Resource Monitor allows you to identify the storage devices and files that a single process is accessing.
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Which of the following components represents a specific hardware device or software component that can be monitored?
a. Performance object
b. Performance alert
c. Performance counter
d. Instance
Which of the following performance counters can be used to identify jabbering hardware?
a. Pages/sec
b. % Interrrupt Time
c. Committed Bytes
d. Bytes Total/sec
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