Bio exam 3a
Bio Exam 3A Quiz
Test your knowledge on cellular biology with our comprehensive Bio Exam 3A quiz! This quiz covers essential topics in mitosis, genetics, apoptosis, and cellular fun
Features of the quiz:
- 61 challenging questions
- Multiple choice format
- Immediate feedback on answers
Which of the following is NOT true concerning mitosis?
A. Plant cells lack centrioles while animal cells do not.
B. Both plant and animal cells undergo cytokinesis.
C. Mitosis allows growth and increase in size in both plants and animals.
D. Animal cells form a cell plate during cytokinesis while plant cells do not.
2. Cancer cells require many nutrients, which are supplied by blood vessels. The growth of new blood vessels to cancerous tissue is called:
A. angiogenesis
B. metastasis
C. carcinogenesis
D. apotosis
3. Apoptosis
A. Is programmed cell death.
B. Is a process that acts to decrease the number of somatic cells.
C. Frees the fingers and toes of the human embryo from their ‘webbed' structure to independent structures.
D. All of the choices are correct.
4. The region that contains the genetic information in a bacterial cell is called the
A. nucleus.
B. nucleoid.
C. nucleolus.
D. nucleosome.
E. nucleoprotein.
Virtually all specialized cells of multicellular organisms
A. Develop through mutation from less specialized cells of the organism.
B. Contain more genetic material than less specialized cells of the same organism.
C. Contain less genetic material than less specialized cells of the same organism.
D. Have the same amount of DNA and the same number of chromosomes as all other cells of the organism and develop from the same basic stem cells.
If a parent cell has 48 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will each daughter cell have after mitosis and cytokinesis occurs?
A. 24 chromosomes
B. 48 chromosomes
C. 12 chromosomes
D. 96 chromosomes
Interphase:
A. Occupies the majority of the cell cycle
B. includes G1, S and G2 stages
C. Results in an increase in cell size
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Eukaryotic chromosomes
A. Consist of both DNA and protein.
B. May occur as chromatin.
C. Contain histones responsible for packaging DNA to fit into a small space.
D. All of the choices are correct.
The enzymes that bring about apoptosis are called caspases.
True
False
The enzymes that bring about apoptosis are ordinarily held in check by inhibitors.
True
False
The enzymes that bring about apoptosis can be unleashed by internal or external signals.
True
False
The enzymes that bring about apoptosis are only present in the cell immediately before apoptosis begins.
True
False
Generally, animals build an organism using the diploid number of chromosomes. However, insects in the order of ants, wasps and bees can use a haploid-diploid system where adults of one sex are formed with a haploid number of chromosomes. This would mean that
A. A single set of chromosomes is sufficient to code for a functional individual.
B. A female could determine the sex of the offspring by fertilizing or not fertilizing an egg.
C. The males and females are not equally "related" to their mothers considering the proportion of genes held in common.
D. All of the choices are true.
E. This system in no way differs from regular diploid organisms.
What is the result of a cell not meeting the criteria to pass the G1 checkpoint?
A. The cell cycle halts.
B. The cell may enter the G0 stage.
C. The cell may undergo apoptosis.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
Which is NOT true about the chromosomes of a multicellular organism?
A. They are made up of DNA and protein.
B. Each chromosome is replicated into two chromatids during the S phase of interphase.
C. Each chromosome separates into two daughter chromosomes by binary fission.
D. All cells contain chromosomes that carry the same genetic information.
The function of mitosis is:
A. Growth of the organism and tissue repair.
B. To ensure that each new cell receives a complete set of genetic information.
C. Asexual reproduction in some species.
D. All of the choices are correct.
Which statement is NOT true about eukaryotic chromosomes?
A. There is only one chromosome of each type in each body cell.
B. Chromosomes contain both DNA and associated histones.
C. Chromosomes condense from chromatin at the start of mitosis.
D. Chromosomes disperse back into chromatin at the end of mitosis.
E. Chromosomes are not located within the nuclear envelope during mitosis.
What structure will code for the proteins that will promote the normal cell cycle and prevent apoptosis?
A. Tumor suppressor genes
B. Oncogenes
C. Caspases
D. Proto-oncogenes
The diploid (2n) number of chromosomes for a human being is
A. 23.
B. 24.
C. 44.
D. 46.
E. 48.
The haploid (n) number of chromosomes for a human being is
A. 23.
B. 24.
C. 44.
D. 46.
E. 48.
Which statement is NOT true about mitosis?
A. Mitosis is a process that duplicates and divides the nuclear contents only.
B. Mitosis produces two daughter cells that contain the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
C. Mitosis produces two daughter cells that contain the same kinds of chromosomes as the parent cell.
D. Mitosis uses a diploid (2n) parent cell to form daughter cells containing a haploid number(n) of chromosomes.
E. Mitosis is involved in development of a fertilized egg into a multicellular organism.
Which represents the correct sequence of stages in the cell cycle?
A. G1, G2, S, M
B. G1, G2, M, S
C. G1, M, G2, S
D. G1, S, G2, M
Below the skin are "stem cells" that divide, with some cells continuing the stem cell line and others being pushed toward the surface to flatten and die and be sloughed off. In the bone marrow other stem cells produce erythrocytes that lose their nucleus and function for a few months in the bloodstream before they too die. Such "dead end" cells that reproduce no further
A. Leave the cell cycle in a G0 phase, which immediately follows telophase.
B. Leave the cell cycle in a G3 phase, which immediately follows G2.
C. Halt in the midst of the S phase.
D. Continually cycle but simply fail to go through cytokinesis.
E. Reverse from G2 to G1.
What factors are evaluated before a cell is allowed to proceed through the G1 checkpoint?
A. Growth signals
B. Availability of nutrients
C. The integrity of cellular DNA
D. All of the above
E. None of these
Which of the following steps would NOT lead to variation of genetic material?
A. Crossing over of homologous chromosomes
B. Crossing over of sister chromatids
C. The random alignment of the chromosomes during metaphase I
D. The combination of sperm and egg genes
Which of the following is NOT a difference between anaphase I and anaphase II?
A. At the end of anaphase I, each chromosome is composed of two chromatids and at the end of anaphase II, sister chromatids have separated, becoming daughter chromosomes
B. Anaphase I occurs in a haploid cell while anaphase II occurs in a diploid cell.
C. Sister chromatids separate during anaphase II while homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I.
D. The cell undergoing anaphase II is genetically different from what it contained while undergoing anaphase I.
It could be said that males are able to provide gametes with more genetic diversity than females for reproduction. One main reason would be:
A. Males provide more genes in sperm than females provide in eggs.
B. Crossing over occurs more often in the formation of sperm than in eggs.
C. Spermatogenesis in males results in four functional sperm while oogenesis in females results in only one egg and three structures that contain genetic information that is lost when they disintegrate.
D. Sperm that contain a recombination of genes are usually more successful in fertilizing an egg.
The cell formed through fertilization of an egg by a sperm is called a/an
A. gamete.
B. Sperm cell.
C. zygote.
D. Egg cell.
E. ovum.
If a sperm cell contains 8 chromosomes, it comes from an animal that has ______ chromosomes.
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
E. 24
Another name for a tetrad is a/an
A. homologue.
B. bivalent.
C. öocyte.
D. gamete.
E. Polar body.
If a cell contains 12 chromosomes at the end of meiosis I, how many chromosomes will the daughter cells contain at the end of meiosis II?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 12
D. 24
During which stage of meiosis does crossing-over occur?
A. prophase I of meiosis I
B. anaphase I of meiosis II
C. telophase I of meiosis I
D. prophase II of meiosis II
E. anaphase II of meiosis I
Homologous chromosomes are similar in all of these characteristics EXCEPT:
A. Similar in size.
B. Carry the same alleles for all traits.
C. Carry genes for the same traits.
D. Similar in shape and location of the centromere.
What is the importance of crossing-over?
A. It provides extra genetic material for the daughter cells.
B. It increases the likelihood that daughter cells contain different genetic material.
C. It produces the proteins that are associated with DNA in chromosomes.
D. It increases chromosome condensation.
E. It separates the homologous chromosomes.
The overall function of meiosis includes all of the following EXCEPT
A. Gamete production.
B. Reduction of chromosome number (from 2N to N).
C. Providing genetic variation in sexually reproducing organisms.
D. Growth of the overall individual.
Sources of genetic variation in a sexually reproducing population include(s) which of the following?
A. Crossing over in Prophase I of meiosis
B. Independent assortment in Metaphase I of meiosis
C. fertilization
D. All of the choices are sources of genetic variation.
E. None of the choices are sources of genetic variation.
To what does the term chiasma refer?
A. The process of fertilization
B. The life cycle of a fungus
C. The process of crossing-over
D. A structure that holds together homologues during crossing-over
E. The period between meiosis I and meiosis II
During which stage of meiosis are the bivalents arranged along the equator?
A. prophase I
B. metaphase II
C. anaphase II
D. prophase II
E. metaphase I
At which stage of meiosis is each chromosome composed of a single chromatid?
A. prophase I
B. metaphase II
C. anaphase II
D. prophase II
E. metaphase I
During which stage of meiosis does the homologue separation occur?
A. prophase I
B. anaphase I
C. telophase I
D. prophase II
E. anaphase II
Which statement is NOT true about homologues in meiosis I?
A. Homologous chromosomes pair to form a tetrad.
B. Homologous chromosomes separate and go to different daughter cells.
C. Each homologue's centromere splits to form two chromosomes.
D. Homologues exchange genetic material between non-sister chromatids.
E. Homologues interact with the spindle as if they were one chromosome.
The genus Lacerta is composed of a species of lizards that are female and do not mate. They undergo "endomitosis" where one extra chromosome replication results in a tetraploid cell before meiosis begins. Normal female 2n offspring result without fertilization. What change(s) from regular meiosis (in preparation for fertilization) would be required to produce this system?
A. The haploid cell products of meiosis II fuse.
B. Meiosis stops after meiosis I and does not proceed to meiosis II.
C. Cytokinesis does not follow "endomitosis" that results in a tetraploid cell.
D. During anaphase II, the sister centromeres fail to separate and daughter cells will not form.
E. During anaphase II, the daughter chromosomes are non-disjunctive and are all pulled to one daughter cell.
Interkinesis is different from interphase in which way?
A. Interkinesis occurs after a cell finishes a nuclear division.
B. Interkinesis is the stage that precedes a prophase stage.
C. Interphase involves DNA replication and interkinesis does not.
D. Interkinesis can be variable in length.
Which of the following reasons helped make Mendel successful with his genetic experiments?
A. He had a strong background in mathematics
B. He was very deliberate and followed the scientific method closely while doing his research
C. He kept very detailed records of his research
D. He was basing his research off of preexisting research
E. All are reasons Mendel was successful with his genetic experiments
Which of the following is NOT a trait that is the result of, or is affected by, the interaction of more than one gene?
A. Human skin color
B. Cleft palate
C. height
D. Sickle cell anemia
Which of the following crosses would always result in offspring that only display the dominant phenotype?
A. TT x tt
B. Tt x Tt
C. TT x TT
D. Tt x tt
E. Two of the crosses will always display the dominant phenotype
What aspect of Mendel's background gave him the necessary tools to discover the laws of inheritance?
A. He was a monk.
B. He was a teacher.
C. He lived in Austria.
D. He had studied mathematics and probability.
E. He corresponded with Charles Darwin.
What is the blending theory of inheritance?
A. Mendel's theory of how the traits of parents are passed to offspring through the gametes
B. Darwin's theory of how traits are passed from all parts of the parent's body into the gamete to be transmitted to the offspring
C. The modern theory of how genetic information is passed from parents to offspring
D. An old theory that said that offspring show traits intermediate between those of the parents
Which characteristic of pea plants were important in their selection as Mendel's research organism?
A. Peas are easy to cultivate.
B. Pea plants have a short generation time.
C. Pea plants are self-pollinating but can be cross-fertilized easily.
D. Many true-breeding varieties were available.
E. All of the above were important characteristics in Mendel's selection.
In a classic Mendelian monohybrid cross between a homozygous dominant parent and a homozygous recessive parent, which generation is always completely heterozygous?
A. F1 generation
B. F2 generation
C. F3 generation
D. P generation
If a pea plant shows a recessive phenotype,
A. The genotype may be TT or Tt.
B. The genotype may be Tt or tt.
C. The genotype can only be TT.
D. The genotype can only be tt.
E. The genotype may be TT, Tt, or tt.
Women with X-linked disorders always pass the genes for the disorder to ______, while men with X-linked disorders always pass the genes for the disorder to _______.
A. Only their daughters; only their daughters
B. Both their daughters and sons; only their sons
C. Both their daughters and sons; only their daughters
D. Both their daughters and sons; their daughters and sons
Generally, it is not possible to determine whether nondisjunction failed to occur in oogenesis or spermatogenesis. However, it is possible to assert that _________ resulted in nondisjunction in __________.
A. XXY; oogenesis
B. XYY; spermatogenesis
C. XXX; oogenesis
D. XXY; spermatogenesis
E. XO; oogenesis
The F2 offspring of a classic Mendelian monohybrid cross between homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive parents would produce the genotype(s)
A. AA and Aa.
B. Aa and aa.
C. AA, Aa, and aa.
D. AA only.
E. Aa only.
The offspring of a monohybrid testcross would have what possible genotype(s)?
A. AA and Aa.
B. Aa and aa.
C. AA, Aa, and aa.
D. AA only.
E. Aa only.
What are alleles?
A. Genes for different traits, such as hair color or eye color
B. Alternative forms of a gene for a single trait, such as blue eyes or brown eyes
C. The locations of genes on a chromosome
D. Recessive forms of a kind of characteristic carried by genes
E. Dominant forms of a kind of characteristic carried by genes
If an individual with a dominant phenotype is crossed with an individual with a recessive phenotype, 4 of their 9 offspring show the recessive phenotype. What is the genotype of the first parent?
A. AA
B. Aa
C. aa
D. The answer cannot be determined from this information.
Which is NOT true according to Mendel's law of segregation?
A. Each individual contains two factors for each trait.
B. One factor must be dominant and one factor recessive in each individual.
C. Factors separate from each other during gamete formation.
D. Each gamete contains one copy of each factor.
E. Fertilization restores the presence of two factors.
Some plants fail to produce chlorophyll, and this trait appears to be recessive. Many plants also self-pollinate. If we locate a pea plant that is heterozygous for this trait, self-pollinate it and harvest seeds, what are the likely phenotypes of these seeds when they germinate?
A. All will be green with chlorophyll since that is the dominant trait.
B. All will be white and lack chlorophyll since this is self-pollinated.
C. About one-half will be green and one-half white since that is the distribution of the genes in the parents.
D. About one-fourth will be white and three-fourths green since it is similar to a monohybrid cross between heterozygotes.
E. About one-fourth will be green and three-fourths white since it is similar to a monohybrid cross between heterozygotes.
The most common lethal genetic disease among Caucasians is
A. neurofibromatosis.
B. Tay-Sachs disease.
C. phenylketonuria.
D. albinism.
E. Cystic fibrosis.
The pedigree chart depicts the inheritance pattern of ____. Circles depict females and squares depict males. Colored shapes represent affected individuals (expressing a trait) and uncolored shapes are unaffected (do not express a trait).
A. An autosomal recessive characteristic with both parents being heterozygous
B. An autosomal dominant characteristic with both parents being homozygous dominant
C. An autosomal recessive characteristic with both parents being homozygous recessive
D. None of the above
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